Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
______ in the uterus can create bulk and cause disruption in implantation
A
fibroids
2
Q
condition that can cause irregular ovulation and cause fertility problems
A
PCOS
3
Q
low ______ can cause infertility in men
A
testosterone
4
Q
enlarged vessels in the testicles can cause increased ________, therefore decreasing sperm count
A
heat
5
Q
condition that can cause a buildup of scar tissue in the peritoneum and make women less fertile
A
endometriosis
6
Q
infertility is described as trying to conceive for ___ year and failing
A
one
7
Q
being over ___ years old makes contraception harder
A
35
8
Q
males have a decreased sperm count once they are over age ____
A
50
9
Q
metabolic disease in men that can cause decreased sperm count
A
hypertension
10
Q
ovulation induction includes giving medication that stimulate the production of ____
A
eggs
11
Q
process of extracting eggs from female and combining them in a petri dish with sperm
A
In Virto fertilization
12
Q
withdrawal method of birth control
A
coitus interruptus
13
Q
3 types of birth control that are estrogen and progesterone combined
A
pill
ring
patch
14
Q
combined birth control methods suppress ______
A
ovulation
15
Q
contraindications for combined birth control methods
A
- thromboembolic disorders
- cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease
- migraine
- liver disease
- less than 6 weeks postpartum
- smoker longer than 35 years
prolonged immobilization
16
Q
if you miss ___ or more pills, you need to use another method of birth control
A
2
17
Q
serious complications of birth control pills (ACHES)
A
- abdominal pain
- chest pain/SOB
- headaches
- eye problems
- severe leg pain
18
Q
2 common side effects of combined birth control methods
A
nausea and irregular periods
19
Q
progastrin only pill
A
“Minipill”
20
Q
with the progesterone only pill, you must take it within an ____ at the same time everyday
A
hour
21
Q
injectable progesterin only birth control
A
Depo-provera
22
Q
Depo-provera injections are administered every ___ to ___ hours
A
11 to 13 hours
23
Q
implantable progesterin only birth control
A
nexplanon
24
Q
Nexplanon lasts __ years
A
3
25
most common complaint of progesterin-only BC
irregular periods
26
progesterin only IUD lasts __ to ___ years
3 to 5 years
27
emergency contraception works best if used within ___ hours of sexual intercourse
72
28
emergency contraception delayes _______
ovulation
29
emergency contraception may not work as well with people who have a BMI over ___
30
30
OTC emergency contraception
Plan B
31
prescription emergency contraception
Ella and Paragaurd IUD
32
abortion performed for reasons of maternal and/or fetal health
therapeutic abortion
33
medication given to pass miscarriage at home
Mifepristone
34
medication used for elective abortion
mifespristone
35
endometrial phase where the endometrium is shed
menstrual phase
36
endometrium phase where the endometrium rapidly grows
proliferative phase
37
the proliferative phase depends on ______ that is released from the ovarian follicles
estrogen
38
endometrial phase where the endometrium hits its max thickness and progesterone peaks
secretory
39
the hormone that stimulates the development of ovarian graafian follicle and its release of estrogen
FSH
40
the _______ phase is the phase where the egg is developed and released
follicular
41
the ______ phase is the phase after ovulation
luteal
42
after ovulation the corpus luteum forms and produces ______, which thickens the uterine lining to prepare for implantation
progesterone
43
if the corpus luteum is not fertilized, progesterone levels _____
drop
44
category __ drugs have not been tested
C
45
category __ drugs have risks to the fetus, but the benefits may outweigh the risks
D
46
category ___ drugs have known risks to the fetus and the benefits do not outweigh the risks
X
47
screening for eating disorders
SCOFF questions
48
absence of menstruation
amenorrhea
49
started menses, but 6 month period with no menes after 1st period
secondary amenorrhea
50
the concept used to describe a woman's experience of discomfort during the menstrual cycle
cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD)
51
3 aspects of CPPD
dysmenorrhea
PMS
PMDD
52
pain during or shortly after menstruation
dysmenorrhea
53
variety of symptoms that occur before menses, but with normal period
PMS (premenstrual syndrome)
54
advanced PMS that affects a woman's life drastically
PMDD (premenstrual dysphoric disorder)
55
infrequent menstruation
oligomenorrhea
56
scanty menses with normal intervals
hypomenorrhea
57
Excessive bleeding with menses
menorrhagia
58
bleeding between menses
metrorrhagia
59
any form of bleeding that is irregular in amount, duration, or timing that is not related to menses
abnormal uterine bleeding
60
most common STI
chlamydia
61
2 STIs that are associated with pelvic inflammatory disease
chlamydia and gonohrea
62
small breasts
micromastia
63
large breasts
macromastia
64
supernumerary nipple grow along the _____ line
milk
65
lumpiness in breasts with or without pain that is associated with menses
fibrocystic changes
66
vitamin ___ can help with fibrocystic changes
E
67
benign neoplasm of the breast
fibroadenoma
68
Spontaneous milky discharge from the nipple
galactorrhea
69
galactorrhea is normal in _______
pregnancy
70
2 things that galactorrhea can result from
pituitary tumor
thyroid disorder
71
breast infection
mastitis
72
breast-feeding _____ risk of breast cancer
reduces
73
low vitamin ___ can put you at risk for breast cancer
D
74
women over ____ should have regular mammograms
40
75
scan done that can pick up smaller masses in the breasts and is done for those at risk for breast cancer
MRI
76
diagnostic test for breast cancer mass
core need biopsy
77
test done to determine what lymph nodes are affected by the breast cancer
sentinel lymph node biopsy
78
procedure to remove cancerous tumor and tissue around it
lumpectomy
79
breast reconstruction that uses muscle from the abdomen
TRAM flap
80
during the 1st and 2nd trimester growth occurs in the ______ tissue and then in the 3rd trimester it is primarily in the _____ tissue
maternal, fetal
81
during the first trimester it is recommended to gain only ___ to ___ pounds if you have a normal BMI to begin with
2 to 4
82
during the second and third trimester it is recommended to gain ____ pounds a week
0.6
83
a gain of more than 6.6 (3 kg) pounds in a month after the 20th week of gestation is a sign of _______
preeclampsia
84
pregnant women need to increase their calorie intake by ____ calories a day
300
85
pregnant women need ___ grams of protein a day
60
86
women with _____ do not need to increase their protein intake
PKU
87
pregnant women need ____ mcg of folic acid a day
600
88
folic acid reduces ____ ______ defects
neural tube
89
if the pregnant woman has epilepsy and is taking medication for it, they need at least ____ mg of folic acid daily
4
90
pregnant women need at least ___ mg of iron a day
27
91
vitamin ___ can help with the absorption of iron
C
92
tea, coffee, milk and egg yolks decrease the absorption of _____ and should be avoided while you take the supplement
iron
93
iron is absorbed best on an _____ stomach
empty
94
healthy fat found in prescription PNV that helps in the development of the fetal brain and retina
DHA
95
if the pt. has constipation they should increase their _____ intake
fiber
96
Excessive consumption of nonfood substances such as clay, dirt, ice, laundry detergent, cornstarch, raw rice, flour, baking soda, or chalk
Pica
97
pica is associated with ______ deficient anemia
iron
98
hypersalivation in pregnancy
ptyalism
99
4 causes of ptyalism
- hormonal changes
- nausea
- oral health issues
- anxiety
100
vomiting during pregnancy that is bad enough to cause nutritional deficiencies, electrolyte imbalance, weight loss, and ketonuria
hyperemesis gravidarum
101
initial medical management for hyperemesis gravidarum
pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and doxylamine (Unisom)
102
medication for hyperemesis gravidarum that accelerates gastric emptying
metoclopramide (reglan)
103
calorie requirements for diabetes in pregnancy
2000-2500 a day
104
diabetic pregnant women should increase their caloric intake by ____ calories a day in the 2nd trimester
340
105
diabetic pregnant women should increase their caloric intake by _____ calories a day during their 3rd trimester
450
106
GDM patients should eat 3 meals and 3 snacks to avoid ______
hypoglycemia
107
diabetic pregnant patients should have a bedtime snack that is ____ g of complex carbs with some protein like PB
25
108
diabetic pregnant patient's diet should be ____ to ___% carbs
33 to 45
109
diabetic pregnant patient's diet should be more ______ carbohydrates than ______ carbohydrates
complex, simple
110
diabetic pregnant patient's diet should be ___% protein
25
111
diabetic pregnant patient's diet should be ____ to ____ fat
35-40
112
pregnant women should avoid fish that have high amounts of _____
mercury
113
pregnant women should limit their mercury to ___ oz. a week
6
114
you should limit air travel after ___ weeks of pregnancy
36
115
study of a specific gene
genetics
116
piece of inheritance from parent to offspring
gene
117
genetic instructions found in cell
genome
118
factor 5 Lyden is an autosomal _______ inheritance
dominant
119
sickle cell and cystic fibrosis are autosomal ________ inheritance
recessive
120
an affected person with autosomal dominant inheritance has a ___% chance of passing it to their offspring
50
121
X linked inheritance is more common in ____
males
122
1st trimester weeks
1 week - 13 weeks
123
2nd trimester weeks
14 weeks - 27 weeks
124
3rd trimester weeks
28 weeks - 40 weeks
125
gravida and parity - term (T) is described as the number of pregnancies that were carried to ___+ weeks
37
126
gravida and parity - preterm (P) is the number of pregnancies between ___ and ___ weeks
20-36
127
gravity and parity - abortion (A) is the number of losses before ___ weeks
20
128
_______ sign is the dark blue to purplish-red congested appearance of the vaginal mucosa
Chadwick's
129
______ sign is the softening of the uterus at junction with the cervix
Hegar's
130
Hegar;s signs occurs during the ____ trimester of pregnancy
1st
131
______ sign is the softening and cyanosis of the cervix on or after 4 weeks
Goodell's
132
1st recognition of fetal movement
quickening
133
quickening happens around ___ weeks at the 1st pregnancy, but ___ weeks if it isnt the 1st pregnncy
20, 16
134
Quantitative serum testing (beta Hcg) shows that you are pregnant if the Hcg is higher than ___
25
135
Naegle's Rule equation
LMP month - 3 = month
LMP day + 7 = day
136
more accurate way to date EDD if the mother has irregular periods
ultrasound
137
the ovum is fertile for ___ hours after ovulation
24
138
the first 1/3 of the _____ _____ is where fertilization occurs
fallopian tube
139
once the ovum is fertilized it creates a ______ _____ so other sperm cannot fertilize
protective cover
140
________ is achieved when the female and male pronucleus combine and fuse chromosomes
conception
141
mitotic cellular replication also known as cleavage occurs ___ hours after fertilization
30
142
implantation occurs within __ days of conception
6
143
ovum/pre embryonic phase is from conception to day ___
14
144
the developing fetus is an embryo from day ___ to ___ weeks after conception
15, 8
145
the developing fetus is a fetus from ___ weeks to birth
9
146
the placenta occurs by week ____
12
147
the developing fetus is most vulnerable to teratogens during the _____ phase
embryo
148
the _____ gland produces hormones that maintain pregnancy and support the embryo developing into a fetus
endocrine
149
hormone that preserves corpus luteum until 9 weeks
HCG
150
hormone that maintains endometrial lining and stimulates breast and alveoli development
progesterone
151
hormone that stimulates uterine growth and uterine-placental blood flow
estrogen
152
low HCG can lead to a _____
miscarriage
153
hormone that stimulates maternal metabolism/growth nutrients for fetal growth
human placental lactogen
154
fetal glucose concentration is ____ than maternal glucose concentration
less
155
metabolic waste from the fetus crosses the placenta so it can be excreted by the maternal ______
kidneys
156
special pathway that helps bypass the lungs of the fetus and allow the fetus to get oxygen
ductus arterious
157
O2-rich blood from the placenta goes to the ______ ____
umbilical vein
158
during pregnancy, the mother's heart moves ____ and ____
up and left
159
during pregnancy the heart slightly ______
hypertrophy
160
a heart _____ is common with pregnancy
murmur
161
an audible murmur where there is a split between S1 and S2 is audible after __- weeks
20
162
maternal cardiac output increases and peaks at ___ weeks
30
163
_____ ____ syndrome is caused by supine hypotension
vena cava
164
the maternal oxygen consumption increases by ___% during pregnancy
30
165
the enlarged uterus presses on the diaphragm and raises it ___ cm
4
166
during pregnancy, there is increased blood flow to the _______ area causing stuffy nose and bloody nose
nasopharynx
167
category ___ drugs have no risk to the fetus
A
168
category __ drugs have no human studies, but animal studies show no risk to the fetus
B
169
category ___ drugs show possible risk to the fetus because off of animal studies and are only given when the benefits outweigh the risks
C
170
category ___ drugs show risk for fetus through human studies and only given in extreme cases where the benefits outweigh the risks
D
171
Category ___ drugs show extreme risk to the fetus and the benefits never outweigh the risks
X
172
_______ twins come from 2 separate ovum being fertilized
dizygotic
173
_______ twins come from one ovum being fertilized and separating
monozygotic
174
in monozygotic twins, if the fertilized egg divides before 8 days there is ___ amnions, but after 8 days there is ___ amnion
2, 1
175
if the fertilized egg in monozygotic twins divides after ___ days the twins will be conjoined
13
176
delayed cord clamping can help with _____ and ____ stores
hemoglobin and iron
177
GBS is tested at ____ weeks
36
178
GBS is treated with 2 doses of _____
antibiotics
179
in the nitrazine test, amniotic fluid turns the nitrazine paper from _____ to ____
orange to blue
180
_____ test is when a collection of amniotic fluid can be seen in the vaginal fornix
pooling
181
______ test is when they place fluid from the vagina on a microscope slide and amniotic fluid crystallized
ferning
182
when the fetal head distends into the pelvis
lightning
183
5 P's of labor
Powers (contractions)
Passage (pelvis and birth canal)
Passenger (fetus)
Psyche (response of mother)
Position
184
the amount of descent above or below the ischial sPines
station
185
thinning of the cervix
effacement
186
opening of the cervix
dilation
187
normal presentation and position
facing backwards head first
188
normal position for birth - face down
direct occiput anterior (OA)
189
abnormal position for birth with face up
left occiput anterior (OP)
190
anxiety and fear can release ______ which can slow down or delay the labor process
catecholamines
191
first stage of labor
0-10 cm
192
latent phase of labor
0-5 cm
193
active phase of labor
6-10 cm
194
second stage of labor
full dilation to birth
195
third stage of labor
birth of baby to delivery of placenta
196
fourth stage of labor
postpartum
197
valsalva pushing (closed glottis) can lower ____ ____
cardiac output
198
check maternal VS every ____ while in labor
hour
199
if the water has been broken for over 24 hors then you are at a higher risk for _____
infection
200
maternal fever will cause fetal tachycardia which is a HR over ____ bpm
160
201
REEDA
redness
edema
ecchymosis
discharge
approximation
202
REEDA score of 0 means _____
healed
203
REEDA score of 1-5 means _____ _____
moderately healed
204
REEDA score of 6-10 means ______ _____
mildly healed
205
REEDA score of 11-15 means ____ ____
not healed
206
in the PP period you need to assess VS every ____ minutes for the first 2 hours
15
207
administer ___U/ml IM or IV of Pitocin after delivery
10
208
asses cord for 2 ____ and 1 ____
arteries, vein
209
light fingertip massage that can aid in relaxation during contraction
effleurage
210
you should od slow breathing in early labor and then once you get to ___ cm start quick breathing
8
211
before epidural bolus ____ to ___ ml LR
500-1000
212
leaking of CSF at site into dura mater causing headache
postdural puncture headache
213
pudenal nerve block is used to repair _____
episiotomy
214
pudenal nerve blocks use 1% _____
lidocaine
215
preterm labor labor is labor starting between ___ and ___ weeks
20 and 37
216
a very preterm birth is before ____ weeks
32
217
age of viability
24 weeks
218
a cervical length less than ____mm is a sign of preterm birth
30
219
if the fetal fibronectin test is ________ then it indicates a pre term labor/birth
negative
220
IM ______ is administered to decrease the chance of preterm birth
progesterone (makena)
221
IM progesterone (makena) is administered between ____ and ___ weeks to prevent preterm birth
16-36
222
medication given for pre term labor that helps prevent neonatal neurological morbidity
magnesium sulfate
223
for a women on tocolytics, you should decrease fluid intake to less than _____ ml a day
3000
224
medication class is given to suppress uterine activity and arrest labor after uterine contractions and cervical change has occurred
tocolytics
225
4 tocolytic medications
magnesium sulfate
terbutaline
nifedipine
indomethacin
226
4 contraindications of terbutaline
heart disease
preeclampsia
seizures
hyperthyroidism
227
antidote for terbutaline
propranolol
228
terbutaline can _______ heart rate and ______ BP
increase, decrease
229
terbutaline can cause ______ so you need to check blood sugars before administering
hyperglycemia
230
medication you cannot give with nifedipine
magnesium sulfate
231
4 s/e of nifedipine
headache
hypotension
flushing
dizziness
232
1st line tocolytic
indomethacin
233
only use indomethacin up to ____ weeks
32
234
glucocorticoid that produces surfactant for fetal lung maturity when preterm birth is imminent
betamethasone
235
betamethasone is ____ mg given IM in 2 doses ____ hours apart
12, 24
236
betamethasone can be given to any mother ____ to ____ weeks that is exspecting deliver within 7 days
24-37
237
betamethasone may cause ______ so check blood sugar or adjust insulin
hyperglycemia
238
rupture of membranes before onset of labor
prelabor rupture of membranes
239
most common maternal complication with PROM especially over 24 hours
chorioamnionitis
240
fetal complications with PROM
cord prolapse or compression
241
conservative management for preterm labor
delay birth
242
expectant management of preterm labor
birth
243
a cervical dilation greater than ___ cm will most likely lead to a preterm birth
4
244
bacterial infection of the amniotic sac
chorioamnionitis
245
if the mother has chorioamnionitis, the neonate is at higher risk for ______ and _____
pneumonia and menengitis
246
lack in progress in labor for any reason
dysfunctional labor (dystocia)
247
_______ uterine contractions are not strong enough or frequent enough to make chnage during labor
hypotonic
248
2 factors that can cause hypotonic
exhaustion and/or infection
249
when a mother is scared or nervous she can release _________ which inhibits uterine contractions
catecholamines
250
hypotonic contractions are more common in _______ women and hypertonic contractions are more common in _____ women
multiparous, primigravida
251
_______ contractions are strong and frequent, but are not coordinated
hypertonic
252
________ disorders are slower than normal progress in labor while ______ disorders are complete cessation of progress
protraction, arrest
253
a precipitous labor is a one that occurs less than ____ hour after the onset of contractions
3
254
precipitous labor is a result of ______ contractions
hypertonic
255
2 things precipitous birth and labor are associated with
cocaine use
placental abruption
256
the risk for shoulder dystocia increases when the baby is larger than ______g
4000
257
_______ maneuver is used during a shoulder dystocia and it is when the mother pulls her legs close to her chest
McRoberts
258
2 medications given for induction
- misoprostol (cytotec)
- dinoprostone (cervadil inserted)
259
stripping of the membranes releases _______ and _______ to help with induction of labor
prostaglandins and oxytocin
260
breaking the water with a hook device
amniotomy
261
a score of ____ or more on the Bishop Score is favorable for induction
8
262
pitocin is only started if the FHR has been documented and ______
reactive
263
when administering IV Pitocin, connect the line the ______ IV access
lowest
264
if the cord is prolapsed out of the vagina keep the cord _____
moist
265
cord prolapse greater than ____ minutes can lead to fetal hypoxia
5
266
manually separating the chorionic membrane from the lower uterine segment
stripping the membranes
267
when there is a cord prolapse administer oxygen at ___ L with a nonrebreather
10
268
if there is hypertonic contractions, you must perform _____ ______
intrauterine resuscitation
269
during hypertonic contractions reposition the pt. to ______ position
lateral
270
for hypertonic contractions administer IV bolus (500-100 ml) of _____ _____
lactated ringers
271
medication to give during hypertonic contractions
Terbutaline
272
lumps on the babies scalp caused by bleeding
cephalohematoma
273
lumps of babies scalp caused by edema/swelling
caput succedaneum
274
VBACs are common if the primary C-section was for a _________ problem
non-recurring
275
trial of labor is when the women is abserved in labor for ___ to ___ hours to see if the mother and baby can tolerate a VBAC
4-6
276
post-term pregnancy is one that lasts beyond ___ weeks
42
277
decision to incision time for C-sections
20 minutes
278
3 things that can make leopold;s maneuver less accurate
- obese mother
- poly
- anterior placenta
279
getal heart rate below ____ is bradycardia and above ____ is tachycardia
110, 160
280
fluctuations in baseline that are irregular in amplitude and frequency
variability
281
minimal variability
less than or equal to 5 bpm
282
moderate variability
6 - 25 bpm
283
marked variability
25 bpm +
284
normal contraction patter is every __ to ___ minutes lasting ____ to ___ seconds
2-3, 50-60
285
involution is the uterus should decrease ___ cm each day after delivery
1
286
delayed return of enlarged uterus to normal size and function after birth
subinvolution
287
first stage of lochia with dark/bright red blood
lochia rubia
288
lochia rubia should last up to __ days
4
289
seconds stage of lochia that is pinkish/brown discharge
lochia serosa
290
lochia serosa lasts for around __ days
12
291
last stage of lochia that is yellow/white discharge
lochia alba
292
lochia alba should last for ___ days to __ weeks
12, 6
293
Rubin's Postpartum Psychological Adaptions
1. taking in
2. taking hold
3. letting go
294
normal new born temp
36.5-37.5 (97.7-99.5)
295
normal newborn HR
120-160
296
normal newborn HR crying and sleeping
sleeping = 80-100
crying = 180
297
newborn normal respirations
30-60
298
