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Populations Course > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are some types of STIs?

A

Chlamydia, Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Trichomoniasis, Hep B, Herpes, HIV, HPV

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2
Q

What are the treatable STIs?

A

Chlamydia, Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Trichomoniasis

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3
Q

What are the untreatable STIs?

A

Hep B, Herpes, HIV, HPV

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4
Q

What are some STI prevention measures?

A
  • Abstinence
  • Vaccines – Hep B and HPV
  • Single or reduced sexual partners
  • Use of condoms or contact contraceptives
  • Screenings or testing for STI (secondary prevention)
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5
Q

What are the levels in which health facilities report certain infectious diseases?

A

Local, State, Federal, International

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6
Q

What infectious diseases does LOCAL Health Departments report?

A
  • STIs
  • Foodborne illness
  • Vector-borne (west nile or zika virus)
  • local outbreaks of mumps or pertussis
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7
Q

What infectious diseases does STATE Health Departments report?

A

Notifiable diseases from local authorities include:
- tuberculosis
- HIV/AIDS
- Hepatitis
- Influenza/ COVID-19 trends

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8
Q

What infectious diseases does the CDC (FEDERAL) Health Departments report?

A

diseases with a potential for widespread outbreaks include:
- COVID-19
- ebola or zika virus
- national concern (polio)

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9
Q

What infectious diseases does INTERNATIONAL Health Departments report?

A

reported to WHO if they have global significance
- pandemic diseases (COVID-19)
- public health emergency (Ebola)
- global eradication (Polio)

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10
Q

What is a community disaster preparedness plan?

A

action plans developed in anticipation of disaster scenarios, providing a framework for response to emergency situations.

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11
Q

What are the disaster phases?

A
  • Preimpact: before disaster
  • Impact: during disaster
  • Postimpact: after disaster
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12
Q

What are interventions for the Pre-Impact phase of a disaster?

A

Mitigation: take measures to limit damage, disability, and loss of life
- disaster planning
- emergency planning
- identification of hazards
- assessment of risk/vulnerability

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13
Q

What are interventions for the Impact phase of a disaster?

A

Response: implementation of disaster plan; provide emergency care; restore communication and transportation
Triaging: START Model (0,1,2,3)

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14
Q

What are interventions for the Post- Impact phase of a disaster?

A

Following disaster needs: stress debriefing, mental health services, distribution of emergency supplies (food, water, medication)
Recovery: stabilization; return to normal status
Evaluation: learn from the past; prepare for the future

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15
Q

What are the types of disasters?

A
  • Natural: earthquakes, floods, hurricanes
  • Terrorism: criminal acts against civilians to cause harm or death to get what the want (gov to do or abstain from something)
  • Accidental: not deliberate (truck with chemical on the highway spills over)
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16
Q

What is the Bioterrorism event Anthrax?

A
  • from cattle and sheep
  • transmitted by: direct contact with spores, inhalation, ingestion of undercooked meat of infected
  • S&S: fever, fatigue, body aches, cough, chest pain, nausea, bloody diarrhea
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17
Q

What is the Bioterrorism event Botulism?

A
  • from soil and contaminated food
  • transmitted by: food ingestion of toxin (infant = soil ingestion), wound infection
  • S&S: difficulty swallowing, speaking, double or blurred vision, dilated pupils, constipation (infant botulism), descending flaccid paralysis
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18
Q

What is the Bioterrorism event Plague?

A
  • from rodents and fleas
  • transmitted by: pneumonic, bubonic (flea bite), septicemic (multiplication of bacteria in blood)
  • S&S:
    - Pneumonic: respiratory shock
    - Bubonic: tender, swollen lymph glands (buboes)
    - Septicemic: bacteremia, sepsis
    Treat with antibiotics
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19
Q

What is the Bioterrorism event Smallpox?

A
  • from infected bodily fluids
  • transmitted by: person or aerosol.
  • S&S: influenza-like, high fever, body aches, early rash, raised bumps (most contagious)
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20
Q

What is the Bioterrorism event Tularemia?

A
  • rabbit fever
  • transmitted by: cutaneous, inhalation, ingestion
  • S&S: Fever, chills, body aches, dry cough, joint pain, ulcers on skin and mouth
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21
Q

What is the Bioterrorism event Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers?

A
  • ebola, marburg, etc.
  • transmitted by: field rodents, arthropod ticks
  • Person-to-person
  • S&S: high fever, bloody diarrhea, mucous membrane hemorrhage, shock, circulatory collapse
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22
Q

How do you detect a Bioterrorism event?

A

early detection = difficult
First detection may come from routine surveillance.
Clues of a bioterrorism attack:
- Single case of uncommon agent
- high mortality with a common disease
- atypical disease transmission
- unusual pattern of death/illness

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23
Q

What are the responsibilities of a nurse in disasters and management?

A
  • Clinical assessment and triage
  • Providing health education
  • Point-of-distribution plans (food, water, medicine)
  • Documentation in a disaster
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24
Q

What are the classification of bioterrorism agents?

A
  • Category A: greatest public risk because they spread easily, high mortality, require special training response
    Anthrax, Botulism, Plague, Smallpox, Tularemia, Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers
  • Category B: moderately easy to spread, moderate morbidity/mortality
    Typhus. Brucellosis, Salmonella, E.coli
  • Category C: emerging pathogens that the general public lacks immunity, for the future and have potential for high morbidity/mortality
    Nipah virus, SARS and corona viruses, influenza
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25
Q

What is root cause analysis?

A

A process for understanding and solving a problem with the goal of determining what happened, why it happened, and what can be done to prevent its recurrence

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26
Q

What are the standards of practice of an occupational nurse?

A
  • ADPIE
  • Resource management
  • Enhance professional growth
  • Collaboration with the client
  • Research
  • Uses an ethical framework
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27
Q

What are the roles and responsibilities of the occupational health nurse?

A
  • Case manager, Educator, Consultant
  • Counseling and crisis management, risk reduction, legal compliance, workplace hazard detection
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28
Q

What are the OHN competency levels?

A

Novice, Advanced Beginner, Competent, Proficient, Expert

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29
Q

What are the levels of OHN practice?

A
  • individual/family
  • community
  • system
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30
Q

What is the novice OHN competency level?

A

A beginner with no experience in the situations in which they are expected to perform
Lacks confidence to demonstrate safe practice and needs cues

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31
Q

What is the advanced beginner OHN competency level?

A

Demonstrates acceptable performance because the nurse has had prior experience in actual situation
Skillful in parts of the practice area

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32
Q

What is the Competent OHN competency level?

A

A confident nurse and a master with an ability to cope with specific situations

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33
Q

What is the proficient OHN competency level?

A

A nurse with the ability to perceive client situations based on experience, with focus on relevant based aspects of the situation.
The nurse can predict expected events in certain situations and recognized that protocols must be altered at times to meet the needs of the client

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34
Q

What is the expert OHN competency level?

A

A nurse having extensive experience with a broad knowledge base that enables one to grasp quickly and initiate action
Leadership in policy-making, function in upper executive roles

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35
Q

What are some work-related and environmental hazards?

A
  • Biological: infectious agents, poisonous plants, insects, snakes
  • Chemical: drug and toxins, aerosols, cleaning solutions
  • Physical: electric and magnetic fields, UV radiation, falls, fires
  • Psychosocial: sexual harassment, stress, violence, bodily exertion
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36
Q

What are the types of occupational injuries and illnesses?

A
  • Sprains, strains, tears
  • Cuts, lacerations, punctures
  • Bruises, contusions
  • Fractures
  • Multiple traumatic injuries
  • Burns
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Amputations
  • Tendonitis
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37
Q

What occupational injury has the highest incidence rate?

A

sprains, strains, and tears

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38
Q

What is the root cause analysis process for occupational injury/issue?

A
  • define the problem (characteristics)
  • collect data
  • identify possible causal factors
  • identify the root cause
  • implement solutions
  • evaluate the outcome
39
Q

What is FMLA?

A

Family and Medical Leave Act
An employee is eligible to exercise his or her right after working a minimum of 12 months and at least 1,250 hours (about 1 month 3 weeks)
In the case of serious illness affecting themselves or family members, employees can leave work for up to 12 weeks (about 3 months) and return to work without penalty

40
Q

What is OSHA?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration
The federal agency that sets exposure standards and is responsible for enforcement of safety and health legislation

41
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

Health Insurance Probability and Accountability Act
A mandate made to enforce that all medical information be held in confidence

42
Q

What is epidemiologic workplace surveillance?

A

The need to carefully monitor both the employee and the work environment to detect any health risk
Workplace health surveillance includes physical examination and the tracking of injuries, illness, hazards, and exposure

43
Q

How do you assess contaminants in the environment?

A

Through Risk assessment:
a process to determine the likelihood or probability that adverse effects such as illness or disease will occur in a group of people because of exposure to an environment contaminate
risk = hazard +exposure

44
Q

What are exposure pathways and what do they consist of?

A

process by which someone is exposed to a contaminate that originates from a specific source
- Source of contaminant
- Transport Mechanism
- Point of exposure (home, food, fumes)
- Route of exposure (ingestion, inhalation, or skin contact)
- receptor population

45
Q

What are the focuses of an assessment in a environment of a specifc community?

A
  • Access to healthy housing
  • Sanitation and waste removal
  • Abandoned buildings, vacant lots, or facilities
  • Access to health and safe foods
  • Location of schools, public facilities, public transportation, and entertainment
  • Safety and crime
  • Access to healthcare
  • Cultural practices and traditions
46
Q

What is environmental epidemiology?

A

A field of public health science that focuses on the incidence and prevalence of disease or illness in a population
Helps determine whether the environment is affecting people’s health.

47
Q

What are important aspects of a child’s health pertaining to the environment?

A
  • vulnerability (rapid development, eat/drink more for their body size, breathing zone closer to the ground, less able to breakdown contaminants, behaviors put them at risk)
  • Lead Poisoning #1
48
Q

What are some global environmental health challenges?

A
  • clean water and sanitation
  • air quality
  • chemical and contaminant exposure (limited protection)
  • Climate change (natural disaster)
49
Q

What are interventions that make communities healthier?

A
  • prioritize health determinants
  • health education
  • improve access to health care
  • support healthy lifestyles
  • maintain sustainability
50
Q

What is biomonitoring?

A

clinical tests that determine whether someone has been exposed through a level
(blood or urine test)

51
Q

What is environmental health?

A

a branch of public health science that focuses on how the environment influences human health

52
Q

What is the EPA?

A

Environmental Protection Agency:
tasked with repairing environmental damage and establishing new criteria for a cleaner environment
Superfund – environmental program established to address abandoned hazardous waste sites; allows the EPA to clean sites

53
Q

What factors contribute to the prevalence to violence in the U.S. communities?

A

Acceptability of violence in American culture
Racism
Classism
Sexism
Availability and accessibility of firearms
Lack of accountability

54
Q

What does school violence consist of?

A

Homicide is the second leading cause of death among youths
(1-2% occur on school grounds or on the way to and from school)
15.5% of all public schools experienced one or more serious violent crimes (rape, sexual assault, physical attack with a weapon, robbery, etc.)
School nurses play a pivotal role in recognizing both victims and perpetrators.
They can promote primary prevention and intervention.

55
Q

What are some important aspects to consider for mandatory reporting of elder abuse?

A

Talk with the adult victim about the possibility of filing a mandatory report.
Determine how the perpetrator may respond to a report being filed.
Determine whether it will be safe to inform the children about the report.
Identify resources available to victim (family, friends, clergy, coworkers).
Address safety planning with the nonoffending victim.
Ask about the perpetrator’s behaviors

56
Q

Define child maltreatment

A

Any recent act, or failure to act, on the part of a parent or caretaker which results in death, serious physical or emotional harm, sexual abuse, or exploitation; or
An act or failure to act which presents an imminent risk of serious harm

57
Q

What are the S&S of child maltreatment?

A
  • Physical abuse: unexplained/inconsistent injuries and a pattern
  • Emotional abuse: behavior changes, anxiety, nightmares
  • Sexual abuse: inappropriate knowledge, pain/itching in genital area
  • Neglect: poor hygiene, malnutrition
58
Q

What is true about abuse in people with disabilities?

A

Those who are dependent on others or are developmentally disabled are abused the most

59
Q

What is IPV?

A

Intimate Partner Violence
Pattern of assaultive and coercive behaviors by someone who is, was, or wishes to be in an intimate relationship with another person and wants control over the other

60
Q

What are the health consequences of exposure to IPV in children?

A

physical, intellectual, emotional, and behavioral problems
Sleeper effect: phenomenon when health consequences and behavioral issues may not become prominent in a child until long after the initial exposure to IPV

61
Q

What is the model of care for victims of intentional crimes?

A
  • Safety and Crisis intervention
  • Medical care and Forensic examination
  • Mental health services
  • Legalities
  • Develop a safety plan for potential abuse
  • Education
    Model programs (ex. C.A.R.E Clinic at Brigham and Women’s Hospital in Boston) seek to create innovative approaches to healthcare delivery that mitigate the health consequences cause by violence, trauma, and abuse
62
Q

How is IPV a major women’s health problem, specifically with it’s impact on pregnancy?

A

Depression before, during, and after birth has been strongly correlated with IPV
Pregnant women who face IPV are at increased risk of giving birth to infants of reduced weight
IPV victims more likely to have: Inconsistent use of birth control, Delayed entry into prenatal care
Reproductive coercion: abusers pressuring partners to get pregnant and directly interfering with contraception

63
Q

What are the screening and intervention measures for IPV?

A

Ask:
- are you currently, or have experienced harm/abuse of any kind in your relationship?
- any sexual activity you did not want?
- has your current partner ever physically hurt you?
- what happens when you and your partner disagree?
- do you ever feel scared/afraid?
- are you in a safe or unsafe situation?
Nurses should not try to “rescue” clients, they should try and empower clients to make informed decisions

64
Q

What does the risk assessment in IPV consist of?

A
  • individual: low income, self esteem, age, alcohol/drug use, antisocial/personality traits, history of abuse, insecurity, desire for power
  • relationship: economic stress, marital conflicts, dominance, unhealthy family interactions
  • community: neighbors doing nothing about the violence
  • societal: traditional gender roles
65
Q

What is a lethality assessment?

A

assessment that identifies high risk factorsof IPV
- Is there a gun in the house?
- Is the woman’s partner unemployed?
- What is the worst thing the partner has ever done to the victim?
- Does the victim feel that the partner is capable of hurting her? Of carrying out his threats?
- Has the woman’s partner ever been arrested?
- Is the woman’s partner using drugs? Drinking excessively?

66
Q

What is the role of healthcare providers in violence and abuse?

A
  • education must be persistent and constant
  • identify signs of abuse
  • safe environment
  • screening, assessment, documentation
  • confidentiality and informed consent
  • advocacy
67
Q

Explain the three levels of prevention of IPV

A

Primary: education that targets potential victims and perpetrators
Secondary: screening and inquiry with high risk populations
Tertiary: caring for those affected

68
Q

What are the Healthy People 2020 goals to decrease IPV?

A

Reduce:
- Fatal and nonfatal injuries
- Fatal and nonfatal traumatic brain injuries
- Homicides
- Firearm injuries
- Physical and sexual assaults
Because they can lead to: premature death, disability, lost productivity, mental illness

69
Q

What is the IPV safety plan?

A

involves nurse suggestions and client choices
Components:
- Crisis/disaster plan
- A place to go (don’t go near sharp objects, go to a window or door)
- How to get there
- Other considerations (e.g., the relationship of the victim and abuser).

70
Q

What are the violence risk factors for gun-related homicides?

A

Low income
Discrimination
Lack of education
Lack of employment opportunities

71
Q

What is an infectious disease?

A

Presence and replication of an infectious agent in the tissues of a host, with manifestation of signs and symptoms. An infectious disease may not be contagious or communicable.

72
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

aka contagious, through a portal of exit from the infected person (or animal) with a means of transmission, and a portal of entry to a susceptible host.

73
Q

What is the main difference between infectious and communicable disease?

A

in order for a disease/agent to be contagious the means of transmission needs to be there with a portal of exit/entry for the agent to travel and this is not needed for a infectious disease

74
Q

What are healthcare-associated infections?

A

Originate in a healthcare facility
Majority are: UTIs, Surgical Site infections, bloodstream infections, and pneumonia
Outbreaks of respiratory and gastrointestinal infections are common

75
Q

What is public health surveillance?

A

A continual dynamic method for gathering data about the health of the general public for the purpose of primary prevention of illness through both state and federal levels.
- State reporting infectious disease: providers-> state health departments -> CDC
- Federal = CDC maintains systems to analyze data for trends (FoodNet)

76
Q

What are Foodborne diseases?

A

Raw and undercooked foods of animal origin are the most likely to be contaminated
Diseases = Norovirus, Campylobacter, Listeria Monocytogenes, Salmonella and Escherichia Coli O157:H7

77
Q

What are Waterborne diseases?

A

Associated with drinking/portable water and with recreational water
Legionella (majority of cases), Cryptosporidium, E. coli

78
Q

What are the symptoms, treatment, and prevention of Norovirus?

A

common cause of acute infectious gastroenteritis, spread through fecal-oral route
Symptoms: causes more vomiting than diarrhea, fluid volume depletion
Treatment: good handwashing, give oral hydrating solutions, immediate disinfection, isolation until 72 hours after symptom free
Prevention: Handwashing and disinfection, and avoidance of contaminats

79
Q

What are the symptoms, treatment, and prevention of Campylobacter?

A

cause of diarrheal illness (traveler’s diarrhea), Consumption of contaminated poultry or undercooked meats
Symptoms: nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, headache, and muscle pain
Treatment: antidiarrheal medications (loperamide), antibiotics, drink fluids or oral rehydration solutions and wash hands thoroughly
Prevention: Handwashing and disinfection, and avoidance of contaminants

80
Q

What are the symptoms, treatment, and prevention of Listeria Monocytogenes?

A

causes listeriosis (uncommon but fatal disease), primarily affects older adults, pregnant women, newborns and weakened immune systems who eat smoked seafood.
Symptoms (can cause): flu-like symptoms, miscarriage, stillbirth, severe illness/death in newborns
Treatment: not specified
Prevention: recommendations for safe food preparation, consumption and storage

81
Q

What are the symptoms, treatment, and prevention of Salmonella?

A

transmitted by contaminated food and water, or contact with infected animals and reptiles
Symptoms: diarrhea, fever, and abdominal cramps
Treatment: majority recover without treatment but may need dehydration and electrolyte imbalance treatment
Prevention: Handwashing and disinfection, and avoidance of contaminats

82
Q

What are the symptoms, treatment, and prevention of Escherichia Coli O157:H7?

A

deadly form of E.coli, can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome and renal failure, associated with commercially packaged foods and fresh produce
Symptoms: severe abdominal cramps, bloody and nonblood diarrhea, and vomiting
Treatment: not specified but symptoms resolve in 7-10 days
Prevention: Handwashing and disinfection, and avoidance of contaminants

83
Q

What does a water-associated disease outbreak consist of?

A

leading causes to outbreak = legionella (plumbing) and untreated ground water
Criteria to be an outbreak:
- 2+ people must be linked by time, location of exposure to water, and illness
- evidence must show recreational water or compounds of water is in the air surrounding the water ( sewage or septic contamination)

84
Q

In the history of school nursing what was improved over time?

A
  • identify children with problems
  • increase students’ access to both preventive and curative health services
    The strongest influence on school nursing practice -> Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975 (Public Law 94-142): Children who had previously been unable to attend school because of chronic or complex medical issues were now entitled to public education.
    School nurses were now providing more complex care for conditions such as seizure disorders, asthma, cardiac conditions, cystic fibrosis, quadriplegia, and life-threatening allergies.
85
Q

What is the Education for All Handicapped Children Act?

A

It had the strongest influence on school nursing practice when enacted in 1975 where students with chronic or complex issues could now attend public schools due to the more complex care that was being provided by the nurse for these specific conditions.

86
Q

What is school health’s scope of services?

A

Mental health services
Assessment and testing
Personal aide services
Speech, occupational, physical and other therapies
First aid
Treatment services
Developmental assessments
Case management
Transportation
Promote health, safety, academic success
Family services

87
Q

What are common problems in schools?

A
  • Problems that affect a child’s learning: vision impairment, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and scoliosis
  • Drugs and alcohol
  • Smoking
  • Sexual behavior and teenage pregnancy
  • Sexually transmitted infections
  • Nutrition
  • Violence
88
Q

What is EPSDT?

A

Early Periodic Screening, Diagnosis, and Treatment

Program mandated by a federal law passed in 1969 that required that children and adolescents younger than 21 have access to periodic screenings.

89
Q

What is ADA?

A

Americans with Disabilities Act

Wide-ranging federal legislation enacted in 1990 that is intended to make American society more accessible to people with disabilities.

90
Q

What is IDEA?

A

Individuals with Disabilities Education Act

Designed to protect the rights of students with disabilities by ensuring that everyone receives a free appropriate public education, regardless of ability.

91
Q

What is YRBSS? (what risks does it screen for?)

A

Youth Risk Behavior Surveillance Survey

Biannual report of the common risk behaviors that influence the health of youth in the United States.
Risks: unintentional injuries, sexual behaviors, alcohol use

92
Q

What is the school health index?

A

An online self-assessment and planning tool that schools can use to focus on how schools can promote physical activity, healthy eating, and adoption of a tobacco-free lifestyle, and a wide range of safety-related behaviors in an attempt to counter common risk behaviors.

93
Q

What is the role of a school nurse?

A

School nurse must have:
- Skills in health assessment
- Screening (lice)
- Health promotion, health education, and child health advocacy
- Emergency preparedness

94
Q

What is the future of school health?

A

The Whole School, Whole Community, Whole Child model -> a blueprint for policy and practice for the 21st-century school nurse.
The future of school nursing is providing a prevention framework that links the community and the school.

Populations Course (3 decks)

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