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Family > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

time from birth to the return of normal pre-pregnancy state

A

puerperium

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2
Q

the uterus in non-palpable by __ weeks PP

A

2

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3
Q

the uterus returns to pre-pregnancy state by ____ weeks

A

6

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4
Q

5 causes of subinvolution

A

retained placenta
infection
uterine fibroids
bladder retention
uterine over-distention

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5
Q

breastfeeding lowers _____ so you will not ovulate for 6 months

A

estrogen

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6
Q

vaginal ruggae start to appear after ___ weeks PP

A

3

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7
Q

fluid expressed in the 1st 72 hours from breasts

A

colostrum

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8
Q

the maternal CO is high for the 1st ____ hours PP

A

48

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9
Q

systemic vascular circulation is elevated for ___ weeks PP

A

12

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10
Q

after birth the mother has reduced ______ blood flow

A

pulmonary

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11
Q

hormones that drop after delivery of placenta

A

estrogen and progesterone

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12
Q

hormone that stays high after delivery for breastfeeding

A

prolactin

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13
Q

dark pigmentation of the face

A

chloasma

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14
Q

headaches are common for ____ week PP

A

1

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15
Q

2 diseases that can flare up because of the rebound of the immune system PP

A

multiple sclerosis
lupus

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16
Q

RhoGam is given ___ weeks gestation and ____ after delivery

A

28, 72

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17
Q

vaginal delivery length if stay

A

48 hours

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18
Q

c-section length of stay

A

3-4 days

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19
Q

you can start taking oral BC at ___ weeks if not breast feeding

A

6

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20
Q

you can get an IUD at __ weeks PP

A

6

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21
Q

it is recommended to not get pregnant for __ months PP

A

18

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22
Q

follow up with OBGYN in __ week PP if there was complications

A

1

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23
Q

follow up with OBGYN __ weeks PP after c-section

A

2

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24
Q

follow up with OBGYN __ weeks PP after vaginal delivery

A

6

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25
Q

3 things that make the mother high risk for urinary retention

A

birth trauma
relaxation of musculature
constipation

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26
Q

meds for hemorrhoids

A

proctofoam

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27
Q

meds for cracked nipples

A

Lanolin

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28
Q

non-lactating mother calorie goal

A

1800-2000

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29
Q

lactating mother calorie goal

A

1800-2000 + 250-500

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30
Q

excessive fatigue puts the mother at risk for _______ ______

A

postpartum depression

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31
Q

if the mother HGB or HCT is high they are at risk for ______or ______

A

weakness or dizziness

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32
Q

PP blues peak around day ___ and are usually gone around day ___

A

5, 10

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33
Q

POST

A

pain in chest
obstructed breathing or SOB
seizures
thoughts of hurting yourself or others

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34
Q

BIRTH

A

bleeding: soaking through pad in 1 hr or huge clots
incision that is not healed
red or swollen leg
temperature of 100.4F or higher
headache that did not get better even after medication and with blurry vision

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35
Q

when parent comes to love infant and infant comes to love parent

A

attachment

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36
Q

when the infants behaviors correspnds or illicits actions by the mother

A

mutuality

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37
Q

occurs through mutually satisfying experiences

A

bonding

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38
Q

2 things that play a large role in attachment and bonding

A

proximity and interaction

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39
Q

use of eye contact, touching, talking to, and exploring to become attached to infant

A

acquitance

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40
Q

when you relate the infant to a family member

A

claiming

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41
Q

when the infant moves in response to human speech

A

entrainment

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42
Q

infant intune with mother’s heart rate and it soothes the baby

A

biorhythmicity

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43
Q

when the infants body or sounds provide the mother with cues and the mother responds to them

A

reciprocity

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44
Q

fit between infant cues and maternal response

A

synchrony

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45
Q

early PPH

A

first 24 hours

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46
Q

late PPH

A

24 hours to 12 weeks

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47
Q

_____ ____ has the greatest risk for PPH within the 1st hour

A

uterine atony

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48
Q

causes of PPH

A

uterine atony
retain POC
placental complications
lacerations/hematomas
subinvolution
coagulopathies

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49
Q

4 components of the CPSWH care bundle for PPH

A

readiness
recognition
response
reporting

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50
Q

oxytocin side effects

A

N/V
water intoxication

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51
Q

misoprostol (cytotec) side effects

A

headache
N/V
diarrhea
fever
chills

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52
Q

methergine side effects

A

HTN
hypotension
N/V
headache

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53
Q

methergine contraindications

A

hypertension
preeclampsia
CV disease

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54
Q

do not give methergine if BP is over _____

A

140/90

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55
Q

hemabate side effects

A

headache
N/V
diarrhea
fever
chills
tachycardia
HTN

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56
Q

Hemabate contraindications

A

asthma
HTN
cardiac/pulmonary/liver disease

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57
Q

Prostin E2 side effects

A

headache
N/V
diarrhea
fever
chills

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58
Q

Prostin E2 contraindication

A

hypotension

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59
Q

TXA side effects

A

hypotension
visual problems
N/V

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60
Q

TXA nursing considerations

A

cautious with renal problems
monitor hemodynamics
assess for thromboembolic events

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61
Q

when placenta attaches too deeply into uterine wall

A

placenta accreta

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62
Q

when placenta attaches into uterine muscles

A

placenta increta

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63
Q

when placenta goes through uterine wall and muscle completely - sometimes into nearby organs

A

placenta percreta

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64
Q

weight of uterus right after delivery

A

1000-2000g

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65
Q

weight if uterus 7 days after delivery

A

500g

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66
Q

medication given for subinvolution

A

methergine

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67
Q

coagulopathies

A

idiopathic or immune thrombocytopenia
von willebrand disease

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68
Q

acute coagulation disorders

A

placental abruption
amniotic fluid embolism
preeclampsia with severe features
HELLP syndrome

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69
Q

3 medications to give with coagulopathies

A

TXA
recombinant factor VII
fibrinogen concentrate

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70
Q

if they have a history of VTE they should be on _____ SQ prior to birth and it should be stopped __ hours prior to birth

A

heparin, 12

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71
Q

if the mother has a PE they need to be on SQ heparin for ___ months PP

A

6

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72
Q

highest incidents of endometritis

A

PROM and c-sections

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73
Q

max score of edinburgh scale

A

30

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74
Q

score less than ____ on edinburgh scale indicated PPD

A

12

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75
Q

only FDA approved drug for PPD

A

zulressa

76
Q

PP psychosis is mostly associated with ______

A

bipolar

77
Q

after the 1st breathe the change in pulmonary pressure helps to close the ______ ______

A

ductus arteriosus

78
Q

the ductus arteriosus closes all the way during the 1st ____ hours of life

A

24

79
Q

after birth the pressure in the left atrium _____ and the pressure in the right atrium ______ and it causes the closing of the _____ ____

A

increases, decreases, foramen ovale

80
Q

3 things cold stress can lead to

A

RDS, hypoglycemia, metabolic acidosis

81
Q

temperature the baby is at when they start metabolizing brown fat

A

35 or 95

82
Q

hot babies are at a higher risk for ______

A

seizures

83
Q

time period of 1st period of reactivity

A

30 minutes after birth

84
Q

the NB HR increases to ___ to ____ during the 1st period of reactivity

A

160-180

85
Q

the 1st period of reactivity is followed by ___ to ____ minutes of unresponsiveness and sleepiness

A

60 to 100

86
Q

the periods of reactivity are mediated by the _______ nervous system

A

sympathetic

87
Q

the 2nd period of reactivity is _____ minutes to _____ hours

A

20 several

88
Q

when moro reflex dissapears

A

6 months

89
Q

when palmar reflex disappears

A

3-4 months

90
Q

when plantar reflex disappears

A

8 months

91
Q

when rooting reflex disappears

A

3-4 months

92
Q

when babinksi reflex disappears

A

1 year

93
Q

when tonic neck reflex disappears

A

3-4 months

94
Q

when stepping reflex disappears

A

3-4 months

95
Q

when crawling reflex disappears

A

6 weeks

96
Q

the mucosal barrier in the GI system is not present until ___ to ___ months

A

4 to 6

97
Q

the intestinal flora is not established until the first ____ of life

A

week

98
Q

the intestinal flora is needed to synthesize vitamin ____ and ______ acid

A

K, folic

99
Q

NB stomach on day 1 can hold ____ mL and it can hold ___mL on day 3

A

10, 30

100
Q

iron storage begins in utero and when they are born they have enough iron stores to last __ months

A

4

101
Q

coagulation factors are synthesized in the liver and need vitamin ___ to be activated

A

K

102
Q

antigens from the placenta that protect the newborn for up to 3 months

A

IgG

103
Q

by the 8th week of life the NB can start producing ____ antigens and they will reavh their adult level by age 2

A

IgM

104
Q

antigen babies get from breast milk

A

IgA

105
Q

caput succedaneum disappears in __ to ___ days

A

3 to 4

106
Q

cephalohematoma takes ___ to __ weeks to resolce

A

2-8

107
Q

s/s of subgleal heamtoma

A

tachycardia
pallor
increased head circumference

108
Q

pilonidal dimple with nevus pilosis is associated with _____ _____

A

spina bifida

109
Q

2 tests that assess for hip dysplasia

A

barlow and ortoloni

110
Q

the siman line or singular palmar crease is associated with _____ ______

A

down syndrome

111
Q

preterm

A

less than 37 weeks

112
Q

late term

A

37-38 weeks

113
Q

term

A

40 weeks

114
Q

post term

A

after 41 weeks

115
Q

score on apgar that indicates the neonate is in severe distress - immediate resuscitation

A

0-3

116
Q

apgar score that means the neonate is having moderate difficulty and needs interventions

A

4-6

117
Q

if the APGAR score is less than ___ at 1 minute you must repeat every 5 minutes for 20 minutes

A

7

118
Q

1st sign of respiraotry distress syndrome

A

tachypnea

119
Q

signs of respiratory distress 1-2 hours after birth that resolves in 48-72 hours

A

transient tachypnea of newborn

120
Q

in transient tachypnea of NB the RR is over ____

A

100

121
Q

step 1 of NB resuscitation

A

dry and stimulate

122
Q

if the NB HR is below ____ you do PPV for 15 seconds

A

100

123
Q

if the NB HR is below ____ you do chest compressions

A

60

124
Q

score used to determine gestational age

A

new ballard score

125
Q

3 benefits to circumcision

A

reduces UTIs, penile cancer, STIs

126
Q

3 pain management for circumcisions

A

dorsal penile nerve block
EMLA local anesthesia
sucking on oral sucrose

127
Q

recommended that infants exclusively breast feed for ___ months

A

6

128
Q

contraindications for breastfeeding

A

HIV
active TB
medications

129
Q

4 things breast feeding lowers the risk for in babies

A

Type 1 diabetes
obesity
SIDS
asthma

130
Q

3 things that are lowered risk in mothers because they breast feed

A

HTN
breast/ovarian cancer
type 2 diabetes

131
Q

hormone that stretches milk ducts and helps them create side branches to carry more milk

A

estrogen

132
Q

hormone that promotes the production of progesterone and prepares glands for milk production

A

prolactin

133
Q

hormone that increases the number and size of lobules in preparation for breastfeeding

A
134
Q

breastfeeding feeds should be every __ to ___ hours and formula feeds can be every __ to __ hours

A

2-4
3-4

135
Q

milk can stay in the fridge for ___ days, the freezer for ___ months, and ____ hours after being thawed

A

4, 6, 24

136
Q

medication to help decrease engorgment

A

ibuprofen

137
Q

2 things that can help sore and cracked nipple

A

vitamin E and colostrum

138
Q

newborn 1-3 months old should have ____ calories/kg/day

A

110

139
Q

newborns 3-6 months should have ____ caloires/kg.day

A

100

140
Q

breastmilk and formula have ____ calories per ounce

A

20

141
Q

NB should have ____ grams/kg/day of protein

A

2.25

142
Q

sedentary mothers calorie intake

A

1800-2000

143
Q

moderatly active mothers calorie intake

A

2000-2200

144
Q

active mothers caloric intake

A

2200-2400

145
Q

mothers should increase their daily calories by ___ to ___ when they are breastfeeding

A

450-500

146
Q

with formula feeding babies should have no more than __ to ___ ounces per feed for the 1st few weeks and then it can increase to ___ to ___ ounces after the 1st month

A

1-2, 3-4

147
Q

low birth weight

A

less than 2500g

148
Q

very low birth weight

A

less than 1500g

149
Q

small for gestation age

A

less than the 10th percentile

150
Q

large for gestation age

A

greater than the 95th percentile

151
Q

fetal death

A

death from 20 weeks to birth

152
Q

neonatal death

A

death less than 28 days after birth

153
Q

perinatal mortality rate calculcation

A

fetal deaths + # neonatal deaths/1000 live births

154
Q

infant death

A

death of infant less than a year

155
Q

infant mortality rate calculation

A

infants death/1000 live births

156
Q

recovery of Erb Palsy will take __ to __ months

A

3 to 6

157
Q

facial palsy is caused by damage to cranial nerve ___

A

VII

158
Q

most common and important sign of phrenic nerve injury

A

respiratory distress

159
Q

infant infection that occurs during the 1st 28 days of life

A

neonatal sepsis

160
Q

early onset neonatal sepsis

A

less than 72 hours after birth

161
Q

causes of early onset neonatal sepsis

A

GBS
PROM
maternal STI
chorioamniocentesis

162
Q

last onset neonatal sepsis

A

7-30 days after birth

163
Q

causes of late onset neonatal sepsis

A

RSV
Rotavirus
Staph

164
Q

early clinical signs of neonatal sepsis

A

lethargy
poor weight gain
irritability
poor feeding

165
Q

breastfeeding has iron binding proteins that exert a bacteriostatic effect on ______ and _____

A

E. coli and macrophages

166
Q

TORCHeS

A

toxoplasma gondii
other: VZV, Parovirus B19, listerosis
rubella
cytomegalovirus
HIV
syphillis

167
Q

babies to HIV positive mothers will take HIV medications for ___ to ___ weeks after birth

A

4-6

168
Q

most severe fetal alcohol spectrum disorder

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

169
Q

babies do not go through NAS until __ to ___ days after birth

A

7 to 10

170
Q

s/s of cocaine withdrawal

A

increased BP
low oxygenation
decreased blood flow

171
Q

babies who have been exposed to SSRIs will have a higher risk for having permanent _______ _______

A

pulmonary hypertension

172
Q

jaundice that occurs after 24 hours of age

A

physiological jaundice

173
Q

jaundice that occurs at less than 24 hours of age

A

pathological jaundice

174
Q

in pathological jaundice the TSB will increase by more than ____mg an hour and be in the ____th percentile

A

0.2, 95

175
Q

in pathological jaundice the DSB will be between ___ and ___ mg

A

1.5-2

176
Q

if left untreated, pathological jaundice can turn into ______ _____ _____

A

acute bilirubin encephalopathy

177
Q

acute bilirubin encephalopathy

A

lethargy
hypotonia
irritability
seizure
comas
death

178
Q

irreversible, long term effects of bilirubin toxicity

A

kernicterus

179
Q

kernicterus s/s

A

hypotonia
delayed motor skills
hearing loss
cerebral palsy
gaze abnormalities

180
Q

abnormally rapid rate of RBC destruction that causes hyperbilirubin

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

181
Q

severe cases of erythroblastosis fetalis can lead to ______ ____

A

hydrops fetalis

182
Q

risks with administerinf exogenous surfactant

A

mucous plugging or pulmonary hemorrhage

183
Q

in NEC, gas forming bacteria invade the damaged portion of the intestines and create _______ ______, which is the presence of of gas in the submucosal surfaces of the bowel

A

pneumonatosis intestinalis

184
Q

NEC is associated with feedings of hypotonic solutions such as ____ and ______ meds

A

formula and hyperosmolar meds

185
Q
A

Family (4 decks)

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