Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Classical Conditioning

A

Process of modifying behavior by pairing a
conditioned stimulus with an unconditioned
stimulus to elicit an unconditioned response

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2
Q

What is the conditioned stimulus, unconditioned stimulus, and unconditioned response in the Pavlov dog experiment?

A

Pavlov’s dog:
* Conditioned stimulus – ringing a bell
* Unconditioned stimulus – presenting meat
* Unconditioned response – salivation

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3
Q

What is Operant Conditioning?

A
  • Process of modifying behavior by
    following specific behaviors with positive
    or negative consequences
  • Three types of reinforcement used for OB
    modification: (OBM)
  • Financial
  • Nonfinancial
  • Social
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4
Q

What is Reinforcement Theory?

A

Reinforcement:
* Cultivates desirable behavior by
either giving positive consequences or withholding negative consequences
* Positive consequences – results an
individual finds attractive or pleasurable
* Negative consequences – results an individual finds unattractive or aversive

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5
Q

What is Punishment and Extinction in Reinforcement Theory

A

Punishment discourages undesirable behavior by giving negative consequences or withholding positive consequences

Extinction weakens behavior by attaching no consequences to it

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6
Q

Goal Setting

A

The process of establishing desired results that guide and direct behavior.

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7
Q

Characteristics of Effective Goals: SMART

A

Specific: does your goal include who, what, where, and why?

Measurable: How will you know you have accomplished your goal?

Attainable: Can you attain this goal?

Realistic (relevant): Relevant to role and interests

Time-bound: When will you achieve your goal?

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8
Q

Alternative Goal Setting Approach: EASY

A

Energizing: the goal gives you energy instead of taking it

Agency: you are in control of your goal; nothing can stop you from accomplishing it

Small: can be achieved in three months or less

Yours: Is your goal a “should” or a “want;” personal to you

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9
Q

Performance Management

A

Process of defining, measuring, appraising, providing feedback on, and improving performance.

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10
Q

Internal vs. External Attribution

A

Attribution can be either internal or external. Internal attribution assumes events or behaviors are caused by internal factors, such as personality traits or abilities. External factors assume that an event or behavior is caused by situational factors, such as a person’s social or physical environment.

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11
Q

Bias

A

Personality-based tendency, either toward or against something

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12
Q

Stereotyping

A

Mentally classifying a person into an affinity group and then identifying the person as having the same assumed characteristics as the group.

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13
Q

Halo & Horns Error

A

Halo error: evaluator forms a generally POSITIVE impression of an individual and then extends that impression to performance

Horns error: evaluator forms a generally NEGATIVE impression of an individual and then extends that impression to performance

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14
Q

What are some distributional errors?

A

Severity/strictness: rate everyone very low

Central tendency: rate everyone in the middle

Leniency: rate everyone very high

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15
Q

What are Similarity and Proximity Error?

A

Similarity error: Rater gives better evaluations to those they consider more like themselves

Proximity error: Similar ratings given to items near each other on the rating form

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16
Q

Recency Error

A

Using only most recent performance, rather than entire evaluation period

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17
Q

Contrast & Attribution Error

A

Contrast error: Compares and contrasts employees instead of using objective and absolute measures of performance

Attribution error: Making assumptions about the reason or motivation for a behavior

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18
Q

360 degree feedback:

A

Feedback method based on multiple sources of information: self, manager, peers, direct reports, and customers.

  • Intended to provide a well-
    rounded view of performance
  • Can be labor-intensive
  • Not possible or ideal for all
    positions or organizations
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19
Q

The process of defining,
measuring, appraising, providing
feedback on, and improving
performance is ________:
A. Performance evaluation
B. Management
C. 360-degree feedback
D. Performance management

A

D. performance management

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20
Q

If Michael is late to work, they
need to make up the time by
working during their lunch
break. In reinforcement theory,
this is an example of:
A. A conditioned stimulus
B. Negative consequences
C. Positive consequences
D. Extinction

A

B. Negative consequences

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a
type of problem in performance
appraisal?
A. Halo error
B. Impression management
C. Recency
D. Attribution

A

B. Impression management

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22
Q

Janet has worked in a high-turnover,
entry-level position for six months.
Should Janet be evaluated using
360-degree feedback?
A. Yes, it is possible and ideal for all
positions
B. No, it is not possible or ideal for all
positions
C. Yes, it is labor-intensive but worth it
D. No, it should never be used

A

B. No, it is not ideal for all positions

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23
Q

What is stress?

A

The unconscious preparation to fight or flee that
one experiences when faced with any demand

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24
Q

Stressor

A

(Demand) Person or event that triggers the stress response

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25
Q

Distress (strain)

A

Adverse psychological, physical, behavioral, and
organizational consequences that may occur as a result of stress

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26
Q

What are the four approaches to stress?

A

Homeostatic (medical):
* Stress occurs when deep emotions or environmental demands upset an individual’s homeostasis
Cognitive appraisal:
* Emphasizes individual’s cognitive appraisal in classifying persons or events as stressful
Person-environment fit:
* Confusing and conflicting expectations of a person in a social role create stress for that person
Psychoanalytic:
* Results from the discrepancy between one’s idealized self and one’s actual self-image

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27
Q

What is the stress response?

A

A predictable sequence of
mind/body events:
* Release of chemical messengers into
the bloodstream
* Activation of the sympathetic nervous
system and endocrine system
* Trigger mind-body changes that
prepare a person for fight or flight

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28
Q

What are the four sources of work stress?

A

Task demands:
* Change
* Lack of control
* Career progress
* New technologies
* Temporal pressure

Role demands:
* Inter- or intra-role conflict
* Person-role
* Role ambiguity

Interpersonal demands:
* Emotional toxins
* Sexual harassment
* Poor leadership

Physical demands:
* Extreme environments
* Strenuous activities
* Hazardous substances
* Global travel

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29
Q

Yerke-Dodson Law (positive stress)

A

Stress leads to improved performance
up to an optimum point
* Beyond the optimum point, stress has a
detrimental effect on performance

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30
Q

What are the consequences of negative stress?

A
  • Individual distress
  • Organizational distress
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31
Q

What are the five types of social support?

A
  • Emotional caring & nurturance
  • Information
  • Appraisal & evaluative feedback
  • Role modeling & guidance
  • Resources or acting on behalf of a person
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32
Q

Preventative Stress Management

A
  • A philosophy that says people and organizations should take joint responsibility for promoting health and preventing distress and strain

Stages of prevention:
* Primary – Reduce, modify, or eliminate the demand causing stress
* Secondary – Alter or modify the individual’s or organization’s response to a
demand
* Tertiary – Heal individual or organizational symptoms of distress and strain

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33
Q

Passion vs. Workaholism

A

“A workaholic is a person who works compulsively.” While the term generally implies that the person enjoys their work, it can also alternately imply that they simply feel compelled to do it. Meanwhile, passion is defined as, “A strong feeling of enthusiasm or excitement for something or about doing something.

34
Q

Burnout

A

A prolonged response to chronic emotional and
interpersonal stressors on the job, consisting of:
* Emotional exhaustion – feeling emotionally
overextended and reaching one’s limit of emotional capabilities and empathy
* Depersonalization – psychological withdrawal from relationships and development of a negative, cynical, or callous attitude
* Reduced feelings of personal accomplishment – muted response to work-related victories

35
Q

The unconscious preparation to
fight or flee that one experiences when faced with any demand is ________:
A. Stress
B. Strain
C. Instinct
D. Coping

36
Q

Which of the following is NOT an approach to stress?
A. Person-environment fit
B. Cognitive appraisal
C. Homeostatic (medical)
D. Individual coping

A

D. Individual Coping

37
Q

Is stress ever a good thing for performance?
A. Yes, stress always improves performance
B. No, stress always has a negative impact on performance
C. Yes, stress leads to improved performance up to an optimum point
D. No, stress never improves performance

A

C. Yes, stress leads to improved performance up to an optimum point

38
Q

The ________ stage of preventative stress management seeks to reduce, modify, or eliminate the demand causing stress.
A. Primary
B. Tertiary
C. Secondary
D. Incidental

A

A. Primary

39
Q

Groups vs. Teams

A

Group
* Two or more people with common interests, objectives, and continuing interaction

Team
* Group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a common mission, performance goal, and approach for which they hold themselves mutually accountable

40
Q

Why have teams?

A

Teamwork benefits organizations

Benefits to Individuals
* Psychological intimacy: Emotional and psychological closeness to other team members
* Integrated involvement: Closeness achieved through tasks and activities

41
Q

What Are the Functions in Teams? (task vs maintenance)

A
  • Task function:
    Activity directly related to the effective completion of a team’s work
  • Maintenance function:
    Activity essential to effective, satisfying interpersonal relationships within a team or group
42
Q

What Are Positive Aspects of Group Behavior? (2)

A
  • Norms of behavior = Group standards used to evaluate the behavior
    of members
  • Group cohesion = Interpersonal glue that makes group members stick together
43
Q

What Are Negative Aspects of Group Behavior?

A
  • Social loafing
    Failure of a member to contribute personal time, effort, thoughts, or other resources
  • Loss of individuality
    Individual group member’s loss of self-
    awareness and its accompanying sense of
    accountability, inhibition, and responsibility for individual behavior
44
Q

Five stages of group development:

A

The five stages of group development are:

Forming – Members come together and get to know each other while establishing ground rules and expectations.
Storming – Conflicts and disagreements arise as individuals assert their opinions and vie for leadership.
Norming – The group begins to settle into roles, resolve conflicts, and establish a cohesive working dynamic.
Performing – The group operates efficiently towards goals, with high levels of collaboration and problem-solving.
Adjourning – The group disbands after achieving its objectives, with members reflecting on the experience and outcomes.

45
Q

What are the two modern types of teams?

A

Virtual and global

46
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of Group Decision Making

A

Advantage
* Pressure within the group to conform and fit in
* Domination of the group by one forceful member
* Increased amount of time required to make a decision

Disadvantages
* More knowledge and information through the pooling of group member resources
* Increased acceptance of and commitment to the decision
* Greater understanding of the decision

47
Q

Groupthink

A

A deterioration of mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgement resulting from pressures within the group

48
Q

What are two techniques to preventing groupthink?

A
  • Devil’s advocacy
    A technique for preventing groupthink in which a group or individual is given the role of critic during decision making
  • Dialectical inquiry
    A debate between two opposing sets of recommendations
49
Q

Group Polarization

A

The tendency for group discussion to produce shifts toward more extreme attitudes among members
* Negative: Group members initially opposed to a decision become even more against it

50
Q

Upper echelon theory

A

Background characteristics of the top
management team predict organizational
characteristics and set standards for values,
competence, and ethics

51
Q

Greg, Robert, and Eric work in the same department and share information but are held accountable as individuals. This is an example of a ________:
A. Team
B. Cohort
C. Group
D. Cluster

52
Q

In their team of programmers, Amber works on writing code. What function is Amber
performing?
A. Task
B. Essential
C. Job
D. Maintenance

53
Q

A top-level executive team in an organization is an ________:
A. Exec team
B. Management group
C. C-team
D. Upper echelon

A

D. Upper echelon

54
Q

Lisa does not complete their assigned part of the team project. What is Lisa engaging in?
A. Forming
B. Social loafing
C. Loss of individuality
D. Maintenance function

A

B. Social loafing

55
Q

What is Power?

A

The ability to influence another person

An exchange relationship that occurs in
transactions between an agent and a target
* Agent: Person using the power
* Target: Recipient of attempt to use power

56
Q

Influence

A

Process of affecting the thoughts, behaviors, and feelings of another person

57
Q

Authority

A

Right to influence another person

58
Q

Zone of indifference

A

Range in which attempts to influence a person will be perceived as legitimate and acted on without a great deal of thought

59
Q

What are the Five Interpersonal Forms of Power?

A

Reward power:
* Based on an agent’s ability to control rewards that a target wants
Coercive power:
* Based on an agent’s ability to cause an unpleasant experience or a target
Legitimate power:
* Based on position and mutual agreement
Referent power:
* Based on interpersonal attraction
Expert power:
* Exists when an agent has specialized knowledge or skills that the target needs

60
Q

What are two Intergroup Sources of Power

A

Control of critical resources:
* One group controls a resource desired by another group

Strategic contingencies:
* Activities that other groups depend on in order to complete their tasks

61
Q

Political Skill

A

The ability to get things done through favorable interpersonal relationships outside formally prescribed organizational mechanisms

62
Q

What Are Organizational Politics & Political Behavior?

A

Organizational politics:
* Use of power and influence in
organizations

Political behavior:
* Actions not officially sanctioned by an
organization that are taken to influence
others in order to meet one’s personal
goals

63
Q

Information Power

A

Access to and control over important information (ex: executive assistant)

64
Q

Personal Power

A

Negative power used for personal gain (ex: sexual harassment, insider trading, Ponzi schemes, unpaid overtime)

65
Q

Social Power

A

Positive power used to create motivation or to accomplish group goals

66
Q

Kanter’s Symbol of Power

A

Kanter’s theory of organizational power states that power is the ability to get things done (to help others!)
* Ability to intercede for someone in trouble
* Ability to get placements for favored employees
* Exceeding budget limitations
* Procuring above-average raises for employee

67
Q

Korda’s Symbols of Power

A
  • Furniture to show who is boss
  • Time power: using representations of time
  • Standing by: requiring others to be constantly available
68
Q

Power

A

The ability to influence another
person

  • Influence = Process of affecting the thoughts, behaviors, and feelings of another person
69
Q

Influence Tactic: Pressure

A

The person uses demands, threats, or intimidation to convince you to comply with a
request or to support a proposal

70
Q

Influence Tactic: Upward Appeals

A

The person seeks to persuade you that the request is approved by higher management or appeals to higher management for assistance in gaining your compliance with the request.

71
Q

Influence Tactic: Exchange

A

The person makes an explicit or implicit promise
that you will receive rewards or tangible benefits if you comply with a request or support a proposal, or reminds you of a prior favor to be reciprocated.

72
Q

Influence Tactic: Coalition

A

The person seeks the aid of others to persuade you to do something or uses the support of others as an argument for you to agree also
- “All the other supervisors agree with me.”

73
Q

Influence Tactic: Ingratiation

A

The person seeks to get you in a good mood or to think favorably of them before asking you to do something.
* “Only you can do this job right.”

74
Q

Influence Tactic: Rational Persuasion

A

The person uses logical arguments and factual
evidence to persuade you that a proposal or
request is viable and likely to result in the
attainment of task objectives.
* “This new procedure will save us $150,000 in
overhead.”

75
Q

Influence Tactic: Inspirational Appeals

A

The person makes an emotional request or proposal that arouses enthusiasm by appealing to your values and ideals or by increasing your confidence that you can do it.
* “Being environmentally conscious is the right thing.”
* “Getting that account will be tough, but I know you can do it.”

76
Q

Influence Tactic: Consultation

A

The person seeks your participation in making a
decision or planning how to implement a proposed policy, strategy, or change.

“What do you think we can do to make our workers less fearful of the new robots on the production line?”

77
Q

Commitment vs compliance

A

Commitment [positive & active]:
* Endorsing and becoming an actively involved
participant as a result of the influence attempt

Compliance [positive & passive]:
* Going along with what the influencer wants
without being personally committed

78
Q

Active vs. Passive Resistance

A

Active resistance [negative & active]:
* Rejecting the influence attempt and actively
trying to stop the influencer from doing what he
or she is trying to do, or trying to change the influencer’s attitudes

Passive resistance [negative & passive]:
* Rejecting the influence attempt but not getting in the way of what the influencer is trying to do

79
Q

The ability to influence another
person is ________:
A. Influence
B. Power
C. Political skill
D. Authori

80
Q

Which of the following is NOT a
type of interpersonal power?
A. Legitimate
B. Reward
C. Expert
D. Political

A

D. Political

81
Q

Janet is the administrative
assistant for a CEO and sits in on
all their meetings. Janet is likely
to have ________ power.
A. Coercive
B. Referent
C. Reward
D. Information

A

D. Information

82
Q

Which of the following is NOT a
component of political skill?
A. Sincerity
B. Networking ability
C. Extraversion
D. Social astuteness

A

C. Extraversion