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Family > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

______ in the uterus can create bulk and cause disruption in implantation

A

fibroids

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2
Q

condition that can cause irregular ovulation and cause fertility problems

A

PCOS

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3
Q

low ______ can cause infertility in men

A

testosterone

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4
Q

enlarged vessels in the testicles can cause increased ________, therefore decreasing sperm count

A

heat

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5
Q

condition that can cause a buildup of scar tissue in the peritoneum and make women less fertile

A

endometriosis

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6
Q

infertility is described as trying to conceive for ___ year and failing

A

one

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7
Q

being over ___ years old makes contraception harder

A

35

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8
Q

males have a decreased sperm count once they are over age ____

A

50

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9
Q

metabolic disease in men that can cause decreased sperm count

A

hypertension

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10
Q

ovulation induction includes giving medication that stimulate the production of ____

A

eggs

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11
Q

process of extracting eggs from female and combining them in a petri dish with sperm

A

In Virto fertilization

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12
Q

withdrawal method of birth control

A

coitus interruptus

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13
Q

3 types of birth control that are estrogen and progesterone combined

A

pill
ring
patch

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14
Q

combined birth control methods suppress ______

A

ovulation

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15
Q

contraindications for combined birth control methods

A
  • thromboembolic disorders
  • cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease
  • migraine
  • liver disease
  • less than 6 weeks postpartum
  • smoker longer than 35 years
    prolonged immobilization
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16
Q

if you miss ___ or more pills, you need to use another method of birth control

A

2

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17
Q

serious complications of birth control pills (ACHES)

A
  • abdominal pain
  • chest pain/SOB
  • headaches
  • eye problems
  • severe leg pain
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18
Q

2 common side effects of combined birth control methods

A

nausea and irregular periods

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19
Q

progastrin only pill

A

“Minipill”

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20
Q

with the progesterone only pill, you must take it within an ____ at the same time everyday

A

hour

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21
Q

injectable progesterin only birth control

A

Depo-provera

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22
Q

Depo-provera injections are administered every ___ to ___ hours

A

11 to 13 hours

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23
Q

implantable progesterin only birth control

A

nexplanon

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24
Q

Nexplanon lasts __ years

A

3

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25
Q

most common complaint of progesterin-only BC

A

irregular periods

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26
Q

progesterin only IUD lasts __ to ___ years

A

3 to 5 years

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27
Q

emergency contraception works best if used within ___ hours of sexual intercourse

A

72

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28
Q

emergency contraception delayes _______

A

ovulation

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29
Q

emergency contraception may not work as well with people who have a BMI over ___

A

30

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30
Q

OTC emergency contraception

A

Plan B

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31
Q

prescription emergency contraception

A

Ella and Paragaurd IUD

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32
Q

abortion performed for reasons of maternal and/or fetal health

A

therapeutic abortion

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33
Q

medication given to pass miscarriage at home

A

Mifepristone

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34
Q

medication used for elective abortion

A

mifespristone

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35
Q

endometrial phase where the endometrium is shed

A

menstrual phase

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36
Q

endometrium phase where the endometrium rapidly grows

A

proliferative phase

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37
Q

the proliferative phase depends on ______ that is released from the ovarian follicles

A

estrogen

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38
Q

endometrial phase where the endometrium hits its max thickness and progesterone peaks

A

secretory

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39
Q

the hormone that stimulates the development of ovarian graafian follicle and its release of estrogen

A

FSH

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40
Q

the _______ phase is the phase where the egg is developed and released

A

follicular

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41
Q

the ______ phase is the phase after ovulation

A

luteal

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42
Q

after ovulation the corpus luteum forms and produces ______, which thickens the uterine lining to prepare for implantation

A

progesterone

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43
Q

if the corpus luteum is not fertilized, progesterone levels _____

A

drop

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44
Q

category __ drugs have not been tested

A

C

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45
Q

category __ drugs have risks to the fetus, but the benefits may outweigh the risks

A

D

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46
Q

category ___ drugs have known risks to the fetus and the benefits do not outweigh the risks

A

X

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47
Q

screening for eating disorders

A

SCOFF questions

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48
Q

absence of menstruation

A

amenorrhea

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49
Q

started menses, but 6 month period with no menes after 1st period

A

secondary amenorrhea

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50
Q

the concept used to describe a woman’s experience of discomfort during the menstrual cycle

A

cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD)

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51
Q

3 aspects of CPPD

A

dysmenorrhea
PMS
PMDD

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52
Q

pain during or shortly after menstruation

A

dysmenorrhea

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53
Q

variety of symptoms that occur before menses, but with normal period

A

PMS (premenstrual syndrome)

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54
Q

advanced PMS that affects a woman’s life drastically

A

PMDD (premenstrual dysphoric disorder)

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55
Q

infrequent menstruation

A

oligomenorrhea

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56
Q

scanty menses with normal intervals

A

hypomenorrhea

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57
Q

Excessive bleeding with menses

A

menorrhagia

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58
Q

bleeding between menses

A

metrorrhagia

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59
Q

any form of bleeding that is irregular in amount, duration, or timing that is not related to menses

A

abnormal uterine bleeding

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60
Q

most common STI

A

chlamydia

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61
Q

2 STIs that are associated with pelvic inflammatory disease

A

chlamydia and gonohrea

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62
Q

small breasts

A

micromastia

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63
Q

large breasts

A

macromastia

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64
Q

supernumerary nipple grow along the _____ line

A

milk

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65
Q

lumpiness in breasts with or without pain that is associated with menses

A

fibrocystic changes

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66
Q

vitamin ___ can help with fibrocystic changes

A

E

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67
Q

benign neoplasm of the breast

A

fibroadenoma

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68
Q

Spontaneous milky discharge from the nipple

A

galactorrhea

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69
Q

galactorrhea is normal in _______

A

pregnancy

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70
Q

2 things that galactorrhea can result from

A

pituitary tumor
thyroid disorder

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71
Q

breast infection

A

mastitis

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72
Q

breast-feeding _____ risk of breast cancer

A

reduces

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73
Q

low vitamin ___ can put you at risk for breast cancer

A

D

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74
Q

women over ____ should have regular mammograms

A

40

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75
Q

scan done that can pick up smaller masses in the breasts and is done for those at risk for breast cancer

A

MRI

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76
Q

diagnostic test for breast cancer mass

A

core need biopsy

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77
Q

test done to determine what lymph nodes are affected by the breast cancer

A

sentinel lymph node biopsy

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78
Q

procedure to remove cancerous tumor and tissue around it

A

lumpectomy

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79
Q

breast reconstruction that uses muscle from the abdomen

A

TRAM flap

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80
Q

during the 1st and 2nd trimester growth occurs in the ______ tissue and then in the 3rd trimester it is primarily in the _____ tissue

A

maternal, fetal

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81
Q

during the first trimester it is recommended to gain only ___ to ___ pounds if you have a normal BMI to begin with

A

2 to 4

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82
Q

during the second and third trimester it is recommended to gain ____ pounds a week

A

0.6

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83
Q

a gain of more than 6.6 (3 kg) pounds in a month after the 20th week of gestation is a sign of _______

A

preeclampsia

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84
Q

pregnant women need to increase their calorie intake by ____ calories a day

A

300

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85
Q

pregnant women need ___ grams of protein a day

A

60

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86
Q

women with _____ do not need to increase their protein intake

A

PKU

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87
Q

pregnant women need ____ mcg of folic acid a day

A

600

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88
Q

folic acid reduces ____ ______ defects

A

neural tube

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89
Q

if the pregnant woman has epilepsy and is taking medication for it, they need at least ____ mg of folic acid daily

A

4

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90
Q

pregnant women need at least ___ mg of iron a day

A

27

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91
Q

vitamin ___ can help with the absorption of iron

A

C

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92
Q

tea, coffee, milk and egg yolks decrease the absorption of _____ and should be avoided while you take the supplement

A

iron

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93
Q

iron is absorbed best on an _____ stomach

A

empty

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94
Q

healthy fat found in prescription PNV that helps in the development of the fetal brain and retina

A

DHA

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95
Q

if the pt. has constipation they should increase their _____ intake

A

fiber

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96
Q

Excessive consumption of nonfood substances such as clay, dirt, ice, laundry detergent, cornstarch, raw rice, flour, baking soda, or chalk

A

Pica

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97
Q

pica is associated with ______ deficient anemia

A

iron

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98
Q

hypersalivation in pregnancy

A

ptyalism

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99
Q

4 causes of ptyalism

A
  • hormonal changes
  • nausea
  • oral health issues
  • anxiety
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100
Q

vomiting during pregnancy that is bad enough to cause nutritional deficiencies, electrolyte imbalance, weight loss, and ketonuria

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

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101
Q

initial medical management for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and doxylamine (Unisom)

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102
Q

medication for hyperemesis gravidarum that accelerates gastric emptying

A

metoclopramide (reglan)

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103
Q

calorie requirements for diabetes in pregnancy

A

2000-2500 a day

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104
Q

diabetic pregnant women should increase their caloric intake by ____ calories a day in the 2nd trimester

A

340

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105
Q

diabetic pregnant women should increase their caloric intake by _____ calories a day during their 3rd trimester

A

450

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106
Q

GDM patients should eat 3 meals and 3 snacks to avoid ______

A

hypoglycemia

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107
Q

diabetic pregnant patients should have a bedtime snack that is ____ g of complex carbs with some protein like PB

A

25

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108
Q

diabetic pregnant patient’s diet should be ____ to ___% carbs

A

33 to 45

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109
Q

diabetic pregnant patient’s diet should be more ______ carbohydrates than ______ carbohydrates

A

complex, simple

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110
Q

diabetic pregnant patient’s diet should be ___% protein

A

25

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111
Q

diabetic pregnant patient’s diet should be ____ to ____ fat

A

35-40

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112
Q

pregnant women should avoid fish that have high amounts of _____

A

mercury

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113
Q

pregnant women should limit their mercury to ___ oz. a week

A

6

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114
Q

you should limit air travel after ___ weeks of pregnancy

A

36

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115
Q

study of a specific gene

A

genetics

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116
Q

piece of inheritance from parent to offspring

A

gene

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117
Q

genetic instructions found in cell

A

genome

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118
Q

factor 5 Lyden is an autosomal _______ inheritance

A

dominant

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119
Q

sickle cell and cystic fibrosis are autosomal ________ inheritance

A

recessive

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120
Q

an affected person with autosomal dominant inheritance has a ___% chance of passing it to their offspring

A

50

121
Q

X linked inheritance is more common in ____

A

males

122
Q

1st trimester weeks

A

1 week - 13 weeks

123
Q

2nd trimester weeks

A

14 weeks - 27 weeks

124
Q

3rd trimester weeks

A

28 weeks - 40 weeks

125
Q

gravida and parity - term (T) is described as the number of pregnancies that were carried to ___+ weeks

A

37

126
Q

gravida and parity - preterm (P) is the number of pregnancies between ___ and ___ weeks

A

20-36

127
Q

gravity and parity - abortion (A) is the number of losses before ___ weeks

A

20

128
Q

_______ sign is the dark blue to purplish-red congested appearance of the vaginal mucosa

A

Chadwick’s

129
Q

______ sign is the softening of the uterus at junction with the cervix

A

Hegar’s

130
Q

Hegar;s signs occurs during the ____ trimester of pregnancy

A

1st

131
Q

______ sign is the softening and cyanosis of the cervix on or after 4 weeks

A

Goodell’s

132
Q

1st recognition of fetal movement

A

quickening

133
Q

quickening happens around ___ weeks at the 1st pregnancy, but ___ weeks if it isnt the 1st pregnncy

A

20, 16

134
Q

Quantitative serum testing (beta Hcg) shows that you are pregnant if the Hcg is higher than ___

A

25

135
Q

Naegle’s Rule equation

A

LMP month - 3 = month
LMP day + 7 = day

136
Q

more accurate way to date EDD if the mother has irregular periods

A

ultrasound

137
Q

the ovum is fertile for ___ hours after ovulation

A

24

138
Q

the first 1/3 of the _____ _____ is where fertilization occurs

A

fallopian tube

139
Q

once the ovum is fertilized it creates a ______ _____ so other sperm cannot fertilize

A

protective cover

140
Q

________ is achieved when the female and male pronucleus combine and fuse chromosomes

A

conception

141
Q

mitotic cellular replication also known as cleavage occurs ___ hours after fertilization

A

30

142
Q

implantation occurs within __ days of conception

A

6

143
Q

ovum/pre embryonic phase is from conception to day ___

A

14

144
Q

the developing fetus is an embryo from day ___ to ___ weeks after conception

A

15, 8

145
Q

the developing fetus is a fetus from ___ weeks to birth

A

9

146
Q

the placenta occurs by week ____

A

12

147
Q

the developing fetus is most vulnerable to teratogens during the _____ phase

A

embryo

148
Q

the _____ gland produces hormones that maintain pregnancy and support the embryo developing into a fetus

A

endocrine

149
Q

hormone that preserves corpus luteum until 9 weeks

A

HCG

150
Q

hormone that maintains endometrial lining and stimulates breast and alveoli development

A

progesterone

151
Q

hormone that stimulates uterine growth and uterine-placental blood flow

A

estrogen

152
Q

low HCG can lead to a _____

A

miscarriage

153
Q

hormone that stimulates maternal metabolism/growth nutrients for fetal growth

A

human placental lactogen

154
Q

fetal glucose concentration is ____ than maternal glucose concentration

A

less

155
Q

metabolic waste from the fetus crosses the placenta so it can be excreted by the maternal ______

A

kidneys

156
Q

special pathway that helps bypass the lungs of the fetus and allow the fetus to get oxygen

A

ductus arterious

157
Q

O2-rich blood from the placenta goes to the ______ ____

A

umbilical vein

158
Q

during pregnancy, the mother’s heart moves ____ and ____

A

up and left

159
Q

during pregnancy the heart slightly ______

A

hypertrophy

160
Q

a heart _____ is common with pregnancy

A

murmur

161
Q

an audible murmur where there is a split between S1 and S2 is audible after __- weeks

A

20

162
Q

maternal cardiac output increases and peaks at ___ weeks

A

30

163
Q

_____ ____ syndrome is caused by supine hypotension

A

vena cava

164
Q

the maternal oxygen consumption increases by ___% during pregnancy

A

30

165
Q

the enlarged uterus presses on the diaphragm and raises it ___ cm

A

4

166
Q

during pregnancy, there is increased blood flow to the _______ area causing stuffy nose and bloody nose

A

nasopharynx

167
Q

category ___ drugs have no risk to the fetus

A

A

168
Q

category __ drugs have no human studies, but animal studies show no risk to the fetus

A

B

169
Q

category ___ drugs show possible risk to the fetus because off of animal studies and are only given when the benefits outweigh the risks

A

C

170
Q

category ___ drugs show risk for fetus through human studies and only given in extreme cases where the benefits outweigh the risks

A

D

171
Q

Category ___ drugs show extreme risk to the fetus and the benefits never outweigh the risks

A

X

172
Q

_______ twins come from 2 separate ovum being fertilized

A

dizygotic

173
Q

_______ twins come from one ovum being fertilized and separating

A

monozygotic

174
Q

in monozygotic twins, if the fertilized egg divides before 8 days there is ___ amnions, but after 8 days there is ___ amnion

A

2, 1

175
Q

if the fertilized egg in monozygotic twins divides after ___ days the twins will be conjoined

A

13

176
Q

delayed cord clamping can help with _____ and ____ stores

A

hemoglobin and iron

177
Q

GBS is tested at ____ weeks

A

36

178
Q

GBS is treated with 2 doses of _____

A

antibiotics

179
Q

in the nitrazine test, amniotic fluid turns the nitrazine paper from _____ to ____

A

orange to blue

180
Q

_____ test is when a collection of amniotic fluid can be seen in the vaginal fornix

A

pooling

181
Q

______ test is when they place fluid from the vagina on a microscope slide and amniotic fluid crystallized

A

ferning

182
Q

when the fetal head distends into the pelvis

A

lightning

183
Q

5 P’s of labor

A

Powers (contractions)
Passage (pelvis and birth canal)
Passenger (fetus)
Psyche (response of mother)
Position

184
Q

the amount of descent above or below the ischial sPines

A

station

185
Q

thinning of the cervix

A

effacement

186
Q

opening of the cervix

A

dilation

187
Q

normal presentation and position

A

facing backwards head first

188
Q

normal position for birth - face down

A

direct occiput anterior (OA)

189
Q

abnormal position for birth with face up

A

left occiput anterior (OP)

190
Q

anxiety and fear can release ______ which can slow down or delay the labor process

A

catecholamines

191
Q

first stage of labor

A

0-10 cm

192
Q

latent phase of labor

A

0-5 cm

193
Q

active phase of labor

A

6-10 cm

194
Q

second stage of labor

A

full dilation to birth

195
Q

third stage of labor

A

birth of baby to delivery of placenta

196
Q

fourth stage of labor

A

postpartum

197
Q

valsalva pushing (closed glottis) can lower ____ ____

A

cardiac output

198
Q

check maternal VS every ____ while in labor

A

hour

199
Q

if the water has been broken for over 24 hors then you are at a higher risk for _____

A

infection

200
Q

maternal fever will cause fetal tachycardia which is a HR over ____ bpm

A

160

201
Q

REEDA

A

redness
edema
ecchymosis
discharge
approximation

202
Q

REEDA score of 0 means _____

A

healed

203
Q

REEDA score of 1-5 means _____ _____

A

moderately healed

204
Q

REEDA score of 6-10 means ______ _____

A

mildly healed

205
Q

REEDA score of 11-15 means ____ ____

A

not healed

206
Q

in the PP period you need to assess VS every ____ minutes for the first 2 hours

A

15

207
Q

administer ___U/ml IM or IV of Pitocin after delivery

A

10

208
Q

asses cord for 2 ____ and 1 ____

A

arteries, vein

209
Q

light fingertip massage that can aid in relaxation during contraction

A

effleurage

210
Q

you should od slow breathing in early labor and then once you get to ___ cm start quick breathing

A

8

211
Q

before epidural bolus ____ to ___ ml LR

A

500-1000

212
Q

leaking of CSF at site into dura mater causing headache

A

postdural puncture headache

213
Q

pudenal nerve block is used to repair _____

A

episiotomy

214
Q

pudenal nerve blocks use 1% _____

A

lidocaine

215
Q

preterm labor labor is labor starting between ___ and ___ weeks

A

20 and 37

216
Q

a very preterm birth is before ____ weeks

A

32

217
Q

age of viability

A

24 weeks

218
Q

a cervical length less than ____mm is a sign of preterm birth

A

30

219
Q

if the fetal fibronectin test is ________ then it indicates a pre term labor/birth

A

negative

220
Q

IM ______ is administered to decrease the chance of preterm birth

A

progesterone (makena)

221
Q

IM progesterone (makena) is administered between ____ and ___ weeks to prevent preterm birth

A

16-36

222
Q

medication given for pre term labor that helps prevent neonatal neurological morbidity

A

magnesium sulfate

223
Q

for a women on tocolytics, you should decrease fluid intake to less than _____ ml a day

A

3000

224
Q

medication class is given to suppress uterine activity and arrest labor after uterine contractions and cervical change has occurred

A

tocolytics

225
Q

4 tocolytic medications

A

magnesium sulfate
terbutaline
nifedipine
indomethacin

226
Q

4 contraindications of terbutaline

A

heart disease
preeclampsia
seizures
hyperthyroidism

227
Q

antidote for terbutaline

A

propranolol

228
Q

terbutaline can _______ heart rate and ______ BP

A

increase, decrease

229
Q

terbutaline can cause ______ so you need to check blood sugars before administering

A

hyperglycemia

230
Q

medication you cannot give with nifedipine

A

magnesium sulfate

231
Q

4 s/e of nifedipine

A

headache
hypotension
flushing
dizziness

232
Q

1st line tocolytic

A

indomethacin

233
Q

only use indomethacin up to ____ weeks

A

32

234
Q

glucocorticoid that produces surfactant for fetal lung maturity when preterm birth is imminent

A

betamethasone

235
Q

betamethasone is ____ mg given IM in 2 doses ____ hours apart

A

12, 24

236
Q

betamethasone can be given to any mother ____ to ____ weeks that is exspecting deliver within 7 days

A

24-37

237
Q

betamethasone may cause ______ so check blood sugar or adjust insulin

A

hyperglycemia

238
Q

rupture of membranes before onset of labor

A

prelabor rupture of membranes

239
Q

most common maternal complication with PROM especially over 24 hours

A

chorioamnionitis

240
Q

fetal complications with PROM

A

cord prolapse or compression

241
Q

conservative management for preterm labor

A

delay birth

242
Q

expectant management of preterm labor

A

birth

243
Q

a cervical dilation greater than ___ cm will most likely lead to a preterm birth

A

4

244
Q

bacterial infection of the amniotic sac

A

chorioamnionitis

245
Q

if the mother has chorioamnionitis, the neonate is at higher risk for ______ and _____

A

pneumonia and menengitis

246
Q

lack in progress in labor for any reason

A

dysfunctional labor (dystocia)

247
Q

_______ uterine contractions are not strong enough or frequent enough to make chnage during labor

A

hypotonic

248
Q

2 factors that can cause hypotonic

A

exhaustion and/or infection

249
Q

when a mother is scared or nervous she can release _________ which inhibits uterine contractions

A

catecholamines

250
Q

hypotonic contractions are more common in _______ women and hypertonic contractions are more common in _____ women

A

multiparous, primigravida

251
Q

_______ contractions are strong and frequent, but are not coordinated

A

hypertonic

252
Q

________ disorders are slower than normal progress in labor while ______ disorders are complete cessation of progress

A

protraction, arrest

253
Q

a precipitous labor is a one that occurs less than ____ hour after the onset of contractions

A

3

254
Q

precipitous labor is a result of ______ contractions

A

hypertonic

255
Q

2 things precipitous birth and labor are associated with

A

cocaine use
placental abruption

256
Q

the risk for shoulder dystocia increases when the baby is larger than ______g

A

4000

257
Q

_______ maneuver is used during a shoulder dystocia and it is when the mother pulls her legs close to her chest

A

McRoberts

258
Q

2 medications given for induction

A
  • misoprostol (cytotec)
  • dinoprostone (cervadil inserted)
259
Q

stripping of the membranes releases _______ and _______ to help with induction of labor

A

prostaglandins and oxytocin

260
Q

breaking the water with a hook device

A

amniotomy

261
Q

a score of ____ or more on the Bishop Score is favorable for induction

A

8

262
Q

pitocin is only started if the FHR has been documented and ______

A

reactive

263
Q

when administering IV Pitocin, connect the line the ______ IV access

A

lowest

264
Q

if the cord is prolapsed out of the vagina keep the cord _____

A

moist

265
Q

cord prolapse greater than ____ minutes can lead to fetal hypoxia

A

5

266
Q

manually separating the chorionic membrane from the lower uterine segment

A

stripping the membranes

267
Q

when there is a cord prolapse administer oxygen at ___ L with a nonrebreather

A

10

268
Q

if there is hypertonic contractions, you must perform _____ ______

A

intrauterine resuscitation

269
Q

during hypertonic contractions reposition the pt. to ______ position

A

lateral

270
Q

for hypertonic contractions administer IV bolus (500-100 ml) of _____ _____

A

lactated ringers

271
Q

medication to give during hypertonic contractions

A

Terbutaline

272
Q

lumps on the babies scalp caused by bleeding

A

cephalohematoma

273
Q

lumps of babies scalp caused by edema/swelling

A

caput succedaneum

274
Q

VBACs are common if the primary C-section was for a _________ problem

A

non-recurring

275
Q

trial of labor is when the women is abserved in labor for ___ to ___ hours to see if the mother and baby can tolerate a VBAC

A

4-6

276
Q

post-term pregnancy is one that lasts beyond ___ weeks

A

42

277
Q

decision to incision time for C-sections

A

20 minutes

278
Q

3 things that can make leopold;s maneuver less accurate

A
  • obese mother
  • poly
  • anterior placenta
279
Q

getal heart rate below ____ is bradycardia and above ____ is tachycardia

A

110, 160

280
Q

fluctuations in baseline that are irregular in amplitude and frequency

A

variability

281
Q

minimal variability

A

less than or equal to 5 bpm

282
Q

moderate variability

A

6 - 25 bpm

283
Q

marked variability

A

25 bpm +

284
Q

normal contraction patter is every __ to ___ minutes lasting ____ to ___ seconds

A

2-3, 50-60

285
Q

involution is the uterus should decrease ___ cm each day after delivery

A

1

286
Q

delayed return of enlarged uterus to normal size and function after birth

A

subinvolution

287
Q

first stage of lochia with dark/bright red blood

A

lochia rubia

288
Q

lochia rubia should last up to __ days

A

4

289
Q

seconds stage of lochia that is pinkish/brown discharge

A

lochia serosa

290
Q

lochia serosa lasts for around __ days

A

12

291
Q

last stage of lochia that is yellow/white discharge

A

lochia alba

292
Q

lochia alba should last for ___ days to __ weeks

A

12, 6

293
Q

Rubin’s Postpartum Psychological Adaptions

A
  1. taking in
  2. taking hold
  3. letting go
294
Q

normal new born temp

A

36.5-37.5 (97.7-99.5)

295
Q

normal newborn HR

A

120-160

296
Q

normal newborn HR crying and sleeping

A

sleeping = 80-100
crying = 180

297
Q

newborn normal respirations

A

30-60

298
Q
A

Family (4 decks)

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