Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PBSI 350 > EXAM 2 > Flashcards

EXAM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

muscles are composed of

A

muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

muscle fiber contraction is caused by

A

an electrical impulse from a motor neuon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where are cell bodies of a motor neuron found

A

ventral portion of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

motor units are composed

A

a motor neurons and all the muscle fibers it innervates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is a neuromuscular junction

A

a specialized synapse between the nervous system and muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Function of motor tracts

A

relay messages from the brain to target muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lateral Pathway is involved in

A

fine movement of distal limb muscles ( arms, fingers, hands, lower leg, and foot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how do the tracts in lateral pathway differ from the medial pathway

A

in the lateral pathway the tract projects controlaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does the lateral pathway project contralaterally

A

crosses from one side of the brain to the opposite side of that body in the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

medial pathway is involved in

A

control of movements of the trunk and proximal limb muscles (upper arm and thighs)

posture and bilateral movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how does the medial pathway tract differ from the lateral pathway

A

projects both contralaterally and ipsilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

function of cerebellum

A

coordination of muscle movement and timing
planning of movements
the learning of motor skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the three main divisions of the cerebellum

A

vestibulocerebellum
spinocerebellum
cerebrocerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

areas near the midline tend to be responsible for functions associated with…

A

the body’s center, including posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F Cerebellum modulates ipsilateral muscles while the motor cortex acts on contralateral muscles

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cerebellar damage can cause

A

degrade in motor capabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F Cerebellar damage can cause full paralysis in movements

A

F, it never causes this rather it degrades the motor capabilites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Information flowing through these cerebellar loops allows it to modulate

A

motor processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

vestibulocerebellum receives input from .. and projects to ?

A

vestibular nuclei ( the same for both)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what happens if the vestibulocerebellum is damaged

A

leads to difficulty with balance and postural instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

spinocerebellum receives what kind of information and from where…. and where does it project to ?

A

receives somatosensory and kinesthetic info, from the spinal cord and projects it back to the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

damage to the spinocerebellum results in

A

difficulty with the smooth control of movement and movement of proximal muscles like coordinating the trunk and leg muscles for walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cerebrocerebellum receives input from

A

many diff regions of the cortex like motor and association cortices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cerebrocerebellum is involved in the regulation of

A

highly skilled movement that requires complex spatial and temporal sequences involving sensorimotor learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

examples of sensorimotor learning is

A

throwing a pitch
serving a tennis ball
juggling
fluent writing and speaking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cerebellar ataxia

A

difficulties in coordinating movement after cerebellar damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cerebellar dysarthria

A

difficulty in speech output after cerebellar damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the traditional test for cerebellar ataxia

A

have a patient touch his/her nose and then the neurologist finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does the traditional test for cerebellar ataxia display that a person has suffered this

A

movement can be performed but the path is staggered, jerky, and zigzag, involves overshoot of the target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F Overshoot of target occurs because activity of agonist and antagonist muscles are not well coordinated

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

define action/intention tremor

A

overshoot of target with staggering and jerky movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Decomposition of movement

A

difficulty in coordination of multi -joint movements

patient moves one joint at a time in a serial manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rather than lifting a glass but moving the entire arm, a person with damage to the lateral cerebellar cortex places an elbow on a table, leans forward, adn brings the glass to their mouth, this is an example of

A

Decomposition of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F An effect of damage of lateral portions of the cerebellum is difficulties in sensory-motor learning after damage

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List the two theories of cerebellar function

A

Forward model
cerebellum acts as a timing device that provides a clock for events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define forward model

A

cerebellum helps to predict sensory consequences of motor plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F Forward models are influence by feedback from periphery

A

F, they are not influenced by this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F Cerebellum is important for Ballistic movements

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F Cerebellar lesions impair the ability to make judgements about how long events will take (temporal duration of events)

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Both cerebellar theories are consistent with a role in

A

coordination, learning, and timing of movement
aspects of higher-level cognition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Basal ganglia is composed of

A

caudate nucleus
putamen
nucleus accumbens
globus pallidus
substantia nigra
subthalamic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Function of basal ganglia

A

modify movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F basal ganglia is able to modify movement through series of somewhat separable loops with cortical regions

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In basal ganglia loops, cortical regions projects to

A

caudate and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In basal ganglia, the output from this structure occurs via _____ to the ____, which projects back to ______

A

globus pallidus
thalamus
cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the four loops of the basal ganglia

A

limbic (emotional) circuit
associative (cognitive) circuit
sensory circuit
motor circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what are the two routes by which information passes through in the basal ganglia

A

direct route
indirect route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

direct route contributes to

A

sustaining or facilitating ongoing action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

indirect route is important for

A

suppressing unwanted movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In direct route input to the basal ganglia occurs via inputs that synapse on ____ ____ of ________ ____ neurons of ________ and ______

A

D1 receptors of medium spiny neurons of the caudate and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

in the indirect route input ot the basal ganglia occurs via inputs that synapse on

A

D2 receptors of medium spiny neurons of the caudate and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T/F the two pathways of basal ganglia work together in the same direction

A

F, have been considered to work in opposition to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F the basal ganglia is important for the accomplishments of movements that may take some time to initiate or stop

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T/F Cerebellum plays a role in movements that are modified once they have been initiated

A

F, It is not modified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

why is the basal ganglia thought to assist in motor planning and learning

A

they receive both motor and nonmotor , especially when motor acts have motivational significance or have a large cognitive contribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what are the multiple roles the basal ganglia are thought to have in motor actions ( there are 4)

A
  1. “setting” the motor system with regard to posture
  2. preparing the NS to accomplish a voluntary motor act
  3. acting as an autopilot for well-learned sequential movements
  4. controlling the timing of and switching between motor acts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Primary motor cortex (M1) function

A

provides the command signal to drive motor neurons to make muscles move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what happens when Primary motor cortex is damaged

A

a person cannot control the force with which muscles are exerted , may result in hemiparesis (worst case scenario)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

hemiparesis

A

inability to make motor movements on one side of the body , damage to M1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what determines the direction of the movement

A

summed activity across the population of neurons, they have a preferred orientation to a specific way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

anterior cingulate important for

A

selecting among particular responses and monitoring whether the execution of those actions occurred appropriately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Parietal regions involved in

A

linking movements to extrapersonal space and sensory info, as well as linking movements to meaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

why is the anterior cingulate considered a high level region

A

controls diff possible motor sequences
resolves conflict between which motor sequences should be implemented
evaluates the success of motor sequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Primary motor cortex function

A

control the force and/or direction with execution of motor plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what regions are involved in specifying, preparing, and initiating of movement?

A

premotor region
supplementary motor complex
frontal eye fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what structures are in the lateral regions

A

primary motor cortex
premotor cortex
frontal eye fields
parietal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what structures are part of the medial regions

A

anterior cingulate cortex
supplementary motor complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

major role of cortical regions in motor control is in

A

planning and guiding skilled movements
movements that require linking sensory inputs with motor outputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

cortical regions support a range of motor abilities including…

A

picking up an object
producing a gesture in response to a verbal command
moving the eyes to explore an image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

T/F Regions involved in motor control are distributed across both lateral and medial portions of the brain

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Huntingtons disease is characterized by

A

hyperkinesias
chorea
athetosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Athetosis

A

involuntary writhing contractions and twisting of the body into abnormal postures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

chorea

A

uncontrollable, jerky movements such as twitching and abrupt jerking of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

hyperkinesias

A

involuntary undesired movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are effects of basal ganglia damage

A

huntington’s disease
parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what pathways does the huntington’s disease affect

A

indirect pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

parkinson’s disease is characterized by

A

akinesia
bradykinesia
tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

akinesia

A

inability to initiate spontaneous movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

bradykinesia

A

slowness of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

parkinson’s disease affects what pathway

A

direct pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

why is the direct pathway affected in parkinsons

A

death of cell bodies in the substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

T/F Parkinsons results in the indirect pathway becoming overactive

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If the internal portion of the globus pallidus is overactive then this inhibits _____ and results in ____

A

thalamus
decreased motor activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what kind of neurons is lost in huntington’s disease and what kind of NT does it bind to

A

striatal neurons that bind to GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What neurons give rise to the indirect pathway from the striatum to Globus pallidus

A

striatal neurons that bind to GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In huntington’s diseases there is a loss of inhibitory input to ______ causing it to become more active resulting in _______

A

external globus pallidus
increased inhibition of the subthalamic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

T/F in huntington’s disease the subthalamic nucleus excites the internal section of GP , increasing output from GP, increasing the inhibition of the thalamus leading to less motor activity in the cortex

A

F,
it inhibits internal section of GP , reduces output from GP, lessens inhibition of thalamus, and leads to motor activity in the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the three theories of the basal ganglia

A
  1. basal ganglia facilitates the synchronization of cortical activity underlying the selection of appropriate series of movements while inhibiting inappropriate ones
  2. basal ganglia breaks down complex actions into chunks of individual actions into coordinated, stereotyped, adn habitual units of action
  3. basal ganglia aids the ability to execute movements with varying vigor, that is, over a range of speeds, amplitudes, and frequencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what are the two types of neurochemical methods

A

positron emission tomography

magnetic resonance spectroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what are the function of neurochemical methods (general)

A

provides information about chemical function related to brain/neuronal activity

analyze/measure neural activity while a person is doing a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what are the technical limitations of neurochemical methods (general)

A

limitations in gathering info on the compounds involved

concentration cannot be localized to a very precise location in the brain tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

how does a PET scan works

A

works by altering molecules to have a radioactive atom (isotope) and then introducing them into the blood supply to be carried to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how can you tell when an isotope binds to different chemicals in PET?

A

when there is a release in energy that can be seen/measured by the PET scanner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

T/F Patients take a radioactive tracer which binds to some cells giving a measure of NT function

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

T/F PET is used more often in studies to understand the bases of cognitive and emotional function than an fMRI

A

F, its not often used in these kind of studies if anything the fMRI is used for this because of its fine temporal resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what kind of information is provided by a PET scan

A

neurotransmitter function
distribution of NT binding
absolute levels of brain metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

in PET scan it is the gold standard for obtaining three things what are they

A

an absolute measure of regional cerebral blood flow (rCBF)

the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption

cerebral glucose metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

T/F MRI cant be tuned to specific atoms

A

F, they can be tuned to specific atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

in a magnetic resonance spectroscopy in order for the method to be detectable the concentration of the substance must be

A

quite high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

purpose of magnetic resonance spectroscopy

A

can be utilised to examine biologically active substances whose concentration in the brain are high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

N-acetylaspartate (NAA) when reduced is though to

A

index pathological processes acting upon neurons and glia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

MRS is limited in two ways, what are they

A
  1. spatial resolution is not very good ( worse than PET), provides only gross info on the location of these substances within the brain
  2. concentration of the substances must be quite high to be detectable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Functional magnetic Resonance Imaging function

A

measures brain blood flow in different regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is the technique thats most commonly used by cognitive neuroscience

A

BOLD (blood oxygen level dependent) signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what can we tell from a BOLD signal

A

based on the fact that oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood have different magnetic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How does oxygenated blood differ in magnetic properties from deoxygenated blood

A

oxygenated blood contains more Fe2+ so it reacts more with the blood scanner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

T/F deoxygenated blood makes the static magnetic field homogenous making it easier to detect a signal change

A

F, it makes the static magnetic field inhomogenous making it harder to detect signal change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

why is it harder to detect signal change in deoxygenated blood in terms of its magnetic properties

A

theres not alot of Fe2+ reaching with the magnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

T/F in a BOLD signal easier to detect deoxygenated blood than oxygenated blood

A

F, its the other way around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

when the area of the brain is active, the local _____ of oxygen-rich blood is _____ than the amount of oxygen that can be extracted by the brain tissue

A

increase
greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

decrease in deoxygenated blood results in

A

increased signal form that region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is a hemodynamic effect

A

occurs when you get the increase signal from the regional blood flow changes (slide 29)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

advantages of fMRI

A

MRI machines are widely available
noninvasive (no high energy radiation is involved)
multiple scans can run on a single individual
can be used on children and women of reproductive age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

fMRI provides a _____ brain activity over ____ than _____

A

measure
seconds
minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

T/F fMRI scan provide info only about average patterns of activation across groups of individuals and not specific individuals

A

F, it can also prived info for specific individual s

116
Q

task-based approaches

A

examines brain activity in fMRI during the performance of a task

117
Q

what kind of devices is required in task-based approaches and why

A

requires special non-metallic devices to convey information to the participants and to record their response

118
Q

T/F fMRIA studies typically examine the change in signal form on condition/task to another condition (baseline)

A

T

119
Q

classical models argue what about motor cortex organization

A

organized so that different subregions of motor cortex control action of specific portions of the body like fingers,arms, or legs

120
Q

what do alternative models propose about the motor cortex organization

A

may be organized with regards to actions relevant for survival like reaching and defensive action

121
Q

define motor plan

A

abstract representation of intended movement

122
Q

T/F supplementary motor complex and premotor areas are involved in creating a motor plan

A

T

123
Q

what does the brain do before movement commences

A

generates an entire plan and transmits it to the motor cortex

124
Q

coarticulation

A

differences in how the vocal muscles produce sounds

125
Q

what specific cortex comes up with the motor plan at the most abstract level ( sequencing critical pieces)

A

supplementary motor complex

126
Q

T/F primary motor regions execute the commands to move muscles

A

T

127
Q

What do premotor areas due in terms of the motor plan that has been established by the supplementary motor complex

A

codes for the types of actions that must occur to meet that motor plan

128
Q

role of supplementary motor complex

A

planning
preparing
initiating movements

129
Q

what are the three subregions of the supplementary motor complex

A

pre-supplementary motor area
supplementary eye field
supplementary motor area

130
Q

pre-SMA function

A

selects what actions should be implemented

131
Q

function of supplementary eye field

A

planning of eye movement

132
Q

function of supplementary motor area

A

plans movement of body parts other than the eyes

133
Q

T/F SMC important in planning the sequence and order in which actions occur

A

T

134
Q

Where does the SMC project to in the motor cortex

A

Ipsilateral and contralateral motor cortex

135
Q

how is SMC different from primary motor cortex

A

activation is predominantly observed contralateral in motor cortex rather than both as compared to SMC

136
Q

What are the subregions in premotor regions

A

dorsal premotor area
central premotor area

137
Q

function of dorsal premotor area

A

processes motor significance of sensory. cues

coding what type of motor action is chose or selected based on sensory info

138
Q

function of central premoto area (PMv)

A

involved in implementing motor programs and adjust them so that objects can be manipulated

139
Q

what kind of neurons are found in PMv and what do they do

A

mirror neurons
fire both when an action is performed and when another organism is performing the same action

140
Q

FEF function

A

involved in planning and controlling voluntary execution of eye movements

141
Q

function of anterior cingulate cortex

A

aids in planning and execution of movement

142
Q

what are the three divisions of the anterior cingulate cortex

A

caudal region
middle region
anterior region

143
Q

function of caudal region of the anterior cingulate cortex and what it connects

A

connects to primary motor cortex and parietal lobe

modulates or override actiity during simple motor tasks

144
Q

middle region of anterior cingulate cortex connection and function

A

connects to premotor cortex
modulate selection of movements

145
Q

anterior region of anterior cingulate cortex connection and function

A

connects to dorsolateral PFC

modulates goal directed info in mind and working memory

modifies more complex motor actions/active when high degree of conflict exists

146
Q

how is the anterior cingulate cortex organized

A

topographically

147
Q

Right inferior frontal cortex suggested to play a role in

A

interrupting/inhibiting motor actions

altering actions based on the envt rather than inhibiting

148
Q

how was the role of the right inferior frontal cortex assesed

A

via the stop-signal paradigm

149
Q

define the stop-signal paradigm

A

participant press a button whenever a stimulus appears

150
Q

greater damage to the right inferior frontal cortex is associated with what in the stop-signal paradigm

A

more difficulty on the stop signal task

151
Q

parietal lobe is sensitive to

A

propioceptive info
kinesthetic infor

152
Q

proprioceptive info is

A

type of sensory info received from internal snesors in the body

how things feel

153
Q

kinesthetic info is

A

info about actual movement of body parts

154
Q

T/F Propiceptive info can be sent forward to premotor and primary motor regions to enable selection of appropriate motor program, provide a feedback

A

T

155
Q

Superior regions of pariteal lobe funtction

A

acts as an interface between movement and sensory info, so limb/eyes can be guided correctly during motor acts

156
Q

damage to superior region of parietal lobe

A

inability to guide limbs in a well controlled manner

misreach

157
Q

inferior regions of parietal lobe function

A

ability to produc complex well learned motor acts

158
Q

damage to inferior parietal regions

A

leads to apraxia , unable to perform task/movements when asked to do so

159
Q

T/F apraxia is only limb related

A

F, it is also speech related

160
Q

four major symptoms of parkinsons disease

A

tremors
cogwheel rigidity ( stiff movement)
akinesia/bradykinesia
disturbances of posture

161
Q

T/F there is a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra in parkinson’s disease that affects the indirect pathway

A

F, it is the direct pathway

162
Q

in parkinson’s why is there a delay in symptom onset

A

the brain tries to compensate for the loss of dopamine in a number of ways

163
Q

how can the severity of rigidity and bradykinesia be directly predicted by the degree of dopamine depletion be measured

A

PET

164
Q

T/F Parkinson’s may also involve alterations in neural synchrony

A

T

165
Q

T/F there is a clear mechanism that produces tremor in parkinson’s

A

F, the mechanism is not clear

166
Q

what is the drug used to increase the level of DA in parkinson’s

A

L-DOPA

167
Q

L-DOPA side effects

A

alter person’s mood
leads to euphoria/depression
interfere with memory and ability to pay attention
can lead to impulse control disorders
hallucinations
delusions

168
Q

list experimental theories for parkinson’s disease

A

grafting into striatum of fetal tissue rich in DA-producing cells

deep brain stimulation

169
Q

define DBS ( deep brain stimulation)

A

electrodes are implanted into the brain to stimulate tissue

170
Q

T/F Huntington’s disease produces abnormal movements, cognitive deficits , and psychiatric symptoms

A

T

171
Q

What is the main motor symptom of huntington’s disease

A

chorea

172
Q

T/F dystonia is present in parkinson’s

A

F, its present in huntington’s

173
Q

define dystonia

A

slower movements caused by increased in muscle tone and contractions

174
Q

in huntington’s where is the most atrophy found

A

striatum

175
Q

What is tourette’s syndrome

A

rare disorder that manifests as vocal or motor tics, which are repetitive involuntary movements of a compulsive nature

176
Q

T/F tourette’s syndrome is manifested in adulthood before age 25

A

F, it is in childhood before 11 years

177
Q

what brain structures are dysfunction in tourette’s syndrome

A

basal ganglia and associated cortical-striatal-thalamic-cortical brain circuitry

178
Q

Define apraxia

A

inability to perform a skilled, sequential, purposeful movement that cannt be accounted for by the disruptions in more basic motor processes

179
Q

T/F apraxia disrupt the ability to pursue specific plans of motor action or to relate motor action to meaning

A

T

180
Q

what are the two types of apraxia ( Liepmann, 1905)

A

ideational apraxia
ideomotor apraxia

181
Q

define ideational apraxia

A

impaired ability to form an idea of intended movement

dont know how to use a specific object but can perform movement

182
Q

define ideomotor apraxia

A

disconnection between the idea of movement and its execution

you know what you use the object for but you cant execute motor movement

183
Q

oral (buccofacial) apraxia is

A

facial movements are disordered

184
Q

lesions that lead to apraxia are

A

typically observed after parietal or frontal lesions of the L hemisphere

185
Q

define praxis

A

conception
planning
and production of skilled movement

186
Q

T/F there is no agreement on the lesion location that leads to apraxic behavior

A

T

187
Q

constructional apraxia

A

items cant be correctly manipulated with regard to their spatial relations

188
Q

dressing apraxia

A

difficulty in manipulating and orienting both clothes and his/her limbs so that clothes can be put on correctly

189
Q

callosal apraxia

A

disconnection syndrome that is inability to perform a skilled motor act with the L hand in response to a verbal command

190
Q

retinal tissue is derived from

A

neural tissue during embryological development

191
Q

Retina contains

A

several layers of cells at the back of the eye that register light

192
Q

Retina function

A

begin initial steps of representing visual world by registering light

193
Q

list the two types of photoreceptor cells

A

rods and cones

194
Q

function of photoreceptors

A

take light energy and transform it into electrochemical energy used in the nervous system

195
Q

where does parallel processing beigin

A

in retina with division of the sensory receptors into rods and cones

196
Q

characteristics of rods

A

contain one pigment , rhodopsin

used in the dark to contrast light vs dark

located more in the periphery

feed into ganglion cells

197
Q

rhodopsin

A

sensitive to small amounts of light

198
Q

characteristics of cones

A

function in broad daylight

three types of cones R,B,G

sensitive to wavelengths of the light spectrum

packed more densely in center of fovea

visual acuity

199
Q

ganglion cells function

A

sends info from eye to the brain

200
Q

location of ganglion cells

A

in the retina

201
Q

where do the ganglion cells axons stretch toward to

A

the brain an d form the optic nerve

202
Q

What are the two main types of cells in ganglion cells

A

M cells
P cells

203
Q

M cells function

A

responsive to coarse pattern and detect rapid motion

204
Q

P cells function

A

preserve color information
much smaller

205
Q

T/F there are as many as 20 distinct types of ganglion cells which are distributed across the retina in mosaic patterns

A

T

206
Q

what are receptive fields

A

refers to that specific region of visual space to which a particular cell responds

relative to the position of the head and the eye

207
Q

T/F brain knows where light has struck by knowing which ganglion cells are excited

A

T

208
Q

receptive fields of the retinal ganglion cells have a

A

center surround structure

209
Q

Define on center off surround structure

A

where light falls at a particular spot its going to excite nearby ganglion cells if it falls outside that spot then it will inhibit

210
Q

what are the two destination for visual info that travels out of the eye along the optic nerve

A

superior colliculus
lateral geniculate nucleus

211
Q

The tectopulvinar pathway functin

A

allows people to orient quickly to important visual info - motion detection

212
Q

The geniculostriate pathway function and where axons terminate

A

enables perception of color and detail

axons terminate in the LGN

80% of ganglion cells go through here

213
Q

fMRI results are usually maps that show

A

which voxels are significantly more activated in one condition than another

214
Q

in an fMRI what color shows greater activation, what about mild activation

A

yellow orange = greater
blue = mild , distracting info

215
Q

define region of interest (ROI)

A

process of looking precisely at a specific region of the brain after whole brain analysis

216
Q
  1. Which scan is good at assessing glutamate, GABA and NAA?
A

MAGNETIC RESONANCE SPECTROSCOPY

217
Q

the assessment of which scan uses ROI

A

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging

218
Q

A multivoxel pattern analysis provides what type of information

A

provides info about level of activity and pattern across brain regions

219
Q

disadvantages of fMRI scans

A

objects cannot be distinguished by the degree of activation alone

220
Q

resting state approaches examine

A

patterns of activity over time while the brain is simply at rest

221
Q

advantages of resting state approaches

A

can be used with infants and elderly
short neuroimaging session

222
Q

Disadvantages of resting stat approaches

A

cant be used for functional task analyses
does not tell you about activation corresponding to anything involving a task

223
Q

define functional connectivity

A

looks at correlation between brain activation in different regions in the process of completing a task

224
Q

EEG are best at providing

A

temporal resolution of any measure of brain activity

225
Q

disadvantages of EEG

A

does not provide a good measure of exactly where in the brain activity is occuring

226
Q

gamma/delta waves tells us

A

person is sleeping

227
Q

alpha waves indicate

A

person is awake/relaxed state

228
Q

beta waves indicate

A

person is awake and engaged in cognitive activities

229
Q

define ERP

A

brain activity that is recorded in reference to a specific event

230
Q

exogenous ERP

A

occurs in response to an external event

231
Q

Endogenous ERP

A

occurs in response to an internal event

232
Q

what is MEG

A

records magnetic potentials produced by brain activity

233
Q

advantages of MEG

A

no interference
strength of magnetic field recorded outside of head can help provide some info about how deep within the brain the source is located

234
Q

disadvantages of MEG

A

very expensive because it requires a special magnetically shielded room to shield against earths magnetic field

235
Q

what are the two techniques for modulating brain activity

A

transcranial magnetic stimulation
transcranial direct current stimulation

236
Q

how does TMS work

A
  1. a pulsed magnetic field over the scalp induces electrical field
  2. induced electrical field alters membrane potential
  3. once pulse magnetic field is discontinued the neurons can return to their previous state
237
Q

why do we use TMS

A

increase neuronal activity or decrease it

238
Q

what method is most effective for cortical structure

A

transcranial magnetic stimulation

239
Q

how does tDCR work

A

weak electrical current runs through the scalp,skull, and braine between entrance and exit electrode

240
Q

how do we now whether neuronal activity is increased or decreased in tDCS

A

brain area stimulated below anodal electrode = increase activity
brain area stimulated below cathode = decrease activity

241
Q

what does TMS do

A

method used to either disrupt activity and create a virtual lesion or enhance activity

242
Q

tDCS compared to TMS

A
  1. stimulation is less intense making it safer but not as experimentally powerful
  2. less focused spatially, so not helpful in determining linkages between specific brain regions and behavior
243
Q

structures involved in the geniculostriate pathway

A

involves the LGN

244
Q

structures involved in the tectopulvinar pathway

A

superior colliculus and pulvinar nucleus of thalamus

245
Q

T/F tectopulvinar pathway is slow-acting

A

F, it is very fast acting

246
Q

what type of ganglion cells does the tectopulvinar pathway receives most of its input from

A

M (magnocellular) cells

247
Q

in the tectopulvinar pathway ____ info from the ____ is sent to _____

A

visual, retina, superior colliculus

248
Q

what regions can the superior colliculus sent its projections to and why

A

motor regions to control eye and head movements

249
Q

in the geniculostriate pathway after axons terminate in the LGN where do they project to

A

striate cortex/primary visual cortex (V1)

250
Q

T/F there are 6 main layers in the LGN that are stack on top of one another and folded into a knee-like shape

A

T

251
Q

hat kind of input does each LGN layer recieve

A

input from one eye but info is from the contralateral visual field

252
Q

What are the three section of layers found in LGN, their function what kind of cells are found there

A

Magnocellular layer - receives input from M cells for motion detection
Parvocellular layers- receive input from p cells and detect color and detail
Koniocellular layer - small cell layer in b/w main layers

253
Q

where can we find primary visual cortex ( AKA striate cortex/V1)

A

in the occipital lobe

254
Q

what is the primary visual cortex

A

first destination within the cortex that receives projections from the LGN

255
Q

define cortical magnification factor of striate cortex

A

the millimeters of cortical surface that are devoted to one degree angle in the visual world

256
Q

what structure is the cortical magnification much higher

A

fovea

257
Q

what are the cells that organize the striate cortex

A

simple, complex, and hyper-complex

258
Q

what are the receptive fields for the different cell types of the striate cortex

A

simple cell- responds to bars of different orientations
complex cells- respond to certain line orientation but less picky about where exactly line is located
hyper-complex- prefer lines of certain lengths

259
Q

why do we need binocular vision

A

to be able to perceive the depth perception

260
Q

define binocular disparity

A

refers to the fact that an image that falls on each retina is slightly different as the eyes are position in different locations

261
Q

cells in layer 4 of striate cortex are ______ but connect with cells in other striate layers in ways that allow ____________ ___ ________ from both eyes

A

monocular
convergence of information

262
Q

cerebral achromatopsia is caused

A

POSTERIOR VENTRAL CORTEX

263
Q

what is cerebral achromatopsia

A

a person can not perceive color only see shades of gray

264
Q

Area V4 cell functions

A

sensitive to color that is able to allow someone to perceive color

265
Q

what is blindsight

A

people have no conscious experience of seeing ( damage to striate cortex)

266
Q

define cortical blindness

A

blindness of cortical origin and not a problem in the eye or optic nerve, doesn’t always cause complete blindness

267
Q

what can be inferred from cortical blindess

A

primary visual cortex is necessary for conscious awareness of the world

268
Q

what are the two main routes where info travels when it leaves the striate cortex

A

ventral and dorsal stream

269
Q

ventral stream

A

what path, identifies objects

270
Q

dorsal stream

A

where path , represent spatial locations of objects

271
Q

what are differen sensory features in audtion

A

pitch , loudness, and time of sounds

272
Q

what structure is found within the inner ear

A

cochlea

273
Q

function of cochlea

A

contains cells that translate sound energy into neural impulses

274
Q

describe the auditory pathway from cochlea to cortex ( include it for both ears)

A

spiral ganglion –> dorsal cochlear nucleus —> inferior colliculus –> MGN —> auditory cortex

spiral ganglion –> ventral cochlear nucleus —> superior olivary –> lateral lemniscus –> inferior colliculus —> MGN —> auditory cortex

275
Q
A
275
Q

what are coincidence detectors

A

cells that take into account the different arrival times of a sound at the L and R ears

276
Q

define tuning curve

A

shows cells snesitivity across different sound frequencies

277
Q

T/F sound and sight are not associated with eachotehr

A

F, the must be associated with each other

278
Q

location of auditory cortex

A

beneath the sylvian fissure in the temporal lobe

279
Q

how does the coincidence detector relate to the delay line method

A

delay line method ensures that inputs from different sources are temporally coordinated, allowing coincidence detectors to operate effectively in tasks requiring precise temporal integration of sensory information.

280
Q

Another name for V1, Brodmann area 17 and striate cortex

A

Primary visual cortex

281
Q

feedback connections to the LGN

A

allow cortex to actively influence input that it will receive from LGN, direct no crossing over

282
Q

if someone is using a hairbrush as a telephone they are showing signs of:

a. ideational apraxia
b. callosal apraxia
c. ideomotor apraxia
d. dressing apraxia

A

A

explanation:
there’s an object, and they’re able to use the object. But They’re using it for the wrong purpose, because they don’t have the idea behind what the object is used for.

283
Q

how is the striate cortex different from LGN

A

V1 processes info from both eyes

LGN processes info from one eye ( separates them )

284
Q

area V2, V3, V4 are mapped

A

retinotopically ( b/c image stays as a whole )

PBSI 350 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions