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PSYC 100 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is human development?

A

age-related physical, intellectual, and social changes that occur throughout the lifespan

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2
Q

what is the approximate age of the prenatal stage?

A

conception to birth

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3
Q

what approximate age is the infancy stage?

A

birth to 12 months

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4
Q

what approximate ages are early and middle childhood?

A
  • early = 12 months - 6 years
  • middle = 6-12 years
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5
Q

what approximate age is adolescence?

A

12-20 years

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6
Q

what approximate ages are young, middle, and later adulthood?

A
  • young = 20-45 years
  • middle = 45-60 years
  • later = 60 years - death
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7
Q

what are the stages of development from conception to birth?

A
  • conception: sperm + egg = zygote
  • 2 weeks: zygote implanted into uterine wall
  • 2 weeks - 2 months: embryo
  • 2 months to birth: fetus
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8
Q

how long is a full-term pregnancy?

A

38-42 weeks (twins not past ~37 weeks)

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9
Q

what happens during the germinal period?

A

conception to implantation (most fertilized eggs don’t survive this stage)

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10
Q

what happens during the embryonic period?

A
  • body shape develops and sexual differentiation begins
  • stage of greatest risk of environmental harm
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11
Q

what happens during the fetal period?

A

final development of organs and muscular-skeletal structure

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12
Q

what parts of the mother’s experience can impact the baby?

A
  • illness
  • substance use
  • exposure to teratogens
  • mental health
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13
Q

how do babies come into the world?

A

vaginal birth or C-section

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14
Q

what is the grasping reflex?

A

baby grips something tightly when something touches the baby’s palm (helps them hold onto mom)

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15
Q

what is the rooting reflex?

A

baby turns head and opens mouth with side of baby’s face is touched (better position for feeding)

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16
Q

what is the sucking reflex?

A

baby sucks when something touches the roof of the baby’s mouth (enables breast/bottle feeding)

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17
Q

what influences an individual’s development?

A

genetic makeup and environment

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18
Q

how do nervous systems mature?

A
  • down and out
  • head down and center out
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19
Q

what is a growth spurt?

A

rapid increase in height and weight

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20
Q

what is puberty?

A

period of changes in which human body reaches sexual maturity and is capable of producing offspring

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21
Q

what changes occur during puberty?

A
  • development/increase in body hair
  • body odor
  • enlargement/maturation of sex organs
  • menarche (first period) (women)
  • ability to ejaculate (men)
  • voice changes
  • increase in muscle mass (men)
  • gaining of fat (women)
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22
Q

what average age do boys and girls go through puberty?

A
  • girls = 11
  • boys = 13
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23
Q

at what age is the prefrontal cortex fully developed?

A

25 years old

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24
Q

what are the functions of the prefrontal cortex?

A

decision-making, inhibition, processing speed

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25
Q

at what age does the human body reach peak strength?

A

20s

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26
Q

what is menopause?

A
  • when the menstrual cycle slows and stops
  • usually around 50
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27
Q

what effect do later-life hormone changes have on men?

A
  • erectile dysfunction (testosterone)
  • more emotional
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28
Q

what is dementia?

A

decline in cognitive abilities

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29
Q

what is Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

serious brain degeneration disease resulting in significant dementia process

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30
Q

what are aspects of infants’ thoughts and feelings?

A
  • drawn to female faces and novel things
  • able to learn based on rewards
  • bored with repeated stimuli (habituation)
  • sensitive to pain, smell, taste, and touch
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31
Q

what was Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

A

cognitive development is guided by assimilation and accommodation

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32
Q

what is assimilation (Piaget)?

A
  • process through which we fit (assimilate) new experiences into our existing schemata
  • fitting new info into existing categories
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33
Q

what is accommodation (Piaget)?

A
  • process through which we change/modify existing schemata to accommodate new experiences
  • formation of new categories
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34
Q

what are Piaget’s emphasized stages of cognitive development?

A
  • step-wise process in which you can’t move onto next stage without conquering current one
    1. sensorimotor
    2. preoperational
    3. concrete operational
    4. formal operational
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35
Q

what is object permanence?

A

ability to recognize that an object still exists when it’s no longer in sight

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36
Q

what is the principle of conservation?

A

physical properties remain the same after superficial change (ex: amount of water doesn’t change even if it’s placed into a smaller cup)

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37
Q

what is egocentrism?

A

tendency to view the world only from your unique perspective

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38
Q

what is the theory of mind?

A

ability to understand what others are thinking/their perspective

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39
Q

what is Vygotsky’s zone of proximal learning theory?

A
  • 3 parts:
    1. what you can do independently
    2. zone of proximal development - what you can do if guided
    3. what you can’t do even with guidance
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40
Q

what is morality?

A

ability to distinguish between appropriate and inappropriate actions

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41
Q

what are the three stages of moral development according to Kohlberg?

A
  1. preconventional - external consequences (avoiding punishment + self-interest)
  2. conventional - internalized rules (conformity + authority/law and order)
  3. post-conventional - abstract reasoning (social contract + principle)
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42
Q

what is the Heinz Dilemma (Kohlberg)?

A

having exhausted every other possibility, should Heinz steal an expensive drug that offers the only hope of saving his dying wife?

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43
Q

what is imprinting?

A

a sensitive period during which young animals become strongly attached to a nearby adult

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44
Q

what is the Harlow monkey experiment?

A
  • baby monkey’s would choose to cling to cloth “mother” instead of wire one even though wire frame was source of food
  • emphasized importance of contact comfort
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45
Q

what is an attachment?

A

a strong emotional connection between people that persists over time and across circumstance

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46
Q

what are the 4 types of attachments?

A
  1. secure
  2. resistant/ambivalent
  3. avoidant
  4. disorganized
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47
Q

how did each attachment respond in the strange situation test?

A
  • secure - upset when parent left and then back to normal when they return
  • resistant - upset when parent left and mad/upset with them when they return
  • avoidant - child unbothered by parent’s departure and return
  • disorganized - inconsistent responses
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48
Q

what is Erickson’s theory of identity development?

A
  • child creates identity as they learn more about the world
  • age-related psychosocial challenges across lifespan
  • each challenge provides skills/attitudes necessary to successfully facing next challenge
  • you don’t need to get through each crisis to move on, but unresolved crisis will cause problems later
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49
Q

what are the eight stages of psychosocial development?

A
  1. infancy - trust vs. mistrust
  2. toddler - autonomy vs. shame/doubt
  3. preschool - initiative vs. guilt
  4. childhood - industry vs. inferiority
  5. adolescence - identity vs. role confusion
  6. young adulthood - intimacy vs. isolation
  7. middle adulthood - generativity vs. stagnation
  8. old age - integrity vs. despair
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50
Q

what 3 changes cause adolescents to question who they are?

A
  1. changed physical appearance
  2. increased cognitive abilities
  3. heightened societal pressure
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51
Q

what is gender identity?

A

one’s sense of being male/female/non-binary

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52
Q

what are gender roles?

A

behavior typically associated with being male/female

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53
Q

what are the two influences on gender identity develpment?

A
  1. biology - hormones lead to changes in brain structure/function
  2. gender socialization - what society and culture tells us about gender
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54
Q

what is the consequence of having more intersectional identities?

A

longer/more complicated process to accept the identities

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55
Q

when do the body and mind start deteriorating?

A

around 50 years old

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56
Q

what are the 5 stages of facing death?

A
  1. denial
  2. anger
  3. bargaining
  4. depression
  5. acceptance
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57
Q

what is learning?

A

relatively permanent change in behavior, or potential behavior, that results from experience

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58
Q

what is an orienting response?

A

inborn tendency to notice and respond to novel or surprising events

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59
Q

what is habituation?

A
  • a decline in responsiveness to a stimulus that is presented repeatedly
  • typically occurs if a stimulus is mild/moderate
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60
Q

what is sensitization?

A
  • increased responsiveness to an event that has been repeated
  • typically occurs if a stimulus is intense/punishing/irritating
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61
Q

what is classical conditioning?

A
  • developed by Ivan Pavlov
  • set of procedures used to investigate how organisms learn about signaling properties of events
  • learning relations between events that occur outside of one’s control
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62
Q

what are the 3 rules of classical conditioning?

A
  1. conditioned stimulus should be presented first
  2. unconditioned stimulus should be presented quickly after conditioned stimulus
  3. conditioned stimulus must provide new info about unconditioned stimulus
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63
Q

what is blocking (classical conditioning)?

A

2nd stimulus can distract from conditioned stimulus

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64
Q

what is an unconditioned stimulus?

A

a stimulus that automatically leads to an observable response prior to any training

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65
Q

what is a conditioned stimulus?

A
  • the neutral stimulus that is paired with the unconditioned stimulus
  • becomes a signal of the unconditioned stimulus
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66
Q

what is a conditioned response?

A

the acquired response that is produced by the conditioned stimulus

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67
Q

what is acquisition?

A

gradual formation of an association between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli

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68
Q

what is extinction?

A

a process in which the conditioned response is weakened when the conditioned stimulus is repeated without the unconditioned stimulus

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69
Q

what is spontaneous recovery?

A

a process in which a previously extinguished conditioned response reemerges after the presentation of conditioned stimulus

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70
Q

what is operant (instrumental) conditioning?

A

a procedure for studying how organisms learn about the consequences of their own voluntary actions

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71
Q

what is the law of effect?

A
  • if a response in a particular situation followed by satisfying/pleasant consequence, connection between response and that situation is strengthened
  • if response in a particular situation is followed by an unsatisfying/unpleasant consequence, connection will be weakened
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72
Q

what is reinforcement?

A

response consequences that increase likelihood of responding in a similar manner again

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73
Q

what is positive reinforcement?

A

event that, when presented after a response, increases likelihood of response occuring again

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74
Q

what is negative reinforcement?

A

event that, when removed after a response, increases likelihood of response occuring again

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75
Q

what is punishment?

A

consequences that decrease the likelihood of responding in a similar manner again

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76
Q

what is positive punishment?

A

event that, when presented after response, lowers likelihood of response occuring again (additional punishment)

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77
Q

what is negative punishment

A

event that, when removed after a response, lowers likelihood of response occuring again (something taken away as punishment)

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78
Q

what is continuous reinforcement?

A

behavior is reinforced each time it occurs

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79
Q

what is partial reinforcement?

A

behavior is reinforced intermittently

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80
Q

what is the fixed-ratio schedule of partial reinforcement?

A

number of required responses is fixed and does not change (ex: assembly line)

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81
Q

what is the variable-ratio schedule of partial reinforcement?

A

certain number of responses are required but number is unkown and varies (ex: gambling)

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82
Q

what is the fixed-interval schedule of partial reinforcement?

A

reward given for first response after set time interval (ex: treat after finishing hw each day)

83
Q

what is the variable-interval schedule of partial reinforcement?

A

reward is given for first response after varied amount of time (ex: fishing)

84
Q

what schedule of reinforcement is most effective?

A

variable ratio

85
Q

what is shaping?

A
  • reinforcing behaviors that are increasingly similar to the desired behavior
  • successive approximations start with any behavior that even slightly resembles the desired behavior
86
Q

what is a major contributor to our first impressions of people?

A

physical appearance

87
Q

what is confirmation bias?

A

we accept info that’s consistent with our beliefs/assumptions

88
Q

what is a social schema?

A

general knowledge structures that are stored in long term memory related to our social experiences or people

89
Q

what are stereotypes?

A

collections of beliefs and impressions held about a group and its members

90
Q

what are prejudices?

A

negative or positive evaluations of a group

91
Q

what are stigmas?

A

attributes that link a person to an undesirable stereotype

92
Q

what is discrimination?

A

when beliefs turn into actions against members of a group

93
Q

what is explicit prejudice?

A

negative attitudes about a group that are consciously endorsed

94
Q

what is implicit prejudice?

A

prejudicial thoughts that come to mind unintentionally and may not be consciously recognized/controllable

95
Q

what helps reduce prejudice?

A

education and exposure to others

96
Q

what is a stereotype threat?

A

when a commonly stereotyped individual is placed in a situation that causes them to fear that their performance will conform with a prevailing stereotype

97
Q

what are the 4 parts of the self-fulfilling prophecy?

A

1) your actions towards others impact 2) others’ beliefs about you which cause 3) others’ actions towards you which reinforce 4) your beliefs about yourself which influence 1) your actions towards others (cycle repeats)

98
Q

what can others’ behavior be attributed to?

A

internal causes (dispositional/trait-based) and external causes (environmental/situational)

99
Q

when are internal and external behavior explanations are preferable?

A

internal when positive and external when negative

100
Q

what are the 3 parts of Kelley’s covariation model of attributions?

A
  1. consistency
  2. distinctiveness
  3. consensus
101
Q

what is the fundamental attribution error?

A

when interpreting another person’s behavior, we overestimate the influence of internal personal factors and underestimate the role of external situational factors

102
Q

what is actor-observer bias?

A
  • judgements of others are internal (dispositional) but judgments of ourselves are external (situational)
  • ex: when I’m late to work it’s because traffic was bad but when John is late to work it’s because he has poor time management skills
103
Q

what is self-serving bias?

A
  • success is internal and failure is external
  • exception to actor-observer bias
  • ex: I got an award at work because I’m hard-working vs. I got demoted at work because my boss and office sucks
104
Q

what is the false consensus effect?

A

“everyone” agrees

105
Q

what are the 3 common attribution errors?

A
  1. actor-observer bias
  2. self-serving bias
  3. false consensus effect
106
Q

what is an attitude?

A
  • positive or negative evaluation that predisposes one to behave in certain ways
  • helps us focus on info consistent with our beliefs
  • helps us interpret/perceive world
107
Q

what are central route messages?

A
  • use high quality arguments to talk about important characteristics of an item
  • work when people are ready to thoughtfully process info and change opinions
  • more likely to lead to long-lasting attitude change
108
Q

what are peripheral route messages?

A
  • use low quality arguments to associate an item with other positive things
  • work when audience is unable/unwilling to process mindfully
109
Q

what is cognitive dissonance?

A

people prefer consistency in their attitudes/behavior and when confronted with their own inconsistencies, will be motivated to change their attitudes/behavior

110
Q

what is the Festinger and Carlsmith study?

A
  • example of cognitive dissonance
  • people paid $20 or $1 to lie to others and say study was interesting
  • people who were paid less lied more because greater dissonance led to greater attitude change

https://explorable.com/cognitive-dissonance

111
Q

what is social influence?

A

how our behavior is changed by others

112
Q

what is social facilitation?

A

performing better in the presence of others

113
Q

what is social interference?

A

performing worse in the presence of others

114
Q

what is altruism?

A

increased acts of helping behavior in presence of others

115
Q

what is the bystander effect?

A

reluctance to come to another’s aid when others are present

116
Q

what is pure altruism?

A

helping others/selfless acts done for no personal gain

117
Q

what is reciprocal altruism?

A

expectation of a return gesture over the long-term

118
Q

what is the reciprocity norm?

A
  • give help and then expect something in return
  • can be found in lasting relationships
  • dissatisfaction when there is no reciprocation
  • even unwanted actions/items trigger a need to reciprocate
119
Q

what is persuasion/compliance?

A

using reciprocity norm to gain compliance

120
Q

what is the foot in the door compliance method?

A
  • small request and then large request later - based on commitment
  • ex: asking someone for $5 and then asking for $25 later on, they’ve already given $5 so figure they can give $25
121
Q

what is the door in the face compliance method?

A
  • large request is rejected and then smaller request made later is accepted - based on reciprocity norm
  • ex: asking for $200 and someone says no, then you ask for $20, you figure that they gave you a discount so you’re okay with returning the favor by paying
122
Q

what is the lowballing compliance method?

A
  • person agrees to purchase at a good price and then the original deal changes (car salesman)
  • based on commitment and reciprocity
123
Q

what is the story of Kitty Genovese?

A
  • example of bystander effect
  • raped and stabbed for over 30 min
  • 38 alleged witnesses but no one called police until too late
124
Q

what is the diffusion of responsibility (bystander effect)?

A

thinking someone else will help

125
Q

what is pluralistic ignorance (bystander effect)?

A

taking social cues from others

126
Q

what factors affect helping?

A
  • environment
  • sense of common fate (increases)
  • perceive help is needed
  • risk to self
  • personal factors (in a hurry, etc.)
127
Q

what is social loafing?

A

putting in less effort when in a group

128
Q

what is deindividuation?

A

loss of identity when in a group (contributes to prejudice, racism, and discrimination)

129
Q

what is conformity?

A

tendency to comply with wishes of group

130
Q

what was Solomon Asch’s experiment?

A
  • line test with 3 lines of different length
  • 3+ confederates offered wrong answer when participants were asked which line matched the reference line
  • most people conformed at least once
131
Q

what is group polarization?

A

group’s dominant POV becomes stronger over time

132
Q

what is group think?

A

members of a group become so interested in consensus that they ignore/suppress dissenting views

133
Q

what is Stanley Milgram’s experiment?

A
  • example of conformity to authority
  • participants encouraged by authority figure to shock someone as they completed a verbal memory test
  • 65% of people administered a lethal shock
134
Q

what was Philip Zimbardo’s Stanford prison experiment?

A
  • example of social roles and power of situation
  • young men randomly assigned to be guards or prisoners
  • had to end after 6 days instead of planned 14 because of brutality
135
Q

what is the People’s Temple and who is Jim Jones?

A

cult leader who is responsible for mass suicide of 900 members

136
Q

what factors increase liking someone?

A
  • similarity
  • proximity
  • attractiveness
137
Q

what is passionate love?

A

passion + intimacy

138
Q

what is companionate love?

A

intimacy + commitment

139
Q

what are the 4 Ds of psychological disorders?

A
  1. deviance
  2. distress
  3. dysfunction
  4. danger
140
Q

what is deviance?

A

behaviors, thoughts, and feelings are not aligned with one’s cultural standards

141
Q

what is distress?

A

symptoms are upsetting and cause pain, suffering, and/or sorrow for self or others

142
Q

what is dysfunction?

A

symptoms are disruptive to one’s regular routine or interfere with day-to-day functioning

143
Q

what is danger?

A

symptoms may lead to harm or injury to self or others

144
Q

how is the DSM organized?

A

disorders arranged from childhood to older adulthood and grouped by similarities

145
Q

what are the DSM’s 3 criteria for clinical diagnosis?

A
  1. symptoms must meet minimum criteria for a minimum amount of time
  2. symptoms must cause significant distress for self or others
  3. symptoms must cause dysfunction in individual’s life
146
Q

which mental health disorder is most prevalent?

A

anxiety disorders

147
Q

what is generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A
  • chronic worrying for 6+ months
  • excessive autonomic activity (racing heart, tension, etc.)
148
Q

what is panic disorder?

A
  • repeated episodes of intense fear/dread (~10-20 min)
  • symptoms: racing heart, tight chest, abnormal breathing, tunnel vision, fear of heart attack/”going crazy”
  • avoidance of situations that might cause panic
149
Q

what is agoraphobia?

A
  • fear of being in open spaces/closed spaces/stuck in lines AND not being able to escape
  • active avoidance
150
Q

what is specific phobic disorder?

A
  • significant, irrational fear of object, place, or situation
  • active avoidance of feared object
151
Q

what is social anxiety disorder?

A
  • fear of being judged or embarassing oneself in social situations
  • active avoidance of social situations or tolerating them with great distress
152
Q

what is obsessive compulsive disorder?

A
  • obsessions are recurrent unwanted and intrusive thoughts, fears, urges, or images
  • compulsions are behaviors or mental rehearsals in response to an obsession
153
Q

what is hoarding disorder?

A
  • difficulty getting rid of useless things resulting in excessive accumulation
154
Q

what is major depressive disorder?

A
  • 2 week or longer episode
  • symptoms: low/sad mood, lack of motivation/energy, changes in sleep/appetite, negative thoughts about self/world, suicidal thoughts/actions
155
Q

what is persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia)?

A
  • low grade depression lasting longer than 2 years
  • can be more dangerous - increased risk of suicide
156
Q

what are the bipolar disorders?

A
  • manic/hypomanic episodes - state of intense hyperactivity or impulsivity that can be self-destructive/dangerous
  • may cause severe impairment
  • medication typically needed
  • high suicide prevalence
157
Q

what is the difference between bipolar I and II?

A
  • bipolar I = manic episodes (sometimes depressive too)
  • bipolar II = hypomanic and depressive episodes + higher suicide prevalence than I
158
Q

what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • delusions (ex: I’m a god)
  • hallucinations (5 senses)
  • disorganized thoughts/speech
  • bizarre/catatonic (rigid) behavior
159
Q

what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • affective flattening - flattening of emotions
  • alogia - restriction in thought/speech
  • avolition - less goal-oriented
  • anhedonia - unable to feel pleasure
  • asociality - isolation
160
Q

what are the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A
  • loose thought association
  • neologisms - made-up words
  • impaired attention
  • impaired memory
  • difficulties with decision-making/problem solving
161
Q

what is the most lethal mental health diagnosis?

162
Q

what is anorexia nervosa?

A
  • restriction of food intake
  • extreme fear of weight gain
  • disturbed view of appearance
  • low weight
163
Q

what is bulimia nervosa?

A
  • binge eating with lack of control
  • purging (laxatives, diuretics, vomiting)
  • typically normal weight
164
Q

what is binge eating disorder?

A
  • binge eating with lack of control
  • no purging
  • typically overweight
165
Q

what is trauma?

A

emotional experience to something terrifying/dangerous

166
Q

what is stress?

A

reaction to life demands

167
Q

what is posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A
  • witnessing traumatic event
  • symptoms: thoughts about event, hypervigilance, negative thoughts/emotions, avoidance
168
Q

what are alcohol/substance use disorders?

A
  • continued use of alcohol/substances despite negative consequences
  • symptoms: cravings, withdrawals, tolerance, unsuccessful attempts to quit
169
Q

what is somatic symptom disorder?

A

intense focus on symptoms of physical illness/pain/worry about obtaining a serious illness

170
Q

what is conversion disorder?

A

experience of real symptoms of illness/injury with no medical explanation

171
Q

what is dissociative amnesia?

A

inability to remember important personal info

172
Q

what is dissociative fugue?

A

loss of personal identity and person typically leaves their home

173
Q

what is dissociative identity disorder (multiple personality disorder)?

A
  • presence of 2+ distinct personalities
  • extensive memory loss across personalities
174
Q

what is a personality disorder?

A

chronic or enduring patterns of behavior that lead to significant impairments in social functioning

175
Q

what are the cluster A personality disorders?

A
  • paranoid
  • schizoid
  • schizotypal - psychotic symptoms + interpersonal deficits
176
Q

what are the cluster B personality disorders?

A
  • antisocial
  • borderline - fear of abandonment, extreme emotional dysregulation, self-harm, suicide
  • histrionic - big/loud presentation
  • narcissistic
177
Q

what are the cluster C personality disorders?

A
  • avoidant
  • dependent
  • obsessive-compulsive (perfectionism not OCD)
178
Q

what is a neurocognitive disorder?

A

decline in decision making, reasoning, memory, and learning abilities

179
Q

what is the diathesis stress model?

A

genetic predisposition (diathesis) + life experience (stress) = mental health outcomes

180
Q

what is suicide?

A

intentionally taking one’s own life

181
Q

what is Thomas Joiner’s interpersonal model of suicide?

A

capability for suicide + thwarted belongingness + perceived burdensomness + desire for suicide = lethal/near lethal attempts

182
Q

what are antipsychotics?

A
  • primarily treat positive symptoms of schizophrenia
  • 1st generation = dopamine agonist
  • 2nd generation = dopamine and serotonin
183
Q

what are antidepressants?

A
  • tricyclics = norepinephrine
  • SSRIs = block serotonin reuptake
  • can be used to treat depression, anxiety, EDs, PTSD
184
Q

what are benzodiazepines?

A
  • used to treat anxiety
  • act on GABA - sedation
  • recommended for short term use due to dependency
185
Q

what can ketamine therapy be used to treat?

A

depression, anxiety, PTSD, and OCD

186
Q

what can transmagnetic stimulation therapy be used to treat?

A

depression

187
Q

what can electroconvulsive therapy be used to treat?

A
  • treatment-resistant depression
  • one of the oldest forms of treatment but efficacy isn’t well understood
  • can cause memory loss and confusion
188
Q

what is insight therapy?

A

verbal therapy designed to assist in gaining self-knowledge about inner thoughts, desires, emotions, etc.

189
Q

what is the goal of psychoanalysis?

A

uncovering and reliving unconscious conflicts

190
Q

what is free association?

A

relax and discuss whatever comes to mind

191
Q

what is the goal of dream analysis?

A

believed to offer info about primitive desires of unconscious

192
Q

what is the modern version of Freud’s psychoanalysis?

A

psychodynamic therapy

193
Q

what is cognitive therapy?

A
  • focus on conscious thoughts and belief that irrational/negative beliefs lead to mental health disorders
  • if beliefs changes, symptoms are reduced
194
Q

what is rational-emotive therapy (cognitive)?

A

confrontational and offering a counterargument to irrational thoughts

195
Q

what is Beck’s cognitive therapy?

A

more subtle invitation for patients to identify negative thoughts on their own with therapist as co-investigator who assigns HW (recording thoughts and creating rational responses)

196
Q

what are the 3 qualities of humanistic therapy?

A
  1. genuineness
  2. unconditional positive regard
  3. empathy
197
Q

what is humanistic therapy?

A

gaining insight into one’s inherent self-worth and value because therapist believes you have capability to fix your own problems and behaviors

198
Q

what is client-centered therapy (humanistic)?

A

client holds key to psychological health and happiness and therapist offers unconditional positive regard

199
Q

what are the components of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)?

A
  • cognitive restructuring
  • relaxation skills training
  • exposure therapy
200
Q

what is exposure therapy (CBT)?

A

creation of fear hierarchy and systematic desensitization

201
Q

what is systematic desensitization (exposure therapy)?

A

engage in exposure to reduce fear response to feared object/situation

202
Q

what is acceptance and commitment therapy (CBT)?

A

changing relationship with uncomfortable thoughts, emotions, and feelings to live according to values

203
Q

what is dialectical behavior therapy (CBT)?

A
  • radical acceptance + active change
  • long/extensive program
  • lots of boundaries/expectations
204
Q

what are the 4 types of therapy?

A
  1. individual
  2. group (open vs. closed)
  3. couples - relationship is client
  4. family - focused on what’s best for family

PSYC 100 (3 decks)

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