Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

time from birth to the return of normal pre-pregnancy state

A

puerperium

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2
Q

the uterus in non-palpable by __ weeks PP

A

2

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3
Q

the uterus returns to pre-pregnancy state by ____ weeks

A

6

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4
Q

5 causes of subinvolution

A

retained placenta
infection
uterine fibroids
bladder retention
uterine over-distention

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5
Q

breastfeeding lowers _____ so you will not ovulate for 6 months

A

estrogen

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6
Q

vaginal ruggae start to appear after ___ weeks PP

A

3

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7
Q

fluid expressed in the 1st 72 hours from breasts

A

colostrum

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8
Q

the maternal CO is high for the 1st ____ hours PP

A

48

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9
Q

systemic vascular circulation is elevated for ___ weeks PP

A

12

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10
Q

after birth the mother has reduced ______ blood flow

A

pulmonary

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11
Q

hormones that drop after delivery of placenta

A

estrogen and progesterone

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12
Q

hormone that stays high after delivery for breastfeeding

A

prolactin

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13
Q

dark pigmentation of the face

A

chloasma

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14
Q

headaches are common for ____ week PP

A

1

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15
Q

2 diseases that can flare up because of the rebound of the immune system PP

A

multiple sclerosis
lupus

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16
Q

RhoGam is given ___ weeks gestation and ____ after delivery

A

28, 72

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17
Q

vaginal delivery length if stay

A

48 hours

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18
Q

c-section length of stay

A

3-4 days

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19
Q

you can start taking oral BC at ___ weeks if not breast feeding

A

6

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20
Q

you can get an IUD at __ weeks PP

A

6

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21
Q

it is recommended to not get pregnant for __ months PP

A

18

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22
Q

follow up with OBGYN in __ week PP if there was complications

A

1

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23
Q

follow up with OBGYN __ weeks PP after c-section

A

2

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24
Q

follow up with OBGYN __ weeks PP after vaginal delivery

A

6

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25
3 things that make the mother high risk for urinary retention
birth trauma relaxation of musculature constipation
26
meds for hemorrhoids
proctofoam
27
meds for cracked nipples
Lanolin
28
non-lactating mother calorie goal
1800-2000
29
lactating mother calorie goal
1800-2000 + 250-500
30
excessive fatigue puts the mother at risk for _______ ______
postpartum depression
31
if the mother HGB or HCT is high they are at risk for ______or ______
weakness or dizziness
32
PP blues peak around day ___ and are usually gone around day ___
5, 10
33
POST
pain in chest obstructed breathing or SOB seizures thoughts of hurting yourself or others
34
BIRTH
bleeding: soaking through pad in 1 hr or huge clots incision that is not healed red or swollen leg temperature of 100.4F or higher headache that did not get better even after medication and with blurry vision
35
when parent comes to love infant and infant comes to love parent
attachment
36
when the infants behaviors correspnds or illicits actions by the mother
mutuality
37
occurs through mutually satisfying experiences
bonding
38
2 things that play a large role in attachment and bonding
proximity and interaction
39
use of eye contact, touching, talking to, and exploring to become attached to infant
acquitance
40
when you relate the infant to a family member
claiming
41
when the infant moves in response to human speech
entrainment
42
infant intune with mother's heart rate and it soothes the baby
biorhythmicity
43
when the infants body or sounds provide the mother with cues and the mother responds to them
reciprocity
44
fit between infant cues and maternal response
synchrony
45
early PPH
first 24 hours
46
late PPH
24 hours to 12 weeks
47
_____ ____ has the greatest risk for PPH within the 1st hour
uterine atony
48
causes of PPH
uterine atony retain POC placental complications lacerations/hematomas subinvolution coagulopathies
49
4 components of the CPSWH care bundle for PPH
readiness recognition response reporting
50
oxytocin side effects
N/V water intoxication
51
misoprostol (cytotec) side effects
headache N/V diarrhea fever chills
52
methergine side effects
HTN hypotension N/V headache
53
methergine contraindications
hypertension preeclampsia CV disease
54
do not give methergine if BP is over _____
140/90
55
hemabate side effects
headache N/V diarrhea fever chills tachycardia HTN
56
Hemabate contraindications
asthma HTN cardiac/pulmonary/liver disease
57
Prostin E2 side effects
headache N/V diarrhea fever chills
58
Prostin E2 contraindication
hypotension
59
TXA side effects
hypotension visual problems N/V
60
TXA nursing considerations
cautious with renal problems monitor hemodynamics assess for thromboembolic events
61
when placenta attaches too deeply into uterine wall
placenta accreta
62
when placenta attaches into uterine muscles
placenta increta
63
when placenta goes through uterine wall and muscle completely - sometimes into nearby organs
placenta percreta
64
weight of uterus right after delivery
1000-2000g
65
weight if uterus 7 days after delivery
500g
66
medication given for subinvolution
methergine
67
coagulopathies
idiopathic or immune thrombocytopenia von willebrand disease
68
acute coagulation disorders
placental abruption amniotic fluid embolism preeclampsia with severe features HELLP syndrome
69
3 medications to give with coagulopathies
TXA recombinant factor VII fibrinogen concentrate
70
if they have a history of VTE they should be on _____ SQ prior to birth and it should be stopped __ hours prior to birth
heparin, 12
71
if the mother has a PE they need to be on SQ heparin for ___ months PP
6
72
highest incidents of endometritis
PROM and c-sections
73
max score of edinburgh scale
30
74
score less than ____ on edinburgh scale indicated PPD
12
75
only FDA approved drug for PPD
zulressa
76
PP psychosis is mostly associated with ______
bipolar
77
after the 1st breathe the change in pulmonary pressure helps to close the ______ ______
ductus arteriosus
78
the ductus arteriosus closes all the way during the 1st ____ hours of life
24
79
after birth the pressure in the left atrium _____ and the pressure in the right atrium ______ and it causes the closing of the _____ ____
increases, decreases, foramen ovale
80
3 things cold stress can lead to
RDS, hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis
81
temperature the baby is at when they start metabolizing brown fat
35 or 95
82
hot babies are at a higher risk for ______
seizures
83
time period of 1st period of reactivity
30 minutes after birth
84
the NB HR increases to ___ to ____ during the 1st period of reactivity
160-180
85
the 1st period of reactivity is followed by ___ to ____ minutes of unresponsiveness and sleepiness
60 to 100
86
the periods of reactivity are mediated by the _______ nervous system
sympathetic
87
the 2nd period of reactivity is _____ minutes to _____ hours
20 several
88
when moro reflex dissapears
6 months
89
when palmar reflex disappears
3-4 months
90
when plantar reflex disappears
8 months
91
when rooting reflex disappears
3-4 months
92
when babinksi reflex disappears
1 year
93
when tonic neck reflex disappears
3-4 months
94
when stepping reflex disappears
3-4 months
95
when crawling reflex disappears
6 weeks
96
the mucosal barrier in the GI system is not present until ___ to ___ months
4 to 6
97
the intestinal flora is not established until the first ____ of life
week
98
the intestinal flora is needed to synthesize vitamin ____ and ______ acid
K, folic
99
NB stomach on day 1 can hold ____ mL and it can hold ___mL on day 3
10, 30
100
iron storage begins in utero and when they are born they have enough iron stores to last __ months
4
101
coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver and need vitamin ___ to be activated
K
102
antigens from the placenta that protect the newborn for up to 3 months
IgG
103
by the 8th week of life the NB can start producing ____ antigens and they will reavh their adult level by age 2
IgM
104
antigen babies get from breast milk
IgA
105
caput succedaneum disappears in __ to ___ days
3 to 4
106
cephalohematoma takes ___ to __ weeks to resolce
2-8
107
s/s of subgleal heamtoma
tachycardia pallor increased head circumference
108
pilonidal dimple with nevus pilosis is associated with _____ _____
spina bifida
109
2 tests that assess for hip dysplasia
barlow and ortoloni
110
the siman line or singular palmar crease is associated with _____ ______
down syndrome
111
preterm
less than 37 weeks
112
late term
37-38 weeks
113
term
40 weeks
114
post term
after 41 weeks
115
score on apgar that indicates the neonate is in severe distress - immediate resuscitation
0-3
116
apgar score that means the neonate is having moderate difficulty and needs interventions
4-6
117
if the APGAR score is less than ___ at 1 minute you must repeat every 5 minutes for 20 minutes
7
118
1st sign of respiraotry distress syndrome
tachypnea
119
signs of respiratory distress 1-2 hours after birth that resolves in 48-72 hours
transient tachypnea of newborn
120
in transient tachypnea of NB the RR is over ____
100
121
step 1 of NB resuscitation
dry and stimulate
122
if the NB HR is below ____ you do PPV for 15 seconds
100
123
if the NB HR is below ____ you do chest compressions
60
124
score used to determine gestational age
new ballard score
125
3 benefits to circumcision
reduces UTIs, penile cancer, STIs
126
3 pain management for circumcisions
dorsal penile nerve block EMLA local anesthesia sucking on oral sucrose
127
recommended that infants exclusively breast feed for ___ months
6
128
contraindications for breastfeeding
HIV active TB medications
129
4 things breast feeding lowers the risk for in babies
Type 1 diabetes obesity SIDS asthma
130
3 things that are lowered risk in mothers because they breast feed
HTN breast/ovarian cancer type 2 diabetes
131
hormone that stretches milk ducts and helps them create side branches to carry more milk
estrogen
132
hormone that promotes the production of progesterone and prepares glands for milk production
prolactin
133
hormone that increases the number and size of lobules in preparation for breastfeeding
134
breastfeeding feeds should be every __ to ___ hours and formula feeds can be every __ to __ hours
2-4 3-4
135
milk can stay in the fridge for ___ days, the freezer for ___ months, and ____ hours after being thawed
4, 6, 24
136
medication to help decrease engorgment
ibuprofen
137
2 things that can help sore and cracked nipple
vitamin E and colostrum
138
newborn 1-3 months old should have ____ calories/kg/day
110
139
newborns 3-6 months should have ____ caloires/kg.day
100
140
breastmilk and formula have ____ calories per ounce
20
141
NB should have ____ grams/kg/day of protein
2.25
142
sedentary mothers calorie intake
1800-2000
143
moderatly active mothers calorie intake
2000-2200
144
active mothers caloric intake
2200-2400
145
mothers should increase their daily calories by ___ to ___ when they are breastfeeding
450-500
146
with formula feeding babies should have no more than __ to ___ ounces per feed for the 1st few weeks and then it can increase to ___ to ___ ounces after the 1st month
1-2, 3-4
147
low birth weight
less than 2500g
148
very low birth weight
less than 1500g
149
small for gestation age
less than the 10th percentile
150
large for gestation age
greater than the 95th percentile
151
fetal death
death from 20 weeks to birth
152
neonatal death
death less than 28 days after birth
153
perinatal mortality rate calculcation
fetal deaths + # neonatal deaths/1000 live births
154
infant death
death of infant less than a year
155
infant mortality rate calculation
infants death/1000 live births
156
recovery of Erb Palsy will take __ to __ months
3 to 6
157
facial palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve ___
VII
158
most common and important sign of phrenic nerve injury
respiratory distress
159
infant infection that occurs during the 1st 28 days of life
neonatal sepsis
160
early onset neonatal sepsis
less than 72 hours after birth
161
causes of early onset neonatal sepsis
GBS PROM maternal STI chorioamniocentesis
162
last onset neonatal sepsis
7-30 days after birth
163
causes of late onset neonatal sepsis
RSV Rotavirus Staph
164
early clinical signs of neonatal sepsis
lethargy poor weight gain irritability poor feeding
165
breastfeeding has iron binding proteins that exert a bacteriostatic effect on ______ and _____
E. coli and macrophages
166
TORCHeS
toxoplasma gondii other: VZV, Parovirus B19, listerosis rubella cytomegalovirus HIV syphillis
167
babies to HIV positive mothers will take HIV medications for ___ to ___ weeks after birth
4-6
168
most severe fetal alcohol spectrum disorder
fetal alcohol syndrome
169
babies do not go through NAS until __ to ___ days after birth
7 to 10
170
s/s of cocaine withdrawal
increased BP low oxygenation decreased blood flow
171
babies who have been exposed to SSRIs will have a higher risk for having permanent _______ _______
pulmonary hypertension
172
jaundice that occurs after 24 hours of age
physiological jaundice
173
jaundice that occurs at less than 24 hours of age
pathological jaundice
174
in pathological jaundice the TSB will increase by more than ____mg an hour and be in the ____th percentile
0.2, 95
175
in pathological jaundice the DSB will be between ___ and ___ mg
1.5-2
176
if left untreated, pathological jaundice can turn into ______ _____ _____
acute bilirubin encephalopathy
177
acute bilirubin encephalopathy
lethargy hypotonia irritability seizure comas death
178
irreversible, long term effects of bilirubin toxicity
kernicterus
179
kernicterus s/s
hypotonia delayed motor skills hearing loss cerebral palsy gaze abnormalities
180
abnormally rapid rate of RBC destruction that causes hyperbilirubin
erythroblastosis fetalis
181
severe cases of erythroblastosis fetalis can lead to ______ ____
hydrops fetalis
182
risks with administerinf exogenous surfactant
mucous plugging or pulmonary hemorrhage
183
in NEC, gas forming bacteria invade the damaged portion of the intestines and create _______ ______, which is the presence of of gas in the submucosal surfaces of the bowel
pneumonatosis intestinalis
184
NEC is associated with feedings of hypotonic solutions such as ____ and ______ meds
formula and hyperosmolar meds
185