Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology 367: Anatomy > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

is the sternum a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

flat
axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

is the radius a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

long
appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is the calcaneus (tarsal bone) a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

short
appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is the parietal bone (cranial bone) a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

flat
axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is the phalanx (single bone of a digit) a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

long
appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is the vertebra a long, short, flat, or irregular bone and is it in the axial or appendicular skeleton?

A

irregular
axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

a sharp, slender process

A

spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a small rounded projection

A

tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a narrow ridge of a bone

A

crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a large rounded projection

A

tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a structure supported on the neck

A

head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

an armlike projection

A

ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

rounded, convex projection

A

condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a narrow slitlike opening

A

fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a canal like structure

A

meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a round or oval opening through a bone

A

foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

a shallow depression

A

fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

an air filled cavity

A

sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

large, irregularly shaped projection

A

trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

raised area on or above a condyle

A

epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

a bony projection

A

process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a smooth, nearly flat articular surface

A

facet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

2

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3

A

articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

4

A

spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

5

A

epiphyseal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

6

A

compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

7

A

medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

8

A

spongy bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

9

A

articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

10

A

compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

11

A

yellow bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

12

A

compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

13

A

periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

14

A

nutrient artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

end portion of a long bone

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

helps reduce friction at joints

A

articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

site of blood cell formation

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

two major sub membranous sites of osteoprogenitor cells

A

endosteum
periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

scientific term for bone shaft

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

contains yellow bone marrow in adult bones

A

medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

growth plate remnant

A

epiphyseal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the function of the organic matrix in bone?

A

flexibility and strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

name the important organic bone components

A

collagen fibers
osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

calcium salts form the bulk of the inorganic material in bone. what is the function of the calcium salts?

A

makes the bone hard and give it strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

baking a bone removes the _____
soaking bone in acid removes _____

A

organic part
minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

4

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

1

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

which cartilage supports the external ear?

A

elastic cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

which cartilage is between the vertebrae?

A

fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which cartilage forms the walls of the voice box (larynx)?

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

which cartilage is the epiglottis?

A

elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

which cartilage is articular cartilages?

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

which cartilage is the meniscus in a knee joint?

A

fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

which cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum?

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

which cartilage is most effective at resisting compression?

A

fibrocartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

which cartilage is most springy and flexible?

A

elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

which cartilage is most abundant?

A

hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

forms the anterior cranium

A

frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

cheekbone

A

zygomatic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

lower jaw

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

bridge of the nose

A

nasal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

posterior bones of the hard palate

A

palatine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

much of the lateral and superior cranium

A

parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

single, irregular, bat-shaped bone forming part of the cranial base

A

sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

most posterior part of the cranium

A

occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

tiny bones bearing tear ducts

A

lacrimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

anterior part of the hard palate

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

superior and middle nasal concha form from its projections

A

ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

site of mastoid process

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

site of sella turcica

A

occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

site of cribriform plate

A

ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

site of mental foramen

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

site of styloid process

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

4 bones containing paranasal sinuses

A

ethmoid
frontal
maxilla
sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

has condyles that articulate with the atlas

A

occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

foramen magnum contained here

A

occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

small U-shaped bone in neck, where many tongue muscles attach

A

hyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

organ of hearing found here

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

2 bones that form the nasal septum

A

vomer, ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

contains sockets that bear teeth

A

maxilla
mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

forms the most inferior turbinate

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

1

A

frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

2

A

parietal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

3

A

supraorbital foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

4

A

superior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

5

A

ethmoid bone (perpendicular plate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

6

A

inferior orbital fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

7

A

infraorbital foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

8

A

vomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

9

A

alveolar process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

10

A

mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

11

A

mandibular symphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

12

A

incisive fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

13

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

14

A

styloid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

15

A

foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

16

A

sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

17

A

carotid canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

18

A

temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

19

A

stylomastoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

20

A

occipital condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

21

A

foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

22

A

external occipital protuberance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

23

A

occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

24

A

mastoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

25

A

jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

26

A

foramen lacerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

27

A

mandibular fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

28

A

zygomatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

29

A

vomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

30

A

palatine bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

31

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

32

A

mental foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

33

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

34

A

inferior nasal concha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

35

A

zygomatic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

36

A

lacrimal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

37

A

sphenoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

38

A

nasal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

39

A

glabella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

name the 8 bones of the cranium (include left and right)

A

frontal
left parietal
right parietal
left temporal
right temporal
occipital
sphenoid
ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what bones have sinuses?

A

maxilla
sphenoid
ethmoid
frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

2 functions of the sinuses

A

lighten the facial bones
act as resonance chambers for speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what is the bony orbit? what 7 bones contribute to the formation of the orbit?

A

7 bones that surround the eye
frontal
sphenoid
ethmoid
lacrimal
maxilla
palatine
zygomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

why can the sphenoid bone be called the keystone bone of the cranium?

A

it is in contact with all other cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

vertebra type containing forming in the transverse process, through which the vertebral arteries ascend to reach the brain

A

cervical vertebra - typical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

dens here provides a pivot for rotation of the first cervical vertebra

A

axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

transverse processes faceted for articulation with ribs; spinous process pointing sharply downward

A

thoracic vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

composite bone; articulates with the hip bone laterally

A

sacrum

134
Q

massive vertebra; weight-sustaining

A

lumbar vertebra

135
Q

“tailbone”; vestigial fused vertebra

A

coccyx

136
Q

supports the head; allows for a rocking motion in conjunction with the occipital condyles

A

atlas

137
Q

cavity enclosing the spinal cord

A

vertebral foramen

138
Q

weight-bearing portion of the vertebra

A

body

139
Q

provide levers against which muscles pull

A

spinous process
transverse process

140
Q

provide an articulation point for the ribs

A

body
transverse process

141
Q

openings providing for exit of spinal nerves

A

intervertebral foramina

142
Q

structures that form an enclosure for the spinal cord

A

vertebral arch

143
Q

1

A

spinous process

144
Q

2

A

transverse process

145
Q

3

A

superior articular facet

146
Q

4

A

body

147
Q

5

A

vertebral foramen

148
Q

6

A

pedicle

149
Q

7

A

lamina

150
Q

8

A

vertebral arch

151
Q

describe how a spinal nerve exits from the vertebral column

A

via the ventral root where they synapse on motor neuron ganglia
then go through the ventral horn

152
Q

name 2 factors that permit flexibility of the vertebral column

A

intervertebral disc
curvatures

153
Q

what kind of tissue makes up the intervertebral discs?

A

fibrocartilage

154
Q

what is a herniated disc? what problems might it cause?

A

a ruptured disc that protrudes outward
could compress a nerve leading to pain or paralysis

155
Q

which 2 spinal curvatures are obvious at birth?

A

thoracic and sacral

156
Q

under what conditions do the secondary curvatures develop?

A

cervical forms when the baby begins to raise its head independently
lumbar forms when baby begins to walk

157
Q

1

A

intervertebral discs

158
Q

2

A

thoracic vertebrae

159
Q

3

A

intervertebral foramina

160
Q

4

A

transverse process

161
Q

5

A

spinous process

162
Q

the major components of the thorax are

A

the sternum and the ribs

163
Q

differentiate a true rib from a false rib

A

true ribs attack to the sternum by their own cottage cartilage
false ribs have costal cartilage that attaches to other rib cartilage before attaching to the sternum

164
Q

what is the general shape of the thoracic cage?

A

cone/barrel shaped

165
Q

1

A

jugular notch

166
Q

2

A

clavicle notch

167
Q

3

A

manubrium

168
Q

4

A

sternal angle

169
Q

5

A

body

170
Q

6

A

xiphisternal joint

171
Q

7

A

xiphoid process

172
Q

8

A

costal cartilage

173
Q

9

A

floating ribs

174
Q

10

A

false ribs

175
Q

11

A

true ribs

176
Q

12

A

sternum

177
Q

are the same skull bones seen in the adult also found in the fetal skull?

A

yes

178
Q

how does the size of the fetal face compare to the fetal cranium?

A

large cranium and shorted face, smaller maxilla and mandible

179
Q

what are the outward conical projections on some of the fetal cranial bones?

A

ossification centers

180
Q

what is a fontanelle?

A

a fibrous membrane connecting fetal skull bones

181
Q

what is a fate?

A

progressively ossified and replaced by suture

182
Q

what is the function of the fontanelles in the fetal skull

A

allows the skull to be compressed during birth and leave room for brain growth

183
Q

1

A

sphenoidal fontanelle

184
Q

2

A

anterior fontanelle

185
Q

3

A

posterior fontanelle

186
Q

4

A

mastoid fontanelle

187
Q

what type of cartilage is in the ear?

A

elastic

188
Q

what type of cartilage is in the nose

A

hyaline

189
Q

what type of cartilage is in the joints?

A

hyaline

190
Q

what time of cartilage is in the costal ribs?

A

hyaline

191
Q

what type of cartilage is in the intervertebral discs?

A

fibro

192
Q

what type of cartilage is in the pubic symphysis?

A

fibro

193
Q

what type of cartilage is the articular cartilage of a joint?

A

fibro

194
Q

what type of cartilage is the meniscus (knee)

A

fibro

195
Q

describe the function of hyaline cartilage

A
  • gelatinous ground substance holds a lot of water so resists compression well
  • provides support through flexibility and resilience
196
Q

what cartilage makes up the articular cartilage that covers the ends of adjoining bones in movable joints?

A

hyaline

197
Q

what cartilage forms the cartilaginous attachments of the ribs to the sternum and accounts for most of the cartilage found in the respiratory structures

A

hyaline

198
Q

compare hyaline and elastic cartilage matrix

A

elastic has more elastic fibers along with collagen
hyaline only has collagen

199
Q

what cartilage is able to tolerate repeated bending

A

elastic

200
Q

which cartilage can resist both strong compression and strong tension

A

fibro

201
Q

what fibers does fibrocartilage contain?

A

collagen

202
Q

how does cartilage grow?

A

2 ways
1) appositional - growth from outside, cartilage forming cells (chondroblasts) in the surrounding perichondrium produce new cartilage tissue by actively secreting matrix
2) interstitial - growth from within, the chondrocytes within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix

203
Q

when does cartilage start and stop growing?

A

grows rapidly in embryonic development, childhood, and adolescent
stops growing in teens when the skeleton stops growing

204
Q

what is a sign of aging in adults by looking at cartilage?

A

crystals of calcium phosphate precipitate in the matrix

205
Q

6 functions of bones

A

1) support - hard framework that supports the weight of the body
2) movement - skeletal muscles attach to the bones by tendons and use the bones as levers to move the body and its parts
3) protection - the bones of the skull form a protective case for the brain
4) mineral storage - bones serve as a reservoir for minerals, the most important of which are calcium and phosphate
5) blood cell formation and energy storage - contain red and yellow bone marrow
6) energy metabolism - bone-producing cells, osteoblasts, secrete a hormone that influences blood sugar regulation and energy metabolism

206
Q

function of bone tissue? (organic and inorganic)

A

organic - cells, fibers, ground substance
- contribute to bone flexibility and tensile strength that allow bone to resist stretching and twisting

inorganic - mineral salts
- provide the bone with hardness which allows it to resist compression

207
Q

describe a long bone
what are the 5 general structures?

A

has a shaft plus 2 distinct ends
most bones of the limbs
named for elongated shape, not size
1) diaphysis
2) epiphysis
3) blood vessels
4) the medullary cavity
5) membranes

208
Q

describe a flat bone

A

thin, flattened, and usually somewhat curved
most cranial bones of the skull
ribs, sternum, scapula

209
Q

describe how bones resist compression or tension

A
  • the strong, compact bone tissue occurs in the external portion of the bone
  • internal to this region, tension and compression forces tend to cancel each other out, resulting in less overall stress
  • compact bone is not found in the bones interiors, spongy bone is sufficient
  • because no stress occurs at the bones center, the lack of bone tissue in the central medullary cavity does not impair the strength of the long bones
  • bone markings
210
Q

describe histology of compact bone

A
  • riddled with passageways for blood vessels and nerves
  • osteon: long, cylindrical structures oriented parallel to the long axis of the bone and to the main compression stresses - weight bearing pillars - groups of tubes
  • lamella - each tube of osteons - a layer of bone matrix in which collagen fibers and mineral crystals of adjacent lamellae always run in roughly opposite directions - inhibit crack propagation
  • central canal: through the core of each osteon - contains blood vessels which supply nutrients to the bone cells and its own nerve fibers
  • perforating canals: lie at right angles to the central canals and connect the blood and nerve supply of the periosteum to that of the central canals and the marrow cavity
  • canaliculi: bodies of osteocytes occupy small cavities in the solid matrix called lacunae and their “spider legs” occupy these thin tubes - run through the matrix, connecting neighboring lacunae to one another and to the nearest capillaries
211
Q

describe the histology of spongy bone

A
  • each trabecula contains several layers of lamellae and osteocytes but is too small to contain osteons or vessels of its own
  • osteocytes receive nutrients from capillaries in the endosteum surrounding the trabecular via connections through the canaliculi
212
Q

what is inframembrous ossification?
compare to endochrondral ossification

A

inframembrous
1) ossification centers develop in the fibrous connective tissue membrane
2) osteoid is secrete and calcifies
3) woven bone and periosteum
4) compact bone replaces woven bone, just deep to the periosteum. red bone marrow develops
- the clavicle is the only bone not in the skull formed by this

endochrondal
1) bone collar forms around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model
2) cartilage in the center of the diaphysis calcifies and then develops cavities
3) the periostea bud invades the internal cavities and spongy bones form
4) the diaphysis elongates and a medullary cavity forms. secondary ossification centers appear in the epiphysis
5) the epiphysis ossify. when completed, hyaline cartilage remains only in the epiphyseal plates and articular cartilages

213
Q

describe how endochondral bones grow at their epiphyseal plates

A
  • the cartilage cells nearest the epiphysis are relatively small and inactive - resting zone
  • below the resting zone, cartilage cells form large columns with condroblasts at the top in the “proliferation zone” divide quickly, pushing the epiphysis away from the diaphysis and causing the long bone to lengthen
  • the older chondrocytes in the stack at the hypertrophic zone enlarge and signal the surrounding matrix to calcify
214
Q

discuss how bone tissue is remodeled within the skeleton

A
  • the spongy bone in the skeleton is entirely replaced every 3-4 years
  • remodeling in compact bone occurs at the endosteum lining the central canals of the osteons
  • remodeling is coordinated by cohorts of adjacent osteoblasts and osteoclasts
    BONE RESORPTION: accomplished by osteoclasts that crawl alone the bone surfaces digging pits as they break down the bone tissue. the expanded membrane forms a tight seal against the bone and secretes concentrated hydrochloric acid which dissolves the mineral part
    BONE DEPOSITION: accomplished by osteoblasts which lay down organic osteoid on bone surfaces and calcium salts crystalize within this osteoid
215
Q

explain the 4 steps in the healing of bone fractures

A

1) hematoma formation - blood vessels break in the periosteum and inside the bone, releasing blood that clots to form a hematoma
2) fibrocartilaginous callus formation - new blood vessels grow into the clot
3) bony callus formation - trabeculae of new woven bone begin to form in the callus, mostly by endochondral ossification
4) bone remodeling - the excess bone material is removed from both the exterior of the bone shaft and the inferior of the medullary cavity

216
Q

what are the 3 evolutionary domains of the vertebral skull?

A

splanchnocranium
neurocranium
dermatocranium

217
Q

what is the primary function of the splanchnocranium?

A

endochrondral bone supporting the pharyngeal arches (branchiomeric muscles)
- works with chondrocranium, hyoid, elements of jaw, middle ear

218
Q

what is the primary function of the neurocranium?

A

endochrondral bone encasing the brain (floor and walls)
(chondrocranium and endocranium)

219
Q

what is the primary function of the dermatocranium?

A

dermal armor surrounding entire head

220
Q

4 major elements of the chondrocranium?

A

ethmoid region
basal plate - sphenoid
occipital arch
sensory capsules - contained by and formed within bones of skull

221
Q

6 series in the dermatocranium?

A

1) facial
2) orbital
3) temporal
4) vault
5) palatal
6) mandibular

222
Q

provide an example of a bone within the skull that undergoes endochondral development. intramembranous development.

A

??????

223
Q

using the temporal bone as an example, discuss the concept of compound skull bones

A

??????

224
Q

compare the functions of the cranial and facial bones

A

cranial
- form the brain’s protective shell
- allows the bones to be thin, egg-shell like, and strong for its weight

facial
- anchors the teeth and lower/raises the jaw
- idk?

225
Q

function of frontal bone?

A
  • form forehead
  • form orbits
  • contain sinuses
226
Q

function of parietal bones?

A
  • forms most superior and lateral aspects of skull
227
Q

function of occipital bone?

A

forms posterior aspect and most of the base of the skull

228
Q

function of temporal bones?

A
  • forms inferolateral aspects of the skull
  • contributes to middle cranial fossa
229
Q

function of sphenoid bone?

A
  • contributes to middle cranial fossa and orbits
230
Q

function of ethmoid bone?

A
  • forms part of nasal septum and lateral walls and roof of nasal cavity
  • contributes to medial wall of orbit
231
Q

function of nasal bone?

A
  • forms the bridge of the nose
232
Q

function of the lacrimal bones?

A
  • form part of the medial orbit wall
233
Q

function of the zygomatic bones?

A

form the cheek and part of the orbit

234
Q

function of the inferior nasal concha bones?

A

form part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity

235
Q

function of the mandible?

A

raise and lower the jaw

236
Q

function of the maxilla bones?

A
  • keystone bones of the face
  • form the upper jaw and parts of the hard palate, orbits, and nasal cavity walls
237
Q

function of the palatine bones?

A

form posterior part of the hard palate and a small part of nasal cavity and orbit walls

238
Q

function of the vomer?

A

inferior part of the nasal septum

239
Q

function of the auditory ossicles?

A

involved in sound transmission

240
Q

what are the bony boundaries of the nasal cavity?

A

roof: ethmoid cribriform plates
floor: palatine processes of the maxillae and horizontal plates of palatine bones
lateral walls: nasal bones, superior and middle conchae of the ethmoid, inferior nasal concha, frontal process of maxilla, perpendicular plates of palatine bones

241
Q

what are the bony boundaries of the paranasal sinuses?

A

hollow spaces inside of the frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and both maxillary bones

242
Q

what are the bony boundaries of the orbit?

A

walls formed by parts of the
- frontal
- sphenoid
- zygomatic
- maxillary
- palatine
- lacrimal
- and ethmoid bones

243
Q

name a function performed by both the spinal curvatures and the intervertebral discs

A

increase the resilience of the spine, allowing it to act as a spring rather than a rigid rod
- absorb compressive stress and act as shock absorbers

244
Q

describe the general structure of the vertebral column, and list its components

A

1) cervical curvature (7 vertebrae, concave)
2) thoracic curvature (12 vertebrae, convex)
3) lumbar curvature (5 vertebrae, concave)
4) sacral curvature (5 fused vertebrae, concave)
5) coccyx (4 fused vertebrae)

245
Q

what are true ribs?

A

attach directly to the sternum by their costal cartilages

246
Q

what are false ribs?

A

attach to the sternum indirectly through costal cartilage or not at all

247
Q

what are floating ribs?

A

have no anterior attachments

248
Q

describe how a typical rib attaches to the vertebral column

A
  • the wedge-shaped head has 2 facets: one facet joins the body of the thoracic vertebrae of the same number and the other joins the body of the vertebrae immediately superior
249
Q

name the bones that form the pectoral girdle

A

clavicle
scapula

250
Q

explain how bones of the pectoral girdle articulate with each other

A

anteriorly the medial end of each clavicle joints to the sternum and first rib
- lateral ends of clavicles join to the scapula and shoulder

251
Q

explain the functions of the pectoral girdle

A
  • attaches upper limbs to the trunk
  • provides attachment for many muscles that move the limb
  • only the clavicle attaches to the axial skeleton so the scapula can move freely across the thorax allowing the arm to move
  • the socket of the shoulder (scapula glenoid cavity) is shallow so it does not restrict movement of the humerus
252
Q

what is the largest bone in the arm?

A

humerus

253
Q

the humerus articulates with _____ at the ______ and with the _____ and ______ at the ______

A

scapula at the shoulder
radius and ulna at the elbow

254
Q

at the proximal head of the humerus is the hemispherical _____

A

head

255
Q

just inferior to the humerus head is a slight constriction, the __________

A

anatomical neck

256
Q

inferior to the humerus anatomical neck, the lateral _____ and the more medial _____ are separated by the intertubercular sulcus

A

greater tubercle
lesser tubercle

257
Q

the _____ of the humerus is inferior to the tubercles

A

surgical neck

258
Q

about midway down the shaft of the humerus, on the lateral side, is the _____

A

deltoid tuberosity

259
Q

near the deltoid tuberosity on the humerus along the posterior surface of the shaft, the _____ descends obliquely

A

radial groove

260
Q

at the distal end of the humerus are 2 condyles, a medial _____ that articulates with the ulna, and a lateral _____ that articulates with the radius

A

trochlea
capitulum

261
Q

the trochlea and capitulum of the humerus are flanked by the _______, which are attachment sites for muscles of the forearm

A

medial and lateral epicondyles

262
Q

directly above the lateral and medial epicondyles on the humerus are the _____

A

medial and lateral supracondylar ridges

263
Q

the _____ and _____ form the forearm

A

radius and ulna

264
Q

the radius and ulna articulate with the _____ proximally and ______ distally

A

humerus
bones of the wrist

265
Q

the radius and ulna articulate with each other proximally and distally at the ligament called ________

A

interosseous membrane

266
Q

at the proximal end of the ulna are 2 prominent projections, the ______ and _____ processes, separated by a deep concavity, the trochlear notch

A

olecranon
coronoid

267
Q

on the lateral side of the ulna coronoid process is a smooth depression, the ______, where the head of the radius articulates with the ulna

A

radial notch

268
Q

distally, the shaft of the ulna narrows and ends in a _____ that articulates with the radius.
medial to this is the ______, from which a ligament runs to the wrist

A

head
ulnar styloid process

269
Q

the superior end of the radius articulates with ______ of the humerus

A

capitulum

270
Q

medially, the head of the radius articulates with the ______ of the ulna, forming the proximal radioulnar joint

A

radial notch

271
Q

just distal to the head of the radius, on the anterior surface in anatomical position, is a rough bump, the _______, a site of attachment of the biceps muscles

A

radial tuberosity

272
Q

on the distal end of the radius, the medial ______ articulates wit the head of the ulna, the ______ articulates with the head of the ulna, forming the distal radioulnar joint

A

ulnar notch
radial styloid process

273
Q

the true wrist, or _____, is the proximal region of the hand, just distal to the wrist joint

A

carpus

274
Q

the carpus of the hand contains eight marble-sized short bones, or ______, closely united by ligaments

A

carpals

275
Q

in the proximal row in the hand, from lateral to medial, are the _____, ______, ______, and ______ bones

A

scaphoid
lunate
triquetrum
pisiform

276
Q

the carpals of the distal row, from lateral to medial, are the _____, _____, _____, and _____ bones

A

trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hamate

277
Q

five ______ in the hand radiate distally from the wrist to form the metacarpus, or palm of the hand

A

metacarpals

278
Q

the digits, or fingers, are numbered I-V beginning with the thumb, the fingers contain minature long bones called ______

A

phalanges

279
Q

radius articulates with ______

A

carpals

280
Q

carpals articulates with _______

A

metacarpals

281
Q

metacarpals articulate with _______

A

phalanges

282
Q

name the bones that form the pelvic girdle

A

hip bones
sacrum

283
Q

where the glenoid cavity of the scapula is shallow, the corresponding socket in the pelvic girdle is a deep cut that firmly secures the ____________

A

head of the femur

284
Q

each hip bone unites with its partner anteriorly and with the ______ posteriorly

A

sacrum

285
Q

compare and contrast child-birthing and non-child-birthing pelves

A

female: wider, shallower, lighter, provide more room in the true pelvis
male: narrower pubic arch

286
Q

the _____ is the single bone of the thigh

A

femur

287
Q

the ball-like head of the femur has a small central pit called the _____

A

fovea capitis

288
Q

at the junction of the shaft and neck of the femur are the lateral _____ and the posteromedial _____, sites of muscle attachment

A

greater trochanter
lesser trochanter

289
Q

the 2 trochanters of the femur are interconnected by the _____ anteriorly and by the prominent _____ posteriorly

A

intertrochanteric line
intertrochanteric cet

290
Q

inferior to the interterochanteric crest on the femur on the posterior surface of the shaft is the _____

A

gluteal tuberosity

291
Q

the inferior part of the gluteal tuberosity (femur) blends into a long vertical ridge, the _____

A

linea aspera

292
Q

distally, the femur broadens to end in _______ and _______ _______ shaped like wide wheels

A

medial and lateral condyles

293
Q

the _____ is a bump on the upper part of the medial epicondyle of the femur

A

adductor tubercle

294
Q

anteriorly, the 2 condyles (femur) are separated by a smooth ______, which articulates with the kneecap, or patella

A

patellar surface

295
Q

posteriorly, the condyles (femur) are separated by a deep _____

A

intercondylar fossa

296
Q

ending superior from the respective condyles (femur) to the linea aspera are the ______ and ______ _______ ______

A

lateral and medial supercondylar lines

297
Q

the _____ is a triangular sesamoid bone enclosed in the tendon that secures the quadriceps muscles of the anterior thigh to the tibia

A

patella

298
Q

what bones form the leg?

A

tibia and fibula

299
Q

an _____ _____ connects the tibia and fibula along their entire length

A

interosseous membrane

300
Q

the _____ receives the weight of the body from the femur and transmits it to the foot

A

tibia

301
Q

at the proximal end of the tibia are the brand _____ and _____ _____, which resemble two thick checkers lying side by side on top of the shaft, articular with the corresponding condyles of the femur

A

medial and lateral condyles

302
Q

the tibial condyles are separated by an irregular projection, the _____ ______

A

intercondylar eminence

303
Q

just inferior to the tibial condyles, on the anterior surface, is the _____ _____, attachment its of the patellar ligament

A

tibial tuberosity

304
Q

on the shaft of the tibia, the sharp _____ _____ lies just below the skin and is easily palpated

A

anterior border

305
Q

medial to the joint surface, the tibia has an inferior projection called the _____ _____, which forms the medial bulge of the ankle

A

medial malleolus

306
Q

the _____ _____ on the lateral side of the distal tibia articulates with the fibula, forming the inferior tibiofibular joint

A

fibular notch

307
Q

the _____, located lateral to the tibia, is a thin long bone with 2 expanded ends

A

fibula

308
Q

on the fibula, its superior end is its _____, and its inferior end is the _____ _____

A

head
lateral malleolus

309
Q

the _____ makes up the posterior half of the foot and contains several bones called tarsals

A

tarsus

310
Q

the weight of the body is carried primarily by the 2 largest most posterior tarsal bones: the talus which articulates with the _____ and the strong calcaneus which forms _____

A

tibia
heel

311
Q

the tibia articulates with the talus at the _____ _____ _____ _____

A

trochlea of the talus

312
Q

the part of the calcaneus that touches the ground is the _____ _____, and the medial, shelf-like projection is the _____ _____

A

calcaneal tuberosity
sustentaculum tali

313
Q

the metatarsus of the foot, which corresponds to the metacarpus of the hand, have 5 long bones called _____

A

metatarsals

314
Q

how has limb posture changed in vertebrates from amphibians through Humans

A
315
Q

discuss changes in the pelvic girdle that enable humans to walk upright

A
316
Q

3 joint classes

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial

317
Q

describe the structure of a fibrous joint

A

adjoining bones united by collagenic fibers

318
Q

describe the structure of cartilaginous joints

A

adjoining bones united by cartilage

319
Q

describe the structure of synovial joints

A

adjoining bones separated by a joint cavity, covered with articular cartilage, and enclosed within an articular capsule lined with synovial membrane

320
Q

describe the structural characteristics shared by all synovial joints

A

ligaments
joint cavity containing synovial fluid
articular cartilage (hyaline)
articular capsule (with a fibrous layer and synovial membrane)
periosteum

321
Q

discuss the role of weeping lubrication in the function of synovial joints

A
  • the pressure placed on joints during normal movement squeezes synovial fluid into and out of the articular cartilages
  • this nourishes the cells in the articular cartilages and lubricates the free surface of these cartilages, allowing the adjoining bones to move across each other with a minimum of friction
322
Q

describe the structure and function of articular discs

A

a disc of fibrocartilage
- extends internally from the capsule and completely or partially divides the joint cavity in 2
- fills the gaps and improves the fit, thereby distributing the load more evenly and minimizing wear and damage
- allow 2 different movements at the same joint

323
Q

describe the structure and function of bursae

A

contain synovial fluid and often are associated with synovial joints
- act as “ball bearings” to reduce friction between body elements that move over one another
- tendon sheaths are enlongated bursa

324
Q

describe the structure and function of tendon sheaths

A

an elongated bursa that wraps around a tendon
- only in tendons that are subjected to friction

325
Q

what shape is a plane joint and what movement does it allow?

A

square
gliding

326
Q

what shape is a hinge joint and what movement does it allow?

A

cylinder
flexion and extension

327
Q

what shape is a pivot joint and what movement does it allow?

A

sleeve and axle
rotation

328
Q

what shape is a condylar joint and what movement does it allow?

A

oval articular surface (funnel for cooking)
flexion and extension, adduction and abduction

329
Q

what shape is a saddle joint and what movement does it allow?

A

articular surfaces are both concave and convex (saddle on a horse)
adduction and abduction, flexion and extension

330
Q

what shape is ball and socket joint and what movement does it allow?

A

cup and spherical head
flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, rotation

331
Q

what type of joint is the shoulder joint?

A

ball and socket

332
Q

what type of joint is the knee joint?

A

all?
acts as a hinge
permits some medial and lateral rotation

Biology 367: Anatomy (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions