Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Structure And Function > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 key Concepts for biological organisms?

A

1: Relationship between structure and function
2: chemicals move along concentration gradients
3: cells communicate with each other
4: feedback loops maintain homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Anatomy?

A

The study of body parts/structure.
-what is is made of? How does it look?
-Greek for “to cut”/dissect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Physiology?

A

The study of function/activty
-what does it do? Whats its job?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Structure and function are ___ with each other?

A

Complementary!

“Structure determines function”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is developmental anatomy?

A

-structural changes that occur from conception to adulthood (whole lifespan)
-a subtype: EMBRYONIC development, which is only from conception to birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is gross anatomy?

A

MACROSCOPIC: can be seen with the naked eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three main ways to look at anatomy?

A

1: Systemic anatomy: study body by each individual system

2: Regional Anatomy: study everything that is in a certain region of the body

3: Surface anatomy: study surface of skin and appearance of structures (ex: protruding bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is Microscopic Anatomy?

A

You must use a microscope to see structures! Not with naked eye!

Ex: cytology and histology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are Cytology and Histology?

A

Cytology: study of cells

Histology: study of tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Tomographic Anatomy?

A

Medical imaging (CT scan)= computer analyzed images
(Makes 3D body scan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Pathologic anatomy do?

A

Studies Diseases: what causes it and what it does

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the six organization levels for anatomy?

A

1: Chemical level (atoms)
2: Cellular level (the cell)
3:Tissue level
4: Organ level
5: Organ system level
6: Organism (the whole being)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the basic structural and functional unit of life?

A

The cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many organs systems are there total?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 11 organs systems?

A

1: Integumentary
2: Skeletal
3: Muscular
4: Nervous/special senses
5: Endocrine
6: Cardiovascular
7: Lymphatic/immune
8: Respiratory
9: Digestive
10: Urinary (Renal)
11: Reproductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the parts of the integumentary system?

A

Skin, hair, nails, and sweat glands
-provides protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the parts of the skeletal system and what is its purpose?

A

-Provides structure and support
-Bones, cartilage, ligaments, joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the purpose of the muscular system and what is it made of?

A

-body movements and posture
-Muscles attached to the skeleton by tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What’s the purpose of the nervous system and what is it made of?

A

-controls the body by sensations and intellectual functions
-Brain, spinal cord, nerves, sensory receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the purpose of the endocrine system and what is it made of?

A

-regulatory system for metabolism, growth, reproduction, etc.
-Glands such as the pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the purpose of the cardiovascular system and what is it made of?

A

-transport, nutrients, waste, products, etc. through the body
-the heart, blood vessels and blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the purpose of the lymphatic system and what is it made of?

A

-Filters the blood
-lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes and lymphatic organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of the respiratory system and what is it made of?

A

-exchange, oxygen and carbon dioxide (oxygenate the blood)
-Lungs and respiratory passages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of the digestive system and what is it made of?

A

-Digestion and absorption of nutrients and elimination of waste
-mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestines, and accessory organs, such as gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the purpose of the urinary system and what is it made of?

A

-removes waste products from the blood and regulates blood pH
-Kidneys, urinary bladder and urine ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What’s the point of homeostasis?

A

To to have balance for the body maintaining a constant internal environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Negative versus positive feedback loops?

A

Negative: “see saw” to keep response at set point (ex: body temp regulation)

Positive: continued response until original stimulus is removed (ex: birth of baby)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A

When someone stands up, their blood pressure drops and they are likely to faint
-treat: replace fluids, slow to rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A

Stand direct face forward, arms hanging outside palms downward (like da Vinci’s man but with arms down)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Supine versus prone?

A

Supine: lying facing upward
Prone : lying facing down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do directional terms do?

A

Describe body parts in relation to other body parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Superior/cephalic versus inferior/Caudal?

A

Superior/cephalic= above/towards the head

Inferior/caudal = below/towards the tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Anterior versus posterior?

A

Anterior: front

Posterior: back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ventral versus dorsal?

A

Ventral: belly

Dorsal: back

(In humans, these are equivalent to anterior and posterior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Proximal versus distal?

A

Proximal: close to

Distal: far away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Medial versus lateral?

A

Medial: going towards the midline

Lateral: further away from the midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Superficial versus deep?

A

Superficial: towards surface

Deep: deeper into the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why is it important to be aware of the correct right and left?

A

Because you’re referring to their left and right, not mine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does ipsilateral mean?

A

If a stimulus is given, the response/ structures are seen on the same side

“Ipsi” means same!

Ex: shine light into left pupil, left pupil will constrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does contralateral mean?

A

Do a stimulus, response and structures are on the opposite side of the body

“Contra” means opposite

Ex: shine light in left eye, the right will constrict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the name for the area around the forehead?

A

The frontal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What’s the name for the area around the eye?

A

The orbital area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What’s the name for the area around the nose?

A

The nasal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What’s the name for the area around the mouth?

A

The oral area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What’s the name for the area around the ear?

A

The Otic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What’s the name for the area around the cheek?

A

The buccal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What’s the name for the area around the chin?

A

The mental area

(Think of the “thinker” statue with his hand on his chin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What’s the name for the area around the neck?

A

The cervical area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What’s the name for the area around the collarbone?

A

The clavicular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What’s the name for the area around the armpit?

A

The axillary area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What’s the name for the area around the upper arm?

A

The brachial area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What’s the name for the area in front of the elbow?

A

The antecubital area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What’s the name of the area by the forearm?

A

The antebrachial area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What’s the name of the area by the wrist?

A

The carpal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What’s the name of the area by the hand?

A

The manual area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What’s the name of the area by the thumb?

A

The pollex area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What’s the name of the area by the palm?

A

The Palmar area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What’s the name of the area by the fingers?

A

The digital area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What’s the name of the area by the hip?

A

The Coxal area ( named after coxa bones there)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What’s the name of the area around the thigh?

A

The femoral area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What’s the name of of the area by the kneecap?

A

The patellar area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What’s the area of the name by the leg?

A

The crural area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the foot?

A

The pedal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the ankle?

A

The talus area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What’s the area that’s by the top of the foot?

A

The dorsum area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the toes?

A

The digital area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the big toe?

A

The hallux area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the upper trunk?

A

The thoracic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the chest?

A

The pectoral area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by your sternum?

A

The sternal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by the breasts?

A

The mammary area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by your abdomen?

A

The abdominal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by your belly button?

A

The umbilical area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by your pelvis?

A

The pelvic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by your groin? (V-line)

A

The Inguinal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What’s the name of the area that’s by your genitals?

A

The pubic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What’s the name for the area of the back?

A

The dorsal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What’s the name for the area of the base of the skull?

A

The occipital area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What’s the name for the area of the the back of the neck?

A

The nuchal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What’s the name for the area of the shoulder blade?

A

The scapular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What’s the name for the area of the spinal column?

A

The vertebral area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What’s the name for the area of the small of the back?

A

The lumbar area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What’s the name for the area between the hips?

A

The sacral area (the butt crack)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What’s the name of of the area by your butt?

A

The gluteal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What’s the name of the area by your genitalia and butt hole?

A

The perineal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What’s the name of the area by your brain?

A

The cranial area (cranial surrounds brain only, the skull includes the face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What’s the name of the area around the point of the shoulder?

A

The acromial area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What’s the name of the area by the point of the elbow?

A

The Olecranon area (the antecubital area is in the front)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What’s the name of the area by the back of the hand?

A

The dorsum area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What’s the name of the area of the hollow behind the knee?

A

The popliteal area (the patella is in front)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What’s the name of the area by the calf?

A

The Sural area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What’s the name of the area on the bottom of the foot?

A

The plantar area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What’s the name of the area by the heel?

A

The Calcaneal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What’s a major organ in each of the four quadrants?

A

Right upper: Gall bladder
Right lower: Appendix
Left upper: spleen
Left lower: small/large intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the six anatomical regions?

A

Right hypochondriac region (right up)
Right lumbar region (right mid)
Right iliac region (right low)

Epigastric region (mid up)
Umbilical region (mid)
Hypogastric region (mid low)

Left hypochondriac region (left up)
Left lumbar region (left mid)
Left iliac region (left low)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the Sagittal plane?

A

Slicing down the body from the head to divide it into left and right parts

(Assumed uneven unless “mid” is present)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Midsagittal versus Parasagittal?

A

Midsagittal: divided into even left and right parts

ParaSagittal: divided into uneven left and right parts

98
Q

What is the transverse body plane?

A

When cut to divide top and bottom (horizontal slice through belly)

99
Q

What is the frontal (coronal) body plane?

A

Body is divided into front and back

100
Q

What is the oblique plane?

A

-not at all right angle with the other planes
-used in medical imaging to see specialized structures
ex: required to view kidney

101
Q

Longitudinal section versus Transverse (cross) section?

A

Longitudinal: “goes along” with an organ, cut along the length of the organ

Transverse/cross: cut at right angle to length of organ

102
Q

What are the two main body cavities and what do they consist of?

A

1.) Dorsal: cranial and vertebral subunits (brain and spinal chord)

2.) Ventral: Thoracic and Abdominopelvic (lungs, hear, Stomach, intestines, ureter, gonad)

103
Q

What are the subparts of the central body cavity?

A

Mediastinum, thoracic cavity, abdominal cavity

104
Q

What are the subparts of the dorsal body cavity?

A

The cranial cavity and the vertebral canal

105
Q

What is a serous membrane?

A

A double layered membrane that lines the walls of body cavities and surface of internal organs

106
Q

What are the layers in a body cavity?

A

Visceral layer: inner, attached to organ surface

Parietal layer: outer, lines the cavity wall

(In between these two is accumulated serous fluid secreted by both membranes and kept at the right amount to prevent friction/rubbing/pain)

107
Q

What is the cavity that houses the lungs?

A

The pleural cavity

108
Q

What is the cavity that houses the heart?

A

The pericardial cavity

109
Q

What is the cavity that houses the internal organs?

A

Peritoneal cavity

110
Q

What is the cavity that houses the posterior body wall with the Kidneys, ureters, adrenal glands, and bladder?

A

The retroperitoneum

111
Q

What are the 3 names for the three layers for the cavity that hold the lungs?

A

1: visceral pleura layer
2: pleural cavity
3: parietal pleural layer

112
Q

What are the 3 names for the 3 layers of the cavity that holds the heart?

A

1: visceral pericardium layer
2: pericardial cavity
3: parietal pericardium layer

113
Q

What are the 3 names for the 3 layers of the cavity that hold the majority of the internal organs?

A

1: visceral peritoneum layer
2: peritoneal cavity
3: parietal peritoneum layer

114
Q

What is going on with the cavity layers when inflammation occurs?

A

There is the wrong amount of fluid and membranes rub and cause pain!

115
Q

What is pleurisy?

A

Inflammation of the pleura (lungs)

116
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium (heart)

117
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

Inflammation of the peritoneum (abdominal cavity)

118
Q

What is the case study example for pericarditis?

A

Fluid accumulation in Sac causes increased pressure upon the heart (Cardiac Tamponade) which restricts the heart from pumping effectively.
-causes: MI, tumor, radiation damage, physical trauma to cause bleed to pericardium
-treatment: drain fluid out of

119
Q

What is a dehydration synthesis? (A type of synthesis reaction)

A

-Anabolic: 2+ reactants form a larger product
-requires energy (endergonic)
-water released as reactants combine

120
Q

What is a Hydrolysis reaction? (A type of decomposition reaction)

A

-Catabolic: breaks down molecule into subunits
-releases energy (exergonic)
-requires water

121
Q

What are the 4 major groups of organic molecules necessary for life?

A

1: Carbohydrates (provide and store energy)
2: Lipids (membranes and insulate body)
3: Proteins (many jobs)
4: Nucleic acids (genetic material and protein synthesis)

122
Q

What are the 3 types of carbohydrates?

A

1: monosaccharides (monomer)
-ex: glucose

2: Disaccharides (dimer)
-ex: glucose + fructose

3: Polysaccharides (polymer)
-ex: cellulose, starch, glycogen

123
Q

What are 2 types of lipids?

A

1: Triglycerides (common body fat) = glycerol + 3 fatty acids

2: Steroids = 4 ring hormones that come from cholesterol

124
Q

How many amino acids are essential to the body?

A

9 out of 21 cannot be synthesized, must be taken in diet

125
Q

What are Nucleic Acids composed of?

A

C, H, O, N, P
-monomers =nucleotides
Made up of: 1.) monosaccharide (deoxyribose or ribose) 2.) Nitogeneous base 3.) Phosphate group

126
Q

What can diffuse through the PM?

A

small or non polar things!
(Ex: Oxy, CO2, steroids, H2O)

127
Q

Integral versus Peripheral membrane proteins?

A

Integral: transmembrane, transporters

Peripheral: attached to one side of surface

128
Q

What does the Cytoskeleton do?

A

Structural support, generates movement

129
Q

3 parts of the cytoskeleton?

A

1: Microtubules: Intracellular movement
2: Actin: movement and support
3: intermediate filament: strength

130
Q

What do Peroxisomes do?

A

Contain enzyme that breaks down FA’s and AA’s to H/O and Oxygen
-found in liver and kidney cells

131
Q

What are the 3 hairlike specifications?

A

1: Cilia: “hair seen on surface of cells”, moved mucus out of respiratory tract. Respiratory and female reproductive tract

2: flagella: long projection, seen on sperm cells. Allow movement for fertilization.

3: microvilli: seen on apical/top surface. Increase surface area for absorption surface looks fuzzy under microscope.

132
Q

What are the two fluid compartments?

A

1: Intracellular Fluid (ICF)= fluid in cytoplasm, largest: 2/3 of body fluid

2: extracellular fluid (ECF)= fluid outside of cells, 1/3 of body fluid

133
Q

What is the composition of extracellular fluid?

A

80% is interstitial fluid, includes lymphatic vessels
20% is plasma volume in the bloodstream

134
Q

What fluid shift occurs with exercising?

A

When exercising: fluid goes from blood to interstitial fluid (IF)

Stop exercise : fluid goes back from interstitial fluid (IF) to blood

135
Q

What are the three primary germ layers that arise during gastrulation?

A

1: endoderm= inner layer: GI tract, respiratory, thyroid/pancreas

2: mesoderm= middle layer: muscular and skeletal system, dermis of skin

3: ectoderm= outer layer: gives rise to epidermis and all nervous tissue (outermost, part and innermost part of body)

136
Q

What are the four primary tissue types?

A

1: epithelial= covers body surfaces, avascular

2: connective tissue = provide support, blood and adipose tissue

3: muscle tissue= allows movement and bodily functions

4: nervous tissue= makes up neurons

137
Q

What are some characteristics of epithelial tissue?

A

-predominantly cells
-apical surface is next to free space, basal surface anchors to basement membrane (CT)
-Capable of regeneration (mitosis)

138
Q

What are the three functions of cell connections?

A

1: mechanically bind cells together
2: form permeability barrier
3: mechanism for intercellular communication

139
Q

What are the six cell connection types?

A

1: desmosomes (bind)
2: hemidesmosomes (anchor)
3: tight junctions (barrier)
4: adhesion belts (help tight junctions)
5: gap junctions (communication)
6: intercalated discs (cardiac muscle)

140
Q

What is the role of a desmosome?

A

To bind cells together in an area of mechanical stress
-Tight fit, but not too tight so that there is flexibility
(Ex: epidermis)

141
Q

What is the role of a hemi desmosome?

A

To bind cells to basement membrane (basal side)
-Anchors to prevent unwanted movement of cells

142
Q

What is the role of tight junctions?

A

To anchor cells to each other so tightly that it forms barriers so nothing can get in between the cells
-Found in columnar cells in G.I., prevent leaky gut

143
Q

What is the role of adhesion belts?

A

They are just below tight junctions and help tight junctions anchor epithelial cells to each other

144
Q

What is the role of gap junctions?

A

To allow for communication (intercellular) via protein channels that allow small molecules to go between cells

145
Q

What is the role of intercalated discs?

A

Found in cardiac muscle electrical signaling consist of gap junctions and desmosomes that maintain cell contact with one another.
“ boundaries of cardiac muscle cells”
-Have branching to allow electrical signaling

146
Q

What are some common functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Protection, barrier (keratin= waterproofing), diffusion (gas), filtration (kidneys), secretion (mucus), absorption

147
Q

What are three specializations of epithelial tissue?

A

1: goblet cells: secrete mucus to trap pathogens
2: Cilia: hairs on apical surface to move mucus

3: microvilli: apical surface to increase absorption (appears as fuzzy edge)

(1 and 2 = respiratory tract)

148
Q

What does simple versus stratified epithelium mean?

A

Simple: one layer
Stratified : two layers

149
Q

What are the three shapes that can be paired with a simple or stratified cells?

A

1: squamous
2: cuboidal
3: columnar

150
Q

What is pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

A

-a type of columnar epithelium
-looks like multiple layers, but really only is one layer
-if there is cilia or microvilli and it is pseudo and not actually stratified!

-job: making and secreting mucus. Found in nasal cavity pharynx, trachea, and bronchus.

151
Q

What is simple squamous epithelium?

A

One layer of flat cells, lots of surface area to aid in gases diffusing
-Found in the heart and blood vessels, LUNGS, kidneys, and Pleural membrane linings

152
Q

What is simple cuboidal epithelium?

A

One layer of cube shaped cells
-Max cell volume with minimal surface area
-secretion/absorption by kidney tubes, secretion by glands

153
Q

What is simple columnar epithelium?

A

-one layer of columnar cells
-Have Cilia and lungs and uterine tubes, are microvilli in intestines
-aids in absorption by intestines because max surface area

154
Q

What is stratified squamous epithelium?

A

-several layers of stratified cells
-role in protection from abrasion and reduces water loss from body
-Found in skin (keratinized) and mouth, throat, anus, and vagina (non-keratinized)

155
Q

What is transitional epithelium?

A

-stratified cells that look cuboidal when not stretched and squamous when distended by fluid
-looks crazier as goes from top to bottom
-Found in bladder, helps accommodate fluid volume

156
Q

What is connective tissue?

A

The most abundant widespread and diverse tissue type
-Contributes to every organ in our body
-Present and extracellular matrix

157
Q

What is main function of connective tissue?

A

Surround and protect, organize, connect things, protects against microbes with bone and immune cells and bone

158
Q

What are three common suffixes that classify connective tissue cells?

A

1: blasts= give rise to matrix (build)
2: cytes= maintain the matrix
3: clasts = breakdown the matrix to enable remodeling

159
Q

What are three common prefixes that are used to describe a certain connective tissue cells?

A

1: Osteo= bone
2: Chondro = cartilage
3: Fibro = fibrous tissue

Ex: “osteocytes” = bone cells!

160
Q

What are five examples of CT cells?

A

1: adipocytes= “ fat cell” so much lipid storage that nucleus is at periphery
2: mast cells= release histamines and heparin
3: white blood cells (in blood)/macrophages (in tissues)
4: platelets= clot blood
5: Mesenchymal (undifferentiated) = adult stem cells in CT, specialize in response to injury

161
Q

What is the extracellular matrix (ECM)?

A

Nonliving matrix of connective tissue
-Made up of hyaluronic acid (lube), fibrous components (collagen), Elastin (elasticity = stretch and recoil), and reticular (thin collagen)

162
Q

What is the most abundant protein in the body?

A

Collagen!
-Known for strength and stability

163
Q

What are the three substances that make up the extra cellular matrix?

A

1: hyaluronic acid (lube)
2: Fiber components: collagen, Elastin, and Reticular

164
Q

Where does all connective tissue come from?

A

Embryonic/Mesenchyme tissue
-consists of fibroblasts, develops in embryo
-develops from MESODERM

165
Q

What are the four basic types of adult connective tissue?

A

1: CT proper: loose (Areolar, Adipose, Reticular)

2: Dense: fibers (dense regular, dense irregular, elastic CT)

3: Support: Cartilage (Hyaline, Elastic, Fibrocartilage) and Bone

4: specialized: blood

166
Q

What is Areolar CT?

A

Most widely distributed CT
-Forms membranes, surrounds organs, forms basement membrane in epithelium
-CT proper: loose

167
Q

What is adipose CT?

A

Fat, under skin, surrounds organ
-nonliving matrix inside cells
-High amount in renal area and behind the eye
-CT proper: loose

168
Q

What is reticular CT?

A

Supports organ structures, provides shape, and maintains organs
-Thin spiderweb like fibers
-CT proper: loose!

169
Q

What is dense regular CT?

A

Dense/tightly packed collagen fibers
-nuclei are small and squished in between so many collagen fibers
-Seen in tendons and ligaments bc strength

(Very little blood supply, which is why it’s better to break a bone than tear a ligament)

170
Q

What is dense irregular CT?

A

Densely packed collagen fibers, but in a weird irregular shape
-Fibers run in different directions, which looks odd but has more give, which makes it more resistant to tear
-Found in joint capsules

171
Q

What is elastic CT?

A

Densely packed elastic fibers
-allows, stretch and recoil because very wavy
-Found in elastic arteries and vocal cords
-No collagen present

(Dense CT)

172
Q

What is cartilage?

A

A type of supporting CT!
-avascular, so heals insanely slowly
-has three sub types: hyaline, elastic, and Fibrocartilage

173
Q

What are the three types of cartilage?

A

1: HYALINE: major component is Hyaluronic acid (lube)
-strong and unmoving!
-every cartilage except 2&3,for ex: ends of bones, in rib cage, nose

2: ELASTIC: (cartilage)elastic fibers, flexible, ear and epiglottis (E is e and e)

3: FIBROCARTILAGE: collagen fibers, flexible, cushioning lubricant, ex: pubic symphysis (birth), Knee meniscus, Intervertebral discs

174
Q

What is Bone?

A

A type of supporting CT! (Along with cartilage)

175
Q

What is compact vs spongy bone?

A

Compact: hard/solid, stores calcium, middle of bone, high blood supply, stores fat

Spongy: Trabeculae (space) at ends of bone where bone grows

176
Q

What is blood?

A

Special CT category!
-produced in bone marrow
-consists of RBC, WBC, and platelets
-no nucleus in RBC, need make more from marrow

177
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle?

A

1: Smooth= walls of hollow organs, 1 nucleus per cell

2: Skeletal: voluntary control, multinucleated (many nuclei in 1 cell, very long), striations

3: Cardiac: striations and intercalated discs, 1 nucleus per cell, heart pump

178
Q

What does the Integumentary system consist of?

A

Skin and accessory structures such as hair, glands, and nails

179
Q

What are the major functions of the integumentary system?

A

1: Protection (minimize UV/MOs)
2: Barrier (keratin)
3: sensation/temp regulate
4:excretion of waste
5: produce vitamin D

180
Q

What are the two layers of the skin?

A

1: the epidermis
-Stratified squamous epithelial tissue
-nonvascular
-keratin, rapid cell division

2: dermis
-“ true skin” Good blood supply
-dense irregular CT
-hair roots here
- elasticity decreases with age

181
Q

What is the hypodermis?

A

AKA “ subcutaneous tissue”
-Not part of skin, below skin!
-Acts to insulate and protect from below
-adipose tissue

182
Q

What are sebaceous glands?

A

Glands that are found in the dermis
-Release oil that lubricates hair plus skin

183
Q

What are Arrector Pili (smooth muscle)?

A

Smooth muscle found in the dermis that caused goosebumps when cold

184
Q

What are sweat glands (sudoriferous)?

A

Begin in the dermis and go up to the epidermis to release sweat
-Origin comes from the bloodstream

185
Q

What are the four types of epidermal cells?

A

1: keratinocytes
2: melanocytes
3: langerhans cell
4: Merkel cells

186
Q

What are keratinocytes?

A

-Most prevalent cell type of epidermis
-Often dead, external epithelial cells
-Have keratin to: resist friction/abrasion and water loss (WATERPROOF)

187
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

-Can be genetic, instead of keratinocytes that are dead being sloughed off the layers pile up

188
Q

What are melanocytes?

A

A type of epidermal cell
-Produce melanin pigment, which causes skin color, protects from UV, and tans
-25% of last layer of cells in epidermis are Melanocytes

189
Q

What are Langerhans Cells?

A

Stationary epidermal cells
-macrophages that phagocytose things as they pass

190
Q

What are Merkel cells?

A

A type of epidermal cell
-Specialize cells with nerve endings
-In the deepest layer of epidermis, detects light touch and surface pressure

191
Q

What is the first layer of the epidermis?

A

-Stratum corneum: superficial layer, 25+ layers thick, slough, horny cells (dead keratinocytes)

192
Q

What is Stratum lucidum?

A

The second layer of the epidermis
-A thin clear zone of epidermis, only found in thick skin like the soles of feet and hand calluses
-More layers of protection for extra mechanical help

193
Q

What is Stratum Granulosum?

A

The third layer of the epidermis
-up to 5 layers of granulated cells

194
Q

What is Stratum Spinosum?

A

The fourth layer of the epidermis
-8-10 layers, looks spiny
-mitosis occurring here because cells are still alive

195
Q

What is the Stratum Basale?

A

The deepest layer of the Epidermis
-AKA “Stratum germinativum” bc everything else arises from here
-single base layer
-Anchored to the basement membrane via HEMIDESMOSOMES
-mitosis Q19D
-MERKEL CELLS and 1:4 MELANOCYTES in this layer

196
Q

Thin versus thick skin?

A

Thick skin: five layers (includes stratum lucidum)
-Palms, soles, and fingertips

Thin skin : four layers
-more flexible

197
Q

What are two things that affect thick and thin skin?

A

1: Callus (stratum corneum increases in thickness, more layers for mechanical stress)

2: Corn (seen in body prominence area, apex deep in epidermis)

198
Q

What is melanin?

A

A major pigment that contributes to color
-Found in skin, hair, eye color
-protect DNA from UV damage by removing free radicals and boosting antioxidants

199
Q

How is melanin produced?

A

A tyrosine amino acid is changed to melanin by enzyme Tyrosinase

200
Q

How is melanin distributed to the cells of the epidermis?

A

1: Melanocytes produce and package into vesicles (Melanosomes)
2: Melanosomes move into cell processes of Melanocytes
3: Tips of Melanocyte cell processes are phagocytosed (absorbed) by Keratinocytes in order to acquire Melanosomes

201
Q

What is degree of melanin production influenced by?

A

Light exposure, genetics, and hormones!

202
Q

What number of melanocytes are humans born with?

A

The same amount for everyone!
-25% of the bottom layer
(How active these cells are is what determines your color)

203
Q

How do we get racial color variation?

A

Differences in type of melanin, amount and distribution of melanosomes produced,

204
Q

Eumelanin versus Pheomelanin?

A

Eumelanin: “true melanin” brown, and black skin and hair

Pheomelanin: lips, nipples, pink parts of body

205
Q

What causes red hair?

A

Equal amounts of Eumelanin and Pheomelanin

206
Q

Why are some people albino?

A

They lack Tyrosinase! Without this enzyme Tyrosine cannot be turned into melanin, so there is no skin pigment

207
Q

What is carotene?

A

Yellow pigment implants (carrots/vitamin A)
-Yellow tint is seen with increased consumption
-carotene versus Jaundice = if whites of eyes are still white means carotene!

208
Q

What effect does hemoglobin have on skin color?

A

It gives a pinkish hue due to oxygenated, pigments and red blood cells (which go through dermal capillaries)
-Easier to see in light skinned people due to lack of melanin

209
Q

What are the four ways that hemoglobin levels can be messed up in terms of skin color?

A

1: Lack of= Pallor, low BP/anemia
2: cyanosis = (blueish discoloration) due to lack of oxygen (Respiratory or CV disorder)
3: Erythema = increase due to sunburn, infection, allergic reaction, hot flashes
4: bruise (Ecchymosis) = Red, blue, yellow as fade. Due to blood vessel damage

210
Q

What are the most prevalent fibers in the dermis?

A

Collagen fibers!

211
Q

What are the three main cells that make up the dermis?

A

Fibroblasts, Adipocytes, Macrophages

212
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis and what type of CT are they?

A

1: Papillary = thin upper layer. LOOSE CT

2: Reticular = deep lower layer. DENSE IRREGULAR CT

213
Q

What are the two things that are found in the papillary layer of the dermis?

A

1: Meissner’s corpuscles (touch sensors)

2: Epidermal ridges (fingerprints/grip)

214
Q

What are the three things that are found in the Reticular layer of the dermis?

A

1: Pacinian Corpuscles (bottom of layer, detect deep pressure)

2: Cleavage lines (tension- the lines you want to make your incisions in line with)

3: Stretch Marks (Striae- areas of rapid growth)

215
Q

What is the job of the hypodermis?

A

To insulate, pad, protect, and attach skin to underlying bone and muscle!

216
Q

What 3 cells are found in the Subcutaneous tissue/hypodermis?

A

Fibroblasts, Adipocytes, and macrophages

217
Q

What are the 3 types of injections?

A

1: Intradermal: goes into the dermis, slight angle (TB test)

2: Subcutaneous: goes into hypodermis, 60 degree angle (insulin)

3: Intramuscular: goes into muscle, 90 degree angle (vaccinations)

218
Q

What are the 3 accessory structures that are embedded within the skin?

A

1: Hair (pili)
2: Nails
3: Glands (of all kinds)

219
Q

What is Hair (pili)? What are the three parts it’s composed of?

A

Flexible, dead protein strands!
Composed of the shaft (above skin), root (below skin), and bulb (base of root)

220
Q

What are the 3 layers of hair/keratin?

A

1: Medulla (intermost)
2: Cortex (middle)
3: Cuticle (outermost)

221
Q

What are the 4 types of glands found in the dermis?

A

1: Sweat glands (two types Eccrine and Apocrine)
2: Sebaceous (softens hair, kills bacteria)
3: Mammary glands (lactation)
4: Ceruminous (ear wax)

222
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

1: Eccrine (trad sweat) cools body, axillae bc of emotions, sweaty palms

2: Apocrine (in axillae and anogenital region) no odor + bacteria = body odor (deeper in tissue)

223
Q

What are the four ways one can get burned?

A

1: heat
2: electricity
3: radiation
4: chemicals

224
Q

What is the chain of events that happens when someone gets a bad burn?

A

Lose body fluids -> dehydration -> electrolyte imbalance -> renal shut down

225
Q

What is the rule of 9s?

A

It determines the % loss of skin due to burns
-11 areas with parallel areas (9% each) and genitals are 1%

226
Q

What are the 11 (really just 7) areas in the rule of 9s?

A

Head and neck: whole is 9%
Entire right arm: 9%
Entire left arm: 9%
Entire trunk: 36%
Groin: 1%
Entire right leg: 18%
Entire left leg: 18%

227
Q

Partial thickness versus full thickness burns?

A

Partial thickness: 1st or 2nd degree

Full thickness: 3rd or 4th degree (very bad!)

228
Q

What are the 4 degrees of burns?

A

1st: ONLY epidermis, local redness, pain, 2-3 days (sunburn)

2nd: Epidermis and upper dermis: red, pain, blister, heal in 3-4 weeks

3rd: Epidermis/dermis and into hypodermis, (blanched, black, or cherry red), NO PAIN, skin graft

4th: very severe, past Sub Q and into muscle and bone underneath, maybe amputation

229
Q

What is the most common cause of cancer?

A

Skin cancer! (20%)

230
Q

What causes skin cancer?

A

Exposure to UV rays from tanning/sunburn
-also chemicals, xrays, immune system compromise

231
Q

What are the 3 types of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma, Squamous cell carcinoma, Malignant Melanoma

232
Q

What’s a Basal cell carcinoma?

A

It’s when the Stratum Basale (bottom layer of epidermis) is altered, and proliferates into the dermis and hypodermis
-most common type, 80% of skin cancer
-least malignant
-appears shiny, central ulcer with pearly edge
-cured with surgery

233
Q

What’s a Squamous cell carcinoma?

A

When the Stratum Spinosum Keratinocytes are altered.
-2nd most common, grows fast and metastasizes
-scaly, red raised papule
-repeating open sore that may bleed
-often on head and hands
-surgery or radiation

234
Q

What does a Basal cell carcinoma look like?

A

Waxy bump with blood vessels present

235
Q

What does a Squamous cell carcinoma look like?

A

Red pimple/nodule and scaly patch that keeps getting upset

236
Q

What does a malignant melanoma look like?

A

Odd shape with dark color
-can come from preexisting mole

237
Q

What are Malignant Melanomas?

A

Not common, often arise from pre existing moles
-highly metastasize, resists chemo
-it’s when MELANOCYTES become cancerous
-wide surgery excision required

238
Q

What is the ABCDE rule for early detection of melanomas?

A

A= Asymmetry/uneven appearance
B= Border irregularities/“fuzzy borders”
C= Color (3+ colors)
D= Diameter (greater than 6mm)
E= Evolving/Elevation, if its changing or elevating above the surface

239
Q

What are the 5 layers of the Epidermis?

A

1: Stratum Corneum
2: Stratum Lucidum
3: Stratum Granulosum
4: Stratum Spinosum
5: Stratum Basale

(C L G, S B)

240
Q

What’s special about Stratum Basale?

A

Single base layer, anchors to basement membrane. (Hemidesmosomes)
-MITOSIS EVERY 19 DAYS
-MERKEL CELLS AND MELANOCYTES IN THIS LAYER

241
Q

Exocrine verses Endocrine glands?

A

Endocrine: goes into bloodstream

Exocrine: secreted to surface/local area

Structure And Function (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions