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Structure And Function > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 components to the skeletal system?

A

1: Bone
2: Cartilage (Hyaline, Elastic, and Fibrocartilage)
3: Tendons (muscle to bone)
4: Ligaments (holds bones together)

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2
Q

What is the connective tissue type for bone and cartilage?

A

Supportive CT!

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3
Q

What type of connective tissue is seen in Tendons and Ligaments?

A

Dense regular CT!

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4
Q

Tendons versus Ligaments?

A

Tendons: Attach muscle to bone
Ligaments: Hold bones together

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5
Q

Where is red bone marrow found and what does it do?

A

It is found on the ends of the bones and this is what makes RBCs

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6
Q

Where is yellow bone marrow found and what does it do?

A

It’s stored in the shaft of the bone and it stores fat
-the fat escaping to the bloodstream so why we worry about fractured bones and blot clots

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7
Q

Where is Hyaline Cartilage found?

A

In the embryonic skeleton it later becomes bone (hard bc lots of COLLAGEN)
-ends of bones (to prevent friction when bones rub)

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8
Q

Where is Elastic Cartilage found?

A

External ear and epiglottis
-lots of ELASTIN, soft and flexible!

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9
Q

Where is Fibrocartilage found?

A

1: Pubic Symphysis: where pubic bones attach (spread for childbirth)

2: Knee Meniscus: stop bone from grinding on bone

3: Intervertebral Discs: cushioning between vertebrae and maintains height

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10
Q

What fiber makes up Fibrocartilage and Hyaline cartilage?

A

Collagen!

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11
Q

What are the two types of Cartilage growth?

A

1: Appositional: new matrix is secreted on the external face of Existing Cartilage (grows from the outside)

2: Interstitial: Chondrocytes divide and make new matrix (cells divide inside, expanding Cartilage from within)

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12
Q

What two things are present in the Bone/ Bone matrix to keep it strong?

A

1: Collagen = flexible strength (if you lose it bone becomes BRITTLE)

2: Minerals (hydroxyapetite)= Weight bearing strength (if you lose it bone become BENDY)

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13
Q

What are the three types of bone cells?

A

1: Osteoblasts (build up)
2: Osteocytes (maintain)
3: Osteoclasts (break down)

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14
Q

What does Ossification mean?

A

Hardening of the bone!

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15
Q

What do Osteoblasts do?

A

Builds bone from Hyaline cartilage
-lays down new bone on surface APPOSITIONAL

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16
Q

How do Osteoblasts and Osteocytes come to be?

A

Osteochondral progenitor cells (stem cells): give rise to Osteoblasts who build and become Osteocytes

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17
Q

What do Osteocytes do?

A

They maintain the matrix!
-they make up 90-95% Bone cells and live for 25 years (bc the goal is to maintain)
-found in the Lacunae, communicate via Canaliculi

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18
Q

What are Osteoclasts?

A

They arise in the red bone marrow “the bone makes its own destruction”
-They break down the bone matrix and help the body reabsorb it!
-puts calcium into blood

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19
Q

What are the three conditions in which Ossification occurs?

A

1: As a fetus
2: When grow
3: When repair fracture

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20
Q

What are the two steps/types of bones that are being ossified?

A

1: Woven bone: formed 1st by osteoblasts. WEAK due to random placement of Collagen

2: Lamellar Bone: Formed by osteoblasts to build stronger, more permanent bone. Arranged in LAMELLAE layers, parallel arrangement = Strong

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21
Q

What is Lamellae?

A

When bone layers are arranged in concentric sheets/layers
-parallel arrangement= strong

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22
Q

What are the two Final Bone types?

A

1: Spongy Bone= appears porous, with more space (by red bone marrow at the end of bone)

2: Compact Bone = More bone matrix, dense, solid outer layer. Full of compact OSTEON units and concentric rings of Lamellae

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23
Q

Diaphysis versus Epiphysis?

A

Diaphysis: Main shaft of bone, composed on Compact bone, Medullary cavity in the center

Epiphysus: Ends, mostly Spongy bone, covered in articular cartilage

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24
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage on ends of bones to protect against friction when rubbing

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25
Q

Epiphyseal Plate verses Epiphyseal Line?

A

Found in Epiphysis, between 2 parts.
-where growth occurs as child
-once becomes Epiphyseal Line =adult and no more growth

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26
Q

Red versus Yellow bone marrow?

A

Red= gives rise to blood cells (R,W, and P) in Epiphyses
Yellow = (adipose) in Diaphysis

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27
Q

What are the 4 layers of Bone?

A

1: Endosteum: Inner surface= bone cells

2: Periostem: outer surface of bone

3: Dense irregular CT: same as underlying portion of the skin

4: Sharpey’s/ Perforating Fibers: attaches Periostem to actual bone

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28
Q

What is the makeup of a Flat bone type?

A

“Spongy bone sandwhich”
-spongy bone =mid
-compact bone = outer sided
(Ex: cranium)

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29
Q

What are the two ways to make Flat and Long bones in Utero?

A

Intramembraneous: makes Flat (turns Fibrous CT to flat bone at 8 weeks-2years old)

Endochondral: turns Hyaline Cartilage into Long bone
-embryo at 8 weeks in some parts, 18-20 years old at other parts

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30
Q

What are the steps to Intramembraneous/ flat bone Ossification once flat bone has been made?

A

1: Osteoblast Formation: Mesenchymal cells -> stem cells -> Osteoblasts (lay down bone matrix -> Osteocytes (maintain).
-Trabeculae of Woven bone develops (1st step = weak, random collagen placement)

2: Spongy bone formation: osteoblasts make Trabeculae surface larger and longer
-Trabeculae join together to form Spongy Bone

3:Compact Bone Formation: Red bone marrow forms, as does Periosteum.
-Osteoblasts from Periosteum lay down bone to make Compact bone

Creates: Bone with outer compact bone and spongy bone in the center! “Spongy sandwhich”

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31
Q

In Intramembraneous (flat bone) ossification which type of bone is made first?

A

Spongy bone! (Located in the middle)

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32
Q

What is the general/summed up process of Intramembraneous Ossification? (For flat bone)

A

Ossification centers expand to form bone. Centers have the oldest bone, Edges have the youngest.

“Start building in the middle and work our way out”

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33
Q

What are Fontanels?

A

Soft spots found on flat bones! Not fully protected yet
(Ex: soft spot on babies head)
-become bone at 22 month, allows for brain growth and easier birth

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34
Q

What are the steps to Endochondral Ossification? (Long bone formation)

A

1: Cartilage Model Formation (cartilage made in diaphysis)

2: Bone Collar Formation (lay down bone to make bone collar, make cavity in middle)

3: Primary Ossification Center (lay down bone, turn cartilage in Diaphysis into spongy bone)

4:secondary Ossification center (in Epiphyses form spongy bone on bone ends)

5: Adult Bone (Epiphyseal plate turns to line)

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35
Q

What occurs in step 1 of Endochondral ossification? (Cartilage model formation)

A

Mesenchymal cells -> osteoprogenitor cells -> chondroblasts -> Chondrocytes -> Hyaline Cartilage model for bone

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36
Q

What occurs in step 2 of Endochondral ossification? (Bone Collar Formation)

A

In Diaphysis, osteoblasts lay down compact bone on cartilage model surface = bone collar.
-grows inside and outside
-Calcifies cartilage
-no blood supply so matrix breaks down and becomes hollowed out in middle

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37
Q

What occurs in step 3 of Endochondral ossification? (Primary Ossification Center)

A

Primary Ossification center forms as osteoblasts lay down bone on calcified cartilage surface
-osteoblasts change calcified cartilage of Diaphysis into Spongy Bone, then remove center to form Medullary cavity for red bone marrow

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38
Q

What occurs in step 4 of Endochondral ossification? (Secondary ossification center)

A

Created in Epiphyses, forms Epiphyses of bones (last appears in clavicle of 18-20 y/o)
- continual cartilage turn to bone

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39
Q

What occurs in step 5 of Endochondral ossification? (Adult bone)

A

Mature bone (spongy and compact are fully developed)
-Epiphyseal plate becomes Epiphyseal Line!

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40
Q

Where do bones grow?

A

At the Epiphyseal Plate (connects Diaphysis to Epiphysis)

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41
Q

What end does bone expand from?

A

It expands at BOTH ends!
-bone is added to Diaphysis via Calcification
-Epiphyseal ends are pushed out to become longer

rates of growth is equal for both sides

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42
Q

What happens once bone reaches normal adult size? When does this occur?

A

It stops growing, the Epiphyseal Plate = Ossifies into the Epiphyseal Line!
-damage to plate before this may interfere with bone length
-occurs from age 12-25

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43
Q

Does remodeling occur continuously within the skeleton?

A

Yes! Some bones may be long lasting if nothing goes wrong, but usually the entire skeleton is replaced every 10 years

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44
Q

What are the 2 factors that affect gene expression of bone growth?

A

1: Nutrition (need vitamin C and D)

2: Hormones (especially growth hormone)

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45
Q

What are the two things that can go wrong with nutrition and effect bone growth?

A

1: Vitamin D deficiency
-we need it to absorb Calcium from intestines
-can get from diet and from sun
- Rickets= lack of Vitamin D in kids
-Osteomalacia = lack of Vitamin D in adults

2: Vitamin C deficiency
-needed for Osteoblasts to make Collagen
-Scurvy = caused by no vitamin C

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46
Q

What are the 3 diseases caused by vitamin deficiencies?

A

1: Rickets
-caused by low vitamin D in kids
-bowed knees, joint inflammation

2: Osteomalacia
-low D in adults
-softened bones

3: Scurvy
-low vitamin C
-ulcers, hemorrhages, poor wound healing, teeth fall out

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47
Q

How do Hormones affect bone growth?

A

1: growth hormone (too much = giantism, too little = dwarfism)

2: Thyroid hormones

3: Reproductive hormones (start growth in women earlier than men)

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48
Q

What cells run bone deposit (like in times of injury or needing extra bone strength)?

A

Osteoblasts!

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49
Q

What do osteoclasts mediate?

A

Breaking down to bone matrix where less stress is inflicted on the bone

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50
Q

With what type of feedback loop is bone breakdown/ deposit controlled?

A

Negative feedback! Blood calcium levels dictate this

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51
Q

Calcitonin versus PTH?

A

Calcitonin: activates osteoblasts to deposit more bone matrix! “Calcitonin = bone in!”

PTH: activates osteoclasts to break down bone and release calcium into the bloodstream

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52
Q

What’s Wolff’s law?

A

Bones remodel in response to the force/stress placed upon it!
“Use it or lose it”!

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53
Q

How do Hormonal and Mechanical stress both work to handle bone remodeling?

A

Hormonal = determines WHETHER and WHEN remodeling will occur (in response to changing blood calcium levels) no signal= no remodeling

Mechanical= determines WHERE remodeling occurs

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54
Q

What are the 3 examples of mechanisms of fracture?

A

1: Trauma
2: Pathologic (disease made bone brittle and easy to brake)
3: Periprosthetic (previously fixed area with rod broken again)

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55
Q

Closed versus open tissue damage?

A

Closed = bone still in place

Open = bone through skin surface

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56
Q

What does it mean if a bone is displaced?

A

The Bone ends are not aligned!

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57
Q

What does a linear fracture mean?

A

The cut in the bone is parallel to bone length (in line with the bone)

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58
Q

What does a spiral fracture mean?

A

The cut is the bone is twisting across the bone
-possibility of displacement or open wound

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59
Q

What does an Avulsion mean?

A

Bone fragment!

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60
Q

What does a stress/hairline fracture mean?

A

From overuse!

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61
Q

What does an incomplete fracture mean?

A

The cut goes through one area but not through whole bone

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62
Q

What does a complete fracture mean?

A

The cut goes through the bone completely

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63
Q

What does a comminuted fracture mean?

A

The bone is shattered into a bunch of little pieces

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64
Q

What is a green stick fracture?

A

In kids, when one side breaks and the other bends

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65
Q

What are the 4 steps to repair damage to a bone?

A

1: Hematoma formation (4 days: blood clot)

2: Fibrocartilage Callus formation (Fibrocartilage forms temporary splint)

3: Bony callus formation (2 months: spongy bone formation)

4: Remodeling (several months: final compact bone replaces spongy bone)

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66
Q

Do bones heal with the same strength they had before the break!

A

No! When a bone heals from a break it is stronger (has extra padding) in area of fracture than it did before!

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67
Q

How is a fracture healed?

A

ends together by manual manipulation to get them into alignment
-immobilization 8-12 weeks and cast

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68
Q

How is an open fracture repaired?

A

Surgery performed, ends held together by pins
-Open reduction internal fixation (ORIF) (fixing it inside)
-External fixation: used when ORIF is too dangerous

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69
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

-high ratio of woven to compact bone (lots of weak bones)
-osteoblasts form irregular bone thickness
-affects women and men over 40, and affects the spine, pelvis, femur, and skull

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70
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Weakened/ porous bone which leads to deformity and prone to fracture
-more likely in women (bone density decrease at 40)

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71
Q

What are some of the causes of osteoporosis?

A

-decreased reproductive hormone level
-inadequate dairy/vitamin D intake
-Sedentary
-hysterectomy
-smoking
-proton pump inhibitor use for 5 years

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72
Q

How to diagnose Osteoporosis?

A

DEXA scan! (Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry)

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73
Q

Prevention and treatment of osteoporosis?

A

Prevent: calcium and vitamin D, weight bearing exercises

Treatment: Osteoclast inhibitors (biphosphonates), estrogen meds, calcitonin replacement, yearly shot

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74
Q

How many bones are there in the adult human body versus at birth?

A

206 in adult body and 270 at birth!

75
Q

What are the two divisions in the skeletal system?

A

Axial Skeleton: Skull, Ossicles, Hyloid, Vertebrae, Rib cage ( the “main axis”)

Appendicular skeleton: pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle, lower limbs (“appendiges”)

76
Q

How many bones are in the Axial skeleton?

A

80!

77
Q

What are the ossicle bones? How many are there?

A

Your ear ossicles are the Malleus, Incus, and Stapes! (3 on each side for 6 total)

78
Q

How many bones are in the cranial versus the face?

A

Cranial = 8
Facial = 14

79
Q

What is Plantar Faciitis? (The cause and treatment too)

A

irritation of the plantar fascia due to excessive pulling on the calcaneus
-Causes: improper shoes, foot structure
-Treatment: PT, massage, stretch, and change shoes

80
Q

What are the three arches of the foot?

A

1: transverse arch (goes from lateral side of the foot to medial side across metatarsal and tarsals)

2: medial longitudinal arch (goes from heel to toe, the talus is the keystone)

3: lateral longitudinal arch (goes from heel to toe, cuboid is keystone)

81
Q

What is a march fracture?

A

Due to overuse/excessive walking, avulsion by the fifth metatarsal

82
Q

What are the three points of interest on the tibia?

A

1: tibial condyles (medial and lateral): are tendons and ligaments attachment, knee extension

2: tibial tuberosity: where patellar tendon anchors

3: medial malleolus: distal medial surface (ankle)

83
Q

What’s the largest longest and strongest bone in the body?

A

The femur

84
Q

What kind of socket is the acetabulum in the femur?

A

Ball in socket joint

85
Q

What are the four points of interest on the femur?

A

1: Fovea Capitis: short ligament that anchors femur to acetabulum

2: greater and lesser trochanter: site of thigh and butt muscle attachment

3: femoral neck: common site for femoral fractures in elderly

4: Medial and Lateral Epicondyles (attachment sits for collateral ligaments of the knee)

86
Q

Female versus male pelvis?

A

Female: wider true pelvis (childbirth), lighter, more angled attachment (more prone to injury)

Male: bigger, stronger

87
Q

What are the three pelvic bones?

A

1: ilium (biggest, has greater sciatic notch)

2: pubis (pubic body)

3: the Ishium (sitting bone) muscle attachment for hamstrings and Obturator foramen

88
Q

True versus false pelvis?

A

True: the organs that the pelvis protects (bladder, uterus, rectum)

False: protection of lower, abdomen organs (surrounding peripheral)

89
Q

Where do the three fused bones of the pelvic girdle join?

A

Acetabulum! (The socket for the ball of the femoral head)

90
Q

What causes carpal tunnel syndrome? How do we treat it?

A

Overuse which leads to tendon inflammation, swelling, and compression in medial nerve at your wrist

Treatment: NSAIDS, wrist splints, surgery

91
Q

What is the carpal tunnel formed by?

A

Ligaments and carpals
-Median nerve and nine tendons pass through

92
Q

What two health problems arise with overuse of either the medial epicondyle or the lateral epicondyle of the humorous?

A

Medial epicondyle: golfers elbow, pain, and swelling in elbow, decreased ROM

Lateral epicondyle : tennis elbow

Treatments NSAIDS, ice, and rest

93
Q

What causes the funny bone?

A

The presence of the older nerve behind the medial epicondyle

94
Q

What is the trade-off for having good shoulder mobility?

A

There is poor reinforcement due to the shallow nature of the Glenohumeral joint, therefore it is easier to dislocate

95
Q

What are the three joints of the pectoral girdle?

A

1: Sternoclavicular joint: Sternum connects to clavicle

2: Acromioclavicular joint: Distal end to Acromion Process of Scapula

3: Scapulothoracic Articulation (not truly a joint, it’s an Articulation! Muscles to vertebrae)

96
Q

What two components make up the upper half of the appendicular skeleton?

A

1: the pectoral girdle (scapula and clavicle)

2: the upper limbs (humorous, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges)

97
Q

What two components make up the lower half of the appendicular skeleton?

A

1: the pelvic girdle (ilium, ischium, pubis)

2: the lower limbs (femur, tibia, fibula, patella, tarsals, metatarsal, phalanges)

98
Q

What are the sub parts of the sternum?

A

One flat bone caused by three fused bones
1: manubrium
2: body
3: xiphoid process

(The sternal angle is where the manubrium and body meet)

99
Q

What is the make up of ribs one through 12?

A

1-7 = true ribs
7-12 = false ribs
11 and 12 = floating

100
Q

What are intervertebral discs?

A

They made a fibrocartilage in between the vertebrae of the spine
-to provide flexibility to column and absorb shock

101
Q

What are the two sub parts of the intravertebral disks?

A

1: Annulus fribrosus: Fibrous ring of CT (outer ring)

2: Nucleus pulposus: gelatinous inner substance (leaks out with herniation)

102
Q

Kyphosis versus lordosis?

A

Kyphosis: exaggerated, curvature, and upper thoracic and cervical spine (maybe due to osteoporosis)

Lordosis: exaggerated curvature of lumbar and lower thoracic vertebrae
-Due to weak abdominal muscles
(Happens in pregnancy or beer belly)

103
Q

What is the composition of the 26 bones/vertebrae that make up the vertebral column?

A

Cervical = 7
Thoracic = 12
Lumbar = 5
Sacral = 1
Coccyx = 1

104
Q

How many bones are in the face?

A

14

105
Q

What are the four paranasal sinuses?

A

Frontal, Ethmoid, Sphenoid, Maxilla

106
Q

What are the seven bones that protect the eye?

A

Frontal, Sphenoid, Zygomatic, Maxilla, Lacrimal, Ethmoid, Palatine

107
Q

What’s the nasolacrimal canal?

A

What causes your nose to run when you cry

108
Q

What are the 3 parts of the temporal bone?

A

1: Squamous part: squamous suture
-zygomatic arch, mandibular fossa (where TMJ inflammation occurs)

2: Tympanic Part: external acoustic meatus (sound to Tympanic membrane)

3: Petrous Part: internal acoustic meatus, mastoid process, styloid process (tongue muscles)
-also includes jugular foramina and carotid canal

109
Q

What are the two cranial bones?

A

1: Frontal= forehead
-coronal suture, Frontal sinus

2: Parietal = “protective” brain
-sagittal and Lambdoid

110
Q

What are the 8 bones in the cranium?

A

Frontal, parietal (2), temporal (2), occipital, ethmoid, sphenoid

111
Q

What are the cranial sutures?

A

4 immovable joints with jagged edges for strength!
1: Coronal (connects frontal and parietal)
2: Squamosal (connects Parietal and Occipital)
3: Sagittal (between Parietal)
4: Lambdoidal (connects Parietal Occipital)

112
Q

Facet versus Condyle?

A

Facet: a smooth flatted surface covered in articular cartilage and forms one side of joint

Condyle: a large rounded protuberance covered in articular cartilage and forming the other side of the joint

113
Q

What are the 5 types of joint disorders?

A

1: Sprain (torn ligaments-poor healing bc poor vascular

2: Strain (pulled Muscle/tendon)

3: Dislocation (joint out of socket)

4: Bursitis (inflammation of Bursa)

5: Tendonitis (inflammation of tendon sheaths)

114
Q

What is treatment for joint disorders?

A

RICE (rest ice compression elevation)

115
Q

What are the five accessory structures/terms of the knee?

A

1: meniscus (fibrocartilage that separates articulating bone surfaces and subdivides the synovial cavity)

2: Bursa (flattened sacks that are lined with synovial membrane fluid that prevent friction)

3: Tendon sheath (elongated bursa wraps around tendon)

4: ligaments (connect bones and prevent excess movement)

5: muscle tone (keeps tendons stable)

116
Q

What is the meniscus?

A

Fibrocartilage that separates articulating bone surfaces and divides the synovial cavity

117
Q

What happens when a meniscus is torn, but there is not severe damage?

A

A click sound can be heard when the leg extends

118
Q

What happens when a meniscus is torn and there is severe damage?

A

Torn cartilage between articulating tibia and femur surfaces and knee locks the knee stuck in a position

119
Q

What knee ligament can be torn with knee anterior movement/hyper extension?

A

The ACL ligament can tear

120
Q

What knee ligament can be torn with knee posterior movement?

A

The PCL ligament can tear

121
Q

What is the unhappy triad when it comes to knee injuries?

A

Tears the ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus
-Caused by lateral force

122
Q

What are the four joint reinforcement ligaments in the knee?

A

1: MCL = connects tibia to femur on medial knee (attached to medial meniscus)

2: LCL= connect fibula to femur on lateral knee

3: ACL = connects anterior fibula to posterior femur (prevent them from moving on their own)

4: PCL = connects posterior tibia to mid femur

123
Q

How do you check for an ACL tear?

A

You perform the “Drawer Sign” to see if they are unable to prevent forward movement of tibia on femur

124
Q

What are the “ three joints in one” that make up the knee joint?

A

1: Femoropatellar joint (patella and lower femur)

2: lateral Tibiofemoral joint

3: medial Tibiofemoral joint (femoral confused and menisci)

125
Q

What are the four quadriceps muscles?

A

RF, VL, VM, and VI

126
Q

What are the three broad ligaments that anchor the patella to the tibia?

A

1: Patellar ligament (connect patella to the tibial tuberosity)

2: medial patellar retinacula

3: lateral patellar retinacula (keep patella centered)

127
Q

What type of joint is the knee joint?

A

A modified hinge joint

128
Q

Why does the knee have minimal structural support?

A

Because it is primarily supported by soft tissues

129
Q

What are the six types of synovial joints?

A

1: plane
2: hinge
3: pivot
4: condyloid
5: saddle
6: ball and socket

130
Q

What is the plane joint?

A

Slight gliding motion, little bit of lateral movement
-ex: vertebrae

131
Q

What is a hinge joint?

A

Allow One Directional movement
-ex: elbow and knee

132
Q

What is a pivot joint?

A
133
Q

What is a condyloid joint?

A

Ellipsoid shape- modified ball and socket
-Can be biaxial (2 direction movement) (atlas and occipital condyles) or multiaxial (multi directions) (radiocarpel)

134
Q

What is the saddle joint?

A

Two saddle shaped articulating surfaces at right angles
-biaxial = carpometacarpel of pollex
-multiaxial = sternoclavicular

135
Q

What is the ball and socket joint?

A

Multi axial, most freely movable
Ex: glenohumeral (shoulder)

136
Q

What is the definition of a joint?

A

Area were two or more bones meet
-They handle skeletal mobility and holding the skeleton together

137
Q

What are the three types of joints? ( 2 names for each)

A

1: Fibrous/ Synarthrosis
2: Cartilaginous/ Diathrosis
3: Synovial/ Amphiarthrosis

138
Q

What are the three types of fibrous/Synarthrotic joints?

A

(They all don’t move!)

1: Sutures (between cranial bones, immovable, stability)
-dense regular CT

2: Syndesmoses (bones farther apart than suture and joined by ligaments-radius and ulnar)

3: Gomphoses (rubber cement that holds something in place, slightly flexible during chewing -between teeth)

139
Q

What is synostosis?

A

Suture that is fully ossified two bones grow together to form a single bone

140
Q

What are the two types of cartilaginous/ diarthosis joints?

A

(Joined by cartilage, no jointed cavity)
(Amphiarthrotic = slight movement)

1: Synchondroses = Hyaline cartilage (on Epiphyseal plates of growing bones)

2: Symphyses = Fibrocartilage (in intervertebral disks and pubic symphysis to act as shock absorber)

141
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Closed joint cavity, filled with synovial fluid (comparable to serous fluid, but has more hyaluronic acid, so it’s more viscous)
-articular cartilage surround bones in joint capsules to prevent friction
-Diarthrotic = freely moveable

142
Q

What creates the cracking knuckles sound?

A

The collapse of tiny bubbles in synovial fluid
Dense irregular CT

143
Q

What does muscular fascia do?

A

Surrounds individual muscles and groups of muscles

144
Q

What are the two types of arthritis?

A

Acute forms (due to bacterial infection, treat with antibiotics)

Chronic forms (osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, gout)

145
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

The most common chronic arthritis type
-Chronic degeneration due to overuse
-Causes breakdown of articular cartilage which causes bone on bone at joints
-Creates bone spurs/osteophytes which caused pain
-(does not have to do with inflammation/ auto immune)
-Treatment= medication to decrease swelling and pain

146
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Second most common arthritis, chronic inflammatory disorder/autoimmune
-Affects more than just joints (also skin, lungs, muscles)
-Idiopathic ideology but some genetic predisposition, auto immune targets collagen
- Synovial fluid and CT cells proliferate, thickens joint capsule and destroys articular cartilage
-Treatment= steroids and NSAIDS, immune suppressants (methotrexate)

147
Q

What is gout?

A

When uric acid becomes excessive in blood (not properly excreted in urine) for crystals that deposit in joints
- TOPHI = urate crystals in joints (common in big toe and knee) extremely painful
Treatment = inflammatory meds/steroids and meds to block and remove uric acid

148
Q

What are the two attachment points for skeletal muscles?

A

1: origin (immovable end)
2: insertion (movable end)

149
Q

What are the three types of synovial movement?

A

1: gliding (simplest, in carpal bones, slide/glide)

2: angular (change in angles between bones at joint) Limb bends in relation to another body part

3: circular (rotation around axis in circular pattern) rotation of forearm

150
Q

Flexion versus extension versus hyperextension?

A

Flexion: decrease in joint angle (bones closer together, for ex: moving arm towards you)

Extension : increase in joint angle (bones straighten)

Hyperextension: increase in joint angle more than 180° (can be normal or not, depending on the movement type) (for example, hyper extending your thumb)

151
Q

Plantar flexion versus dorsiflexion?

A

Plantar flexion: point toes, ballerina

Dorsiflexion : walk on heels

152
Q

Abduction versus Adduction?

A

Abduction: movement away from midline (stealing from midline)

Adduction: movement towards midline (adding to midline)

153
Q

Rotation versus circumduction?

A

Rotation: rotates on long axis, but ends stay stable with twisting motion (forearm)

Circumduction : Movement in arc, cone shape, big circles. Freely movable. (Shoulder)

154
Q

Pronation versus supination?

A

Pronation: forearm rotation, face down/palm down, Ulna and radius cross

Supination: forearm rotation, face up/palm up, Ulna and radius parallel

155
Q

Elevation versus depression?

A

Elevation= raise superiorly
Depression = drop inferiorly

(Raising or dropping shoulders)

156
Q

Protraction versus retraction versus lateral/medial excursion?

A

Protraction = glide anteriorly, jaw forward

Retraction= glide posteriorly, jaw retracts

Lateral excursion = move mandible away from midline

Medial excursion = move, mandible back to midline

157
Q

Inversion versus eversion?

A

Inversion= plantar surface faces midline
Eversion = plantar surface faces AWAY from midline

158
Q

Opposition versus reposition?

A

Opposition= touch thumb to other fingers on the same hand (separates us from primates)

Reposition = return thumb to neutral anatomical position

159
Q

What are the four characteristics of muscles?

A

1: excitable (respond to stimuli)
2: contractible (shortens with height; muscles PULL, not push)
3: extensible (stretch beyond original resting length)
4: elasticity (recoil)

160
Q

What are the three muscle types?

A

1: smooth muscle (involuntary control, one nucleus, no striations, walls of hollow organs)

2: skeletal muscle (voluntary control, multinucleate, striations, long cell stretch across tendon)

3: cardiac muscle (involuntary, one nucleus, striations, intercalated discs, heart only, pacemaker)

161
Q

How are skeletal muscle cells made?

A

Many myoblast do myogenesis to come together to create multinucleated muscle (each myoblast = one nucleus)
-they range from 1mm to 30cm (1ft) long

162
Q

What are satellite cells?

A

Stem cells found in skeletal muscle, usually just do nothing and chill, but are activated by muscle damage

-stimulated to divide and fuse with existing muscle fibers to fix muscle damage

163
Q

Do skeletal muscle fibers undergo mitosis?

A

No! When damaged they don’t just get easily replaced

164
Q

What are nuclear domains in skeletal muscle cells?

A

Nuclei that control localized regions in the skeletal muscle

165
Q

Why does skeletal muscle need to be multinucleated?

A

Because nuclear signaling would be impossible from one end to the other without multiple nuclei due to how long the cell is

166
Q

What is the composition of muscles?

A

75% water
20% protein
5% organic and inorganic compounds

167
Q

What are the three ways that muscle can be anchored to bone?

A

1: tendon/strap
2: Aponeruosis/sheet
3: directly

(1 and 2 are indirectly: can withstand more friction and is stronger)

168
Q

What are the subparts that make up a muscle starting from muscle fiber and going until the Epimysium?

A

1: individual muscle fiber/cell
2: Endomysium is between fibers and connect them
3: connected fibers wrap into a unit called a FASCICLE
4: fascicle has protective overcoat holding it together called PERIMYSIUM
5:entire unit of multiple fascicles is wrapped in CT overcoat called EPIMYSIUM

169
Q

What is each muscle innervated by?

A

1 artery, 1 nerve, and at least 1 vein

170
Q

Does each muscle fiber have its own nerve ending?

A

Yes! This controls its activity

171
Q

What do blood vessels and nerves surround in your muscles?

A

Each muscle fiber and fascicle

172
Q

What is a motor neuron?

A

Specialized nerve cell that stimulates, skeletal muscle contraction
-Comes from the brain/spinal cord to dictate movement
-Each motor neuron control several muscle fibers with each muscle fiber being controlled by a motor neuron branch, several units innervate a skeletal muscle

173
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A

After death muscles stiffen due to no ATP (so muscles cannot relax after contraction)
-This occurs 3 to 4 hours after death until about 48 hours

174
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

The functional contractile unit in skeletal muscle
-1 motor neuron plus all muscle fibers it innervates
(All muscle fibers contract at same time)

175
Q

How do motor unit sizes variate?

A

There is no set ratio of muscle fibers to nerve axons for motor units
-Large= many fibers per axon
-small= few fibers per axon

176
Q

Motor units used for fine motor control versus strength?

A

Fine motor control= smaller motor units
-Up to 15 fibers per axon (fingers, muscles)

Strength = larger motor units
-hundreds of fibers per axon, large force (thigh and leg muscles, shoulder muscles)

177
Q

How long is a twitch and what does this refer to?

A

20-40 milliseconds
-Includes from when CA 2+ is released from SR until the power stroke stops

178
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Muscles do not respond to nervous stimulation
-Due to acetylcholine receptors being destroyed by auto immune reaction
-Associated with thymus overgrowth, cured by thymus removal

179
Q

What is Curare?

A

Arrowhead poison
-paralysis of all muscles, death due to inability to breathe
-we use it as a paralyzing agent or as treatment for tetanus

180
Q

What is the sarcolemma?

A

The plasma membrane of the skeletal muscle cell

181
Q

What is the sarcoplasm?

A

Cytoplasm and skeletal muscle cell that has excess glycogen and myoglobulin (to store oxygen)

182
Q

What is the relationship between muscle fibers, myofibrils, and myofilaments?

A

Muscle fiber = made up of bundled myofibrils
Myofibrils = made up of bundled myofilaments

183
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

ER in skeletal muscle cell, regulates calcium, T tubule in Triad

184
Q

What is a Sarcomere?

A

The smallest contractile unit
-stretches from Z line to Z line (thin/actin)
-has M line in the middle (thick/Myosin)

Structure And Function (3 decks)

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