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clinical anatomy > EXAM 2 > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

which vertebra is the anticlerical?

A

T11

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2
Q

what are the four landmarks for performing and epidural?

A

ilial wings
S1
Dorsal spinous process of L7

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3
Q

which species tends to have shorter blockier vertebra?

A

dogs

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4
Q

atlantoaxial sublimation usually occurs due to malformation or hypoplasia of which structure?

A

dens

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5
Q

which extra ligaments appear on the thoracic vertebrae?

A

intercapital

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6
Q

where in C1 does the dens articulate?

A

fovea

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7
Q

what kind of movement does atlas allow?

A

rotation of the head

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8
Q

where is dens located?

A

C2

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9
Q

dens is also called?

A

odontoid process

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10
Q

T/F C1-C2 has an intervertebral disk

A

F

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11
Q

function of the dens

A

hold C1 and C2 together

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12
Q

a hypoplastic dens can cause?

A

-atlantoaxial subluxation
-more movement in that AA joint, C2 can luxate since transverse ligament has nothing to hold onto

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13
Q

fuction of transverse ligament

A

holds dens in place

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14
Q

function of dorsal atlantoaxial ligament

A

keeps C1 and C2 in place

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15
Q

what can occur if there was a tear in the dorsal atlantoaxial ligament?

A

the vertebrae can pop up and pinch the spinal cord, spine of C2 moves up and pinches

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16
Q

spinal intumescence

A

concentration of lower motor neurons

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17
Q

C6-T2

A

nerves of brachial plexus

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18
Q

to do a cerebrospinal fluid collection (high tap) where are you going?

A

cerebellomedullary cistern (cranial to C1)

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19
Q

what is an anatomical characteristic that makes C6 identifiable?

A

large transverse process

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20
Q

what runs between rib heads from T2-T11?

A

intercapital ligaments
more support and stability for body

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21
Q

why is the lumbar region of the vertebrae more prone to having issues?

A

no intercapital ligaments, not very protected or cushioned, the spinal cord is sitting in a very small space so if a disc slips into the intervertebral space can cause neuro deficits

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22
Q

what is the goal of an epidural?

A

bathe the area surrounding the dura matter

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23
Q

cauda equina syndrome (lumbosacral stenosis)

A

disc pushing up on the caudal equine (femoral nerve, sciatic, pudendal, pelvic, coccygeal)
L7-S1

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24
Q

screw tail

A

malformation of one to several vertebrae in the tail
causes skin to form around that malformation and cause infection

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25
Q

intervertebral disc disease type 1

A

abnormal cartilage development can lead to nucleus pulpous to be dry and brittle and can pop through annulus fibrosis

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26
Q

IVDD type 2

A

disc squashed between adjacent vertebral bodies, causing annulus fibrosis to bulge upward

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27
Q

canine dental formula for deciduous teeth?

A

313/313= 14

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28
Q

canine dental formula for permanent teeth?

A

3141/3143= 21

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29
Q

what is total deciduous teeth count in canines?

A

28

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30
Q

how many permanent teeth do canines have?

A

42

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31
Q

what are the carnassial teeth and what are their function?

A

4th premolar on top
1st molar on lower
-shearing teeth
-frequently broken teeth

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32
Q

feline deciduous dental formula

A

313/312= 13

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33
Q

feline permanent teeth formula

A

3131/3121= 15

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34
Q

how many deciduous teeth do felines have?

A

26

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35
Q

how many permanent teeth do felines have?

A

30

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36
Q

carnassial teeth in felines

A

same as dog (4th PM and 1st M), even though they have less teeth than dogs they are still considered the same numbering

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37
Q

where do you go for a rostral maxillary block?

A

through the infraorbital foramen

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38
Q

what area does a block of the infraorbital foramen numb?

A

block feeling from the distal aspect of upper premolar 3 to the midline of the maxilla

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39
Q

where would you inject for a caudal maxillary block?

A

behind the last molar

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40
Q

if you wanted to block everything on the ipsilateral side when doing a dental, what block would you do?

A

caudal maxillary block

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41
Q

where do you inject for a rostral mandibular block?

A

middle mental foramen

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42
Q

what area does the mental block numb?

A

numbs tissue from the mandibular second to third pre-molar rostral to the midline

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43
Q

what structure blocks the mental foramen?

A

frenulum (part of lip that attaches right under the first premolar)

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44
Q

where do you inject for a caudal mandibular block?

A

inferior alveolar area
splash block

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45
Q

what area are you blocking when doing an inferior alveolar block?

A

affects the tissue from the third mandibular molar to the midline

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46
Q

what nerve innervates almost all the muscles of the larynx?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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47
Q

what is a complication of a cricoarytenoid lateralization

A

things can get lodged in the airway

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48
Q

how do you test for enlarged thyroid gland?

A

thyroid slip test in cats

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49
Q

how many internal and external thyroid glands are there

A

2 external
2 internal

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50
Q

between what veins is the mandibular gland between?

A

maxillary and lingual facial vein

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51
Q

what is sialocete?

A

accumulation of saliva that has leaked from an injured salivary gland or salivary duct

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52
Q

cervical mucocele

A

swelling in the upper neck

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53
Q

sublingual mucocele (ranula)

A

swelling within the mouth, below alongside the tongue

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54
Q

pharyngeal mucocele

A

swelling in the pharynx

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55
Q

zygomatic mucocele

A

swelling in the cheek area or below eye (zygomatic gland)

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56
Q

when repairing the aural hematomas how would you place sutures?

A

since the blood supply runs vertically you would have to place sutures the same way of direction of the vasculature or would become necrotic

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57
Q

where can nasopharyngeal polys and cats grow out of?

A

grow out of middle ear (tympanic bula) either in the canal or in the inner ear and out in throat

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58
Q

if a dog came in with no blinking during menace response, does not notice or follow cotton ball, bumps into objects during maze what nerve could be damaged

A

CN II optic

59
Q

if a dog came in with atrophy of the temporalis and masseter muscle, a decreased jaw tone, dropped jaw and unable to close mouth with difficulty eating or chewing what nerve could be damaged?

A

CN V trigeminal

60
Q

if a dog came in and presents with facial drooping on one side of the lips and ears, drooling from affected side, not able to blink/close eye what nerve might be damaged?

A

CN VII facial

61
Q

if a dog came in with deafness, a head tilt, and nystagmus what nerve may be damaged?

A

CV VIII vestibulocochlea

62
Q

how many openings are there through the diaphragm?

A

3
caval
esophageal
aortic

63
Q

which ligaments unite the rings of the trachea?

A

annular ligament

64
Q

which lung pattern would you expect to see air bronchograms?

A

alveolar

65
Q

which two valves have papillary muscles?

A

mitral and tricuspi

66
Q

where do you aim for a pericardiocentesis?

A

cardiac notch
4-6th intercostal spaces

67
Q

on what aspect is the trachealis muscle located in the trachea?

A

dorsal aspect on the inside of the trachea

68
Q

how would you want to take an x-ray to determine if a tracheal collapse is either in or out of the thoracic cavity how would you want to shoot each one?

A

intra-thoracic: on expiration is worse because thats where the pressure is greater
extra-thoracic: when breathing in

Clinical signs are worse on inspiration for extrathoracic
Worse on expiration for intrathoracic

69
Q

what are the 4 grades of tracheal collapse

A

1) 25%
2) 50%
3) 75%
4)100%
lumen % size reduction

70
Q

what is in the cranial, middle, dorsal, and caudal parts of the central compartment of the thoracic cavity

A

dorsal- contains trachea, esophagus, thymus, etc
middle- contains heart
dorsal- contains major pulmonary vessels, aorta, thoracic duct
caudal- contains aorta, thoracic duct, esophagus, vagal nerves

71
Q

alveolar disease patterns

A

when air within alveoli is replaced with a denser (could be pus) with a denser material, increasing opacity

72
Q

bronchial pattern pulmonary disease pattern

A

when bronchial wall thickness is increased by cellular or fluid infiltration (increased thickness)

73
Q

interstitial pulmonary disease pattern

A

structured- nodular or mass lesions in the lung
unstructured- excess fluid, cellular growth, or infiltration into supporting interstitial framework of the lung

74
Q

what are lobar signs in alveolar pattern pulmonary disease

A

sharp margin created when a lobe with increased opacity abuts a normally aerated lobe that has less opacity

75
Q

describe bronchial pattern on the x-ray what are the white and black arrows pointing to

A

-white arrow is pointing to ring shadows (head on view) created by the x-ray beam hitting an abnormal bronchus
-black arrow pointing to the tram lines created by the x-ray beam hitting abnormal bronchus side-on

76
Q

what type of pulmonary disease pattern is this?

A

interstitial pattern- structured

77
Q

what type of pulmonary disease pattern is this?

A

interstitial pattern- unstrucutred
increase in background opacity of lung

78
Q

what is a cardiac auscualtion

A

-push the olecranon up against the chest wall, typically puts you at the center of the heart

79
Q

what intercostal space is the mitral valve at

A

5th

80
Q

what intercostal space is the tricuspid valve at

A

4th

81
Q

what major vessel separates the atrium from the ventricle

A

great coronary vein

82
Q

what major vessel separates the left and right ventricle

A

left coronary artery

83
Q

describe the layers of the pericardium

A

(outer to inner)
-fibrous: tough outer sac that contains the serous pericardium, small amount of fluid, and the heart
-parietal serous layer: covers the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium
-visceral serous layer: epicardium, attached firmly to heart muscle, except where fat or vessels intervene

84
Q

what valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle

A

mitral valve

85
Q

what valve separates right atrium and right ventricle

A

tricuspid valve

86
Q

systole

A

when heart contracts and pumps blood from the chambers into the arteries

87
Q

diastole

A

when heart relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood

88
Q

what does each lung lobe have?

A

an artery, bronchus, and vein

89
Q

what are the three categories of heart failure

A

1) myocardial failure/systolic dysfunction
2) valvar regurgitation or obstruction leading to volume overload
3) increased myocardial stiffness/diastolic dysfunction

90
Q

what is happening in the x-ray, signs of coughing and labored breathing pressure on the diaphragm so can’t expand much

A

-cant see detail in abdomen
-right sided heart failure which causes the back-up from the vena cava, the inferior vena cava coming from abdomen to the heart, which causes abdomen in fluid

91
Q

what is happening in this x-ray

A

-fluid in the lungs, bright tissue up higher
-left sided heart failure

92
Q

what is congestive heart failure

A

CHF refers to a state of diminished cardiac function that results in increased venous pressure and accumulation of edema fluid

93
Q

pulmonary congestion

A

can lead to distended vessels CHF

94
Q

what is wrong?

A

-pericardial effusion
-most common cause of neoplasia
-can cause cardiac tamponade (sac filled with fluid return, ventricle filling, cardiac output
-cardiogenic shock

95
Q

why is thoracocentesis?

A

removal of fluid or air from the pleural space for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes

96
Q

crus

A

attachment to vertebral column

97
Q

peritoneopericadial diaphragmatic hernia (PPDH)

A

-abnormal development of the transverse septum of the diaphragm
-congential communication between the pericardial and peritoneal spaces

98
Q

what is your landmark for the right gutter?

A

descending duodenum

99
Q

when retracting the descending duodenum medially what will you see?

A

right kidney and right adrenal gland under the caudate lobe, right over, right limb of pancreas
RIGHT IS TIGHT (right kidney sits higher than the left)

100
Q

what is your landmark for the left gutter?

A

decending colon

101
Q

when retracting the left gutters medially what would you see?

A

left kidney
left adrenal gland
left ovary

102
Q

where does the uterus sit compared to the bladder in females?

A

the uterus sits dorsal to the bladder

103
Q

trigone

A

the triangle shaped region at the base of the bladder where the two ureters drain into and where the proximal urethra begins

104
Q

when is it easiest to feel the prostate gland

A

rectally in intact males

105
Q

where is the branching coming from and attaching when supplying the colon, bladder, ureters, female/male repro parts?

A

branching off the aorta and attaching at the dorsal aspect of each organ

106
Q

when performing a cystotomy where would you want to make an incision?

A

on the ventral area because the vascular are attached to the dorsal aspect

107
Q

if an intact female is in dorsal recumbency where can the uterus be found?

A

underneath or dorsal to the bladder

108
Q

what attaches the ovary to to the body wall?

A

suspensory ligament

109
Q

what connects the ovary to the uterus?

A

proper ligament (this site can be used to place a hemostat to hold onto the ovary during a spay)

110
Q

what is the broad ligament?

A

a peritoneum that helps support the uterus and ovaries and attaches the uterus to the body wall (filled with fat, lymphatics an d blood vessels)

111
Q

what ligament of the uterus supports and anchors the uteru?

A

round ligament

112
Q

what arteries need to be ligated during a spay?

A

uterine artery

113
Q

female cystotomy

A

-place u-catheter before surgery
-midline celiotomy
-identifiy and exteriorize bladder packed off lap sponges
-staay sutures to help elevate bladder

114
Q

male cystotomy

A

-suction
-can place u-cath introp
- incisons on ventral aspect of bladder to avoid blood vessels and ureters
-scoop out bladder stones and flush normograde and retrograde

115
Q

normograde

A

normally from inside out
bladder out

116
Q

retrograde

A

from outside in

117
Q

what is the holding layer of the bladder?

A

submucosa

118
Q

what is the most common stone type?

A

struvite

119
Q

what is the preferred method of diagnosing pyometra and what are you looking for?

A

ultrasound
anechoic fluid filled structures dorsal to the bladder

120
Q

around what time does pymoetra typically present itself?

A

2-4 months after estrus

121
Q

rectal exam

A

anal glands
stool consistency
anal tone
prostate
urethra
sub lumbar lymph nodes
lumbosacral pain

122
Q

abdominocentesis

A

drawing fluid from the abdomen (acites)

123
Q

sites to do abdominocentesis

A

-on linea alaba, caudal to umbilicus
-4 quadrant, 4 points around the umbilicus

124
Q

what is 5

A

dens

125
Q

what is 2, 4, and 6

A

2- atlantoaxial joint
4- dens (it passes the AA joint space)
6- intervertebral disc between C2 and C3

126
Q

what’s wrong?

A

AA subluxation
no dens (hypoplastic dens)
causes weakness of ligaments, which his causing the subluxation

127
Q

what is 6

A

anticlinal vertebra T11

128
Q

what is indicated by the black arrow?

A

block vertebra
dorsal articular process joint, meaning incomplete fusion has occurred

129
Q

what is wrong

A

intrathoracic tracheal collapse

130
Q

when do the canine deciduous incisors erupt?

A

4-6 weeks

131
Q

when do the canine deciduous canines erupt?

A

5-6 weeks

132
Q

when do the canine deciduous premolars erupt?

A

6 weeks

133
Q

when do the canine molars erupt?

A

5-7 months

134
Q

when do the canine permanent incisors erupt?

A

3-5 months

135
Q

when do the canine permanent canines erupt?

A

4-6 months

136
Q

when do the canine permanent premolars erupt?

A

4-5 months

137
Q

when do the feline deciduous incisors erupt?

A

3-4 weeks

138
Q

when do the feline deciduous canines erupt?

A

3-4 weeks

139
Q

when do the feline deciduous premolar erupt?

A

6 weeks

140
Q

when do the feline molars erupt?

A

5-6 months

141
Q

when do the feline permanent incisors erupt?

A

3.5-5.5 months

142
Q

when do the feline permanent canines erupt?

A

5.5-6.6 months

143
Q

when do the feline permanent premolars erupt?

A

4-5 months

clinical anatomy (3 decks)

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