exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are some common symbiotic relationships exhibited by microbes? Give examples.

A

When two species benefit from each other, the symbiosis is called mutualism

A type of symbiosis in which one population harms another but remains unaffected itself is called amensalism

Commensalism, one organism benefits while the other is unaffected.

If neither of the symbiotic organisms is affected in any way, we call this type of symbiosis neutralism

A type of symbiosis in which one organism benefits while harming the other is called parasitism

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2
Q

What is our microbiota, and what types of relationships do they have with us? Why are they important to our health?

A

Our microbiota are all the microbes living on our epithelial tissue. Microbes can live on skin, mouth, gut, and vagina. Many of them have mutualistic relationship with us, such as the microbes in our gut to help break down food that our own mechanisms cannot break down. Some of them are commensalism, such as some microbes on the skin that eats dead skin cells, but has no effect to us. Some of the resident microbes are pathogenic, but as long as they are in balance with the beneficial microbes, in other words they are a small proportion compared to the beneficial microbes, then “good” and “bad” microbes can live together. Also, some beneficial microbes can be pathogenic if they grow out of number.

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3
Q

What is the name for when your microbiota is disrupted? How can it affect your health?

A

Dysbiosis is the term for a disrupted microbiota. It affects fundamental systems in our body, including but not limited to the nervous system, digestive system, respiratory system and the cardiovascular system. Examples of symptoms of dysbiosis include nausea, diarrhea, and bloating.

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4
Q

Can you give an example of beta-, gamma- and epsilon-proteobacteria? What characteristics does each class of bacteria share?

A

beta- Betaproteobacteria are eutrophs meaning that they require a large amounts of organic nutrients. Betaproteobacteria can grow in aerobic and anaerobic areas such as mammal intestines, they are fastidious (difficult to culture) they require high levels of moisture, nutrient supplements, and carbon dioxide. They are distinctly microaerophilic, meaning that they require low levels of oxygen.

gamma- he most diverse class of gram-negative bacteria is Gammaproteobacteria. It contains about 250 genera, which makes it the most genus-rich taxon of the Prokaryotes. This category involves many widely recognized diseases/pathogens such as; Pseudomonaceae family, order Vibrionales which includes Vibrio cholerae, The genus Legionella which includes L. pneumophila, the pathogen responsible for Legionnaires disease.

epsilon- he smallest class of Proteobacteria is Epsilonproteobacteria. they are a microaerophilic bacteria, well known pathogens in this class are Campylobacter which can cause food poisoning . the genus Helicobacter is apart of the normal stomach microbiota, it can survive in stomach acid , however it’s also one of the leading causes of chronic gastritis and ulcers of the stomach and duodenum and has been known to be linked to stomach cancer.

One thing they all share is that all protobacteria are gram-negative.

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5
Q

What are spirochetes, and why are their flagella special? Give a couple of examples.

A

Spirochetes are any group of spiral shaped bacteria. They can be serious pathogens that cause diseases such as syphilis, yaws, lyme disease, and relapsing fever. Their motility is different than most bacteria because they have endoflagella (flagella is located in the periplasm, the inner space between the inner and outer membranes). The flagella rotates in the periplasm causing the entire cell to rotate / undulate, allowing the spirochetes to swim easily through gel-like materials that hinger other flagellated organisms.

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6
Q

Which bacteria are common components of probiotics such as yogurt (Look at your yogurt nutrition label for more information)?

A

Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus,also more types of lactobacilli and bifidobacteria may be added. The bacteria convert the sugar in milk to lactic acid.

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7
Q

Discuss the arguments FOR and AGAINST the classification of viruses as living organisms.

A

It’s a very weird argument between viruses being a living thing and a non living thing.
The argument for it being alive:
They reproduce,
they have nucleic acid
Adapt to surrounding
have organization.
However the arguments against the it being alive are:
They cannot reproduce without a host cell (They cannot reproduce by themselves)
Not made of organelles
don’t make their own energy
and don’t have cell process.

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8
Q

Define the word “tropism” and explain how a virus like polio can be transmitted by food or water, but cause disease in the nervous system.

A

Polio is an enteric virus, meaning it is primarily spread through the fecal-oral route. If polio is transmitted by contaminated food or water, how can it cause damage to the nervous system, and how is this related to the concept of “tropism”? There are two youtube videos linked at the bottom I found helpful.

Tropism is essentially a term for the affinity of a virus to infect only particular types of cells. For polio, these are intestinal epithelial cells and motor neurons in the central nervous system. Polio starts infecting the body in intestinal epithelial cells, which are eventually lysed and release replicated poliovirus. Many of those viruses continue passing through the GI tract where they might infect other hosts through the fecal-oral route. Others might find their way into the lymphatic system and then to the bloodstream. Once in the bloodstream, they are able to move all over the body. For only an unlucky few (about 1 in 100) the virus will actually pass the blood-brain barrier and infect motor neurons in the central nervous system, causing weakness, and in severe cases paralysis.

Tropism plays an important role in the prognosis of those infected with polio. Because polio only infects cells in the intestinal epithelium and the CNS, the majority of people (70%) don’t experience any symptoms. Even if the virus enters the bloodstream, there’s very little damage that can be done outside of the CNS. In some patients (29%), mild and brief flu-like symptoms can be experienced due to the body’s immune response. For the unlucky 1% in which polio spreads to the CNS, neurological symptoms can occur; however, the virus only causes neurological symptoms related to movement and motor coordination. Because polio has an affinity for motor neurons specifically, it doesn’t infect other neurons that might cause cognitive or sensory impairment.

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9
Q

What is the “envelope” of a viral envelope? Where does it come from and what features are uniquely viral?

A

The viral envelope is a layer on the outside part of the capsid of some viruses. The formation of the envelope happens when the virus is released from the cell, it takes part of the host membrane with it, and then replace the host proteins with viral proteins.

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10
Q

What are bacteriophages? What do they look like? How might a bacteriophage (a virus that infects bacteria) be used to treat bacterial infections in humans?

A

Bacteriophages are the viruses that infect bacteria. Bacteriophage is injected in humans who have a bacterial infection. The bacteriophage can infect and kill the bacteria leaving the beneficial bacteria of the normal microbiota untouched.

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11
Q

What are the lytic cycle and lysogenic cycle of phages? What is lysogenic conversion? What is a temperate phage?

A

Lytic Cycle:

Including 5 stages:

1.Attachement: The phage attaches to the surface of the host

2.Penetration: The viral DNA enters the host cell

3.Biosynthesis: Phage DNA replicates and phage proteins are made.

4.Maturation: New Phage particles are assembled.

5.Lysis: The cell lyses, releasing the newly made phages.

Lysogenic Cycle:

Including 7 stages:

1.The phage infects a cell

2.The phage DNA becomes incorporated into the host genome.

3.The cell divides, and prophage DNA is passed on to daughter cells.

4.Under stressful conditions, the prophage DNA is excised from the bacterial chromosome and enters the lytic cycle

5.Phage DNA replicates and phage proteins are made.

6.New Phage particles are assembled

7.The cell lyses, releasing the newly made phages.

Temperate phage is the ability of some bacteriophages to display a lysogenic life cycle. Many temperate phages can integrate their genomes into their host bacterium’s chromosome, together becoming a lysogen (a condition in which the host chromosome carries viral DNA) as the phage genome becomes a prophage. These phages can infect bacterial cell but rarely cause lysis.

Lysogenic conversion - when a bacterium acquires a new trait from its temperate phage. In lysogenic conversion, the phage inserts specific characteristics into the bacterial genes causing the bacteria to have better survival.

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12
Q

What is a latent virus infection? What is the relationship between chickenpox and shingles?

A

A latent virus infection is a viral infection that is dormant, or currently inactive. In this state, it no longer produces new viral phages, but stays in the host cells potentially for many years.

An example of this is the Varicella zoster virus; its primary infection causes the chickenpox early in life, but once this initial infection clears up, the virus can still reside in the nerve cells of the patient. Varicella zoster can become active later in the patient’s life, causing shingles.

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13
Q

Describe other noncellular infectious agents such as prion and viroids. Give some examples of prion diseases in humans and in animals.

A

Viroids are infectious entities that affect plants. They’re smaller than the smallest known virus and only contain 200-400 base pairs. They consist of only nucleic acid and are absent of a protein coat. Prions are infectious proteins that are misfolded and can transmit their misfolded shape to other functioning proteins. An example of prion disease in cattle is mad-cow disease and in humans, there is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease, or CJD, a rapid neurodegenerative disease.

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14
Q

Do you know the evolutionary progression of MRSA? Briefly explain.

A

MRSA is a strain of s. aureus that has . developed a resistance to most antibiotics. MRSA is mostly spread from skin to skin contact but can also be spread from objects the infected individual has came into. MRSA undergoes genetic mutation which helps it to evolve in resistance

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15
Q

Know a few virulence factors of MRSA. How does protein A work?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) strains are very serious and can be potentially lethal pathogens that posses virulence mechanisms including toxins, adhesions, enzymes, and immunomodulators. One of these is Panton-Valentine leukocidin (PVL), a toxin associated with abscess formation and severe necrotizing pneumonia. Another one is phenol soluble modulins (PSMs), which are produced by most staphylocci and have the ability to attack human neutrophils (type of white blood cell).

Protein A interferes with the host’s B-cells within their immune system to prevent S. aureus from being phagocytosed and destroyed.

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16
Q

How are impetigo and SSSS different? What are the main toxins responsible?

A

SSSS mostly affects newborns and babies where exotoxins cause blisters and large scale skin peeling. Impetigo is a highly contagious condition commonly in children, where exotoxins cause peeling skin, crusty and flaky scabs around the mouth, face, and extremities.

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17
Q

What do the terms metabolism, catabolism and anabolism refer to?

A

Metabolism is the sum of both catabolism and anabolism. It refers to the total chemical reactions that are in living organisms.

Catabolism is the breaking down of larger molecules into smaller ones, such as glycolysis of carbohydrates.

Anabolism is the opposite, where it refers to the building up of larger molecules from smaller ones, such as synthesizing ribosomes.

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18
Q

How do we categorize organisms based on their carbon and energy sources?

A

Autotrophs: These organisms are able to synthesize their own organic compounds using inorganic carbon sources such as carbon dioxide (CO2). Autotrophs can be further divided into two types:
Photoautotrophs: These organisms use light as their energy source for photosynthesis. Examples include plants, algae, and cyanobacteria.
Chemoautotrophs: These organisms obtain energy from chemical reactions involving inorganic compounds, such as hydrogen sulfide (H2S) or ammonia (NH3). Examples include some bacteria and archaea.
Heterotrophs: These organisms obtain organic compounds and energy by consuming other organisms or organic matter. Heterotrophs can be further divided into two types:
Photoheterotrophs: These organisms use light as their energy source but cannot synthesize their own organic compounds. Instead, they obtain organic compounds from other organisms or the environment. Examples include some bacteria and algae.
Chemoheterotrophs: These organisms obtain both energy and organic compounds from other organisms or the environment. Examples include animals, fungi, and many bacteria.

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19
Q

What are redox reactions? Do you know who loses electrons and who gains them?

A

A redox reaction includes a reduction and an oxidation. The reducing agent LOSES electrons and reduces the other compound, while the oxidizing agent GAINS electrons and oxidizes the other compound. An example of a redox reaction is combustion.

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20
Q

What is the structure of ATP, and how does this make it a high energy molecule? What are activated carriers?

A

The structure of ATP is an Adenine molecule, a ribose molecule and three bonded phosphate groups. ATP is a high energy molecule because it provides energy that is stored between the second and third phosphate group. Activated carriers are small molecules that contain high energy bonds and energy can be easily exchangeable and some examples are ATP, NAD+ and NADPH.

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21
Q

How do enzymes work? What is the induced fit model?

A

Enzymes are biological catalysts that lowers a reaction’s activation energy. They help facilitate chemical reactions within the cell. They increase the rate of chemical reactions in the human body but does not create a reaction. They are essential for respiration, digestion, muscle and nerve functions.

The induced fit model is the active site of an enzyme the undergoes conformational change upon a substrate binding to be able to improve the fit.

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22
Q

What can you add to an “apoenzyme” to make it a “holoenzyme”? Name two different categories that fit this description!

A

An apoenzyme is an enzyme missing a cofactor or coenzyme that will allow it to be activated. Adding a cofactor (an inorganic ion) or coenzyme (an organic helper molecule) will change the shape of the enzyme allowing it to bind with its particular substrate and become activated. Holoenzymes are enzymes with their associated cofactors or coenzymes that allow them to be active and bind with a substrate so adding a cofactor or coenzyme would turn an apoenzyme into a holoenzyme. An example of a coenzyme is coenzyme a used in respiration as well as NADH and ATP.

One example of something that would also increase the effectiveness of an enzyme is an allosteric activator which binds to allocation on the enzyme away from the active site (where the reaction takes place) and changes the shape of the enzyme allowing the holoenzyme to bind with its substrates.

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23
Q

What is the difference between a competitive inhibitor and a non-competitive inhibitor? How do cells use non-competitive inhibition to regulate metabolic pathways?

A

Competitive inhibitors are inhibitors that compete with the substrate for the same enzyme whereas non-competitive inhibitors bind to an allosteric site of an enzyme, which changes the shape of the enzyme, thus disabling the enzyme. Cells use non-competitive inhibition to regulate metabolic pathways by setting the final product of the metabolic pathway as the non-competitive inhibitor. In the presence of sufficient final products, the metabolic pathway will be disabled and no more substrates will be made.

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24
Q

How many molecules of ATP, NADH, and pyruvate are formed by the end of glycolysis? What is substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

At the end of glycolysis, 2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvate are formed. Substrate-level phosphorylation is when a phosphate group is removed from an organic molecule and is directly transferred to an available ADP molecule, producing ATP. This usually occurs in the cytoplasm of cells during glycolysis and in the mitochondria during Krebs cycle.

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25
Q

What are the products of the transition reaction? How many NADH and FADH2 are produced in ONE TURN of the Kreb’s cycle? How many ATP are produced per NADH? FADH2? How many ATP are produced in one turn?

A

The transition reaction connects glycolysis to the citric acid (Krebs) cycle. The transition reaction converts the two molecules of the 3-carbon pyruvate from glycolysis (and other pathways) into two molecules of the

-2-carbon molecule acetyl Coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) and

-2 molecules of carbon dioxide

One turn of Kreb’s cycle produces 3 NADH and 1 FADH2

The oxidation of one molecule of NADH thus leads to the synthesis of 2.5 molecules of ATP, whereas the oxidation of FADH2, which enters the electron transport chain at complex II, yields only 1.5 ATP molecules

About (30-32) ATP are produced in one turn (break down 1 glucose molecule)

If you have time, please check out the link below. It helped me to understanding the concept a little more. The length of video is about 15 minutes long.

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26
Q

As electrons are passed down the electron transport chain, their energy is used to do what? Use “gradient” and ATP-synthase in your answer! Define “proton motive force”. What is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

As electrons are passed down the electron transport chain their energy is used to concentrate Hydrogen in the inner membrane space of the mitochondria and pump protons across the membrane. They do this by using the gradient to drive ATP synthase and the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Pi. Proton motive force is a force that promotes the proton’s movement across membranes down their electrochemical potential.

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27
Q

How is anaerobic respiration different from aerobic (cellular) respiration?

A

Cellular respiration always begins with glycolysis, which can occur either in the absence or presence of oxygen. Cellular respiration that proceeds in the absence of oxygen is anaerobic respiration. Cellular respiration that proceeds in the presence of oxygen is aerobic respiration.

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28
Q

Do you know the locations of these metabolic pathways in prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic cells?

A

Prokaryotic cell:

Glycolysis - occurs in the cytoplasm

Krebs cycle - occurs in the matrix of mitochondria

Electron Transport Chain - happens across the plasma membrane

Eukaryotic cell:

Glycolysis - occurs in the cytoplasm

Krebs cycle - occurs in the cytoplasm

Electron Transport Chain - happens across the inner membrane of mitochondrion

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29
Q

What is the main purpose of fermentation, and why is it necessary? Describe two main types of fermentation. What are the starting materials and what are the products in both cases?

A

Fermentation allows glucose to be continuously broken down to make ATP due to the recycling of NADH to NAD+. (Without fermentation, the electron carrier would be full of electrons, the entire process would back up, and no ATP would be produced.)
There are two types of fermentation, alcoholic and lactic acid. Fermentation follows glycolysis in the absence of oxygen. Alcoholic fermentation produces ethanol, carbon dioxide, and NAD+. Lactic acid fermentation produces lactic acid (lactate) and NAD+.

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30
Q

What is bacterial cell division called? What is the sequence of events?

A

Bacterial cell division is called binary fission. There are four steps. Step 1 is when the parent cell uncoils and replicates its chromosome. During step 2, the parent cell grows larger, increases its cytoplasmic content, and the two strands of chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of the cell. Step 3 is when the parent cell elongates with a septum forming in the middle and separates the two chromosomes. During step 4, a new wall is formed and the cell splits at the center, making two new daughter cells.

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31
Q

Understand the four phases of a growth curve. When are bacteria most vulnerable to physical or chemical agents?

A

Lag phase: Newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, which represents a flat growth period.

Log phase (exponential growth): Cells are exponentially growing while nutrients are adequate. This phase is best for research work.

Stationary phase: Nutrients are depleting and waste is accumulating causing the number of cells being born and the number of cells dying to be at equal.

Death phase: Cells are dying at a exponential rate because of too much waste build up.

Bacteria most vulnerable to physical or chemical agents during the log phase.

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32
Q

What are some ways to analyze bacterial population size? List direct and indirect methods.

A

The use of light microscope to count the cell is called direct method, whereas using a spectrophotometer for the determination of activity of bacterial cell is called indirect method.

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33
Q

What kind of relationship do bacteria in a biofilm have? How do they communicate with each other?

A

Biofilms provide a protected environment for bacteria and helps bacteria with resisting things such as antibiotics. It helps bacteria thrive in harsh environments ultimately. I would say the relationship is one of commensalism because bacteria benefits, but the biofilm isn’t affected.

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34
Q

What are the different oxygen categories of microbes? Do you know the difference between facultative anaerobes and aerotolerant microbes?

A

Obligate aerobes : These microbes require oxygen for their survival and growth. They use oxygen in respiration to generate energy for cellular processes.
Obligate anaerobes: These microbes cannot tolerate oxygen and can only survive and grow in the absence of oxygen.
Facultative anaerobes: These microbes can survive and grow in the presence or absence of oxygen. They can use oxygen when it is available but can also switch to anaerobic metabolism when oxygen is limited.
Aerotolerant Anaerobes: These microbes do not use oxygen for respiration but can tolerate its presence. They generate energy through fermentation, which does not require oxygen
Microaerophiles: (“Goldilocks”) These microbes require low levels of oxygen for their survival and growth. They have adapted to live in environments where the oxygen concentration is lower than atmospheric levels. They require a minimum level of oxygen for growth, about 1%–10%, well below the 21% found in the atmosphere.
Facultative anaerobes can use fermentation or respiration, while aerotolerant anaerobes can only use fermentation.

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35
Q

What are the different pH categories? Do you know a few examples?

A

he different pH categories are: less than 7 pH are acidic, pH of 7 is neutral, and more than 7 pH is alkaline or basic. Examples include pure water ( pH 7), urine( pH 6), gastric acid( pH 1).

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36
Q

Which bacterium would theoretically be more likely to grow at refrigerator temperatures: a human intestinal pathogen or a soil-borne plant pathogen? Explain WHY!

A

Soil borne pathogens can grow in different temperatures depending on their environments so it would easily grow in a refrigerator temperature due to it being easy to adapt.

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37
Q

Explain how salt and sugar can act as a preservative. A complete answer will contain the words osmotic pressure.

A

Salt and sugar act as preservatives by creating a high osmotic pressure environment that is inhospitable to microorganisms. This inhibits their growth and prevents spoilage of food products.

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38
Q

A prokaryotic cell hitched a ride to Earth on a space shuttle from some unknown planet. The organism is a psychrophile, halophile, and an obligate aerobe. Based on the characteristics of the microbe, describe the conditions on the planet it came from.

A

Because the organism is a psychrophile, halophile, and an obligate aerobe, a lot can be determined about the conditions of the planet it came from. Because it is a psychrophile, we know it’s planet has relatively low temperatures (<20 degrees C). Because it is also a halophile, the environment of its home planet must have a really high salt or saline content. And because it’s an obligate aerobe, we know that there had to be the presence of oxygen on the planet.

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39
Q

How are complex media different from chemically defined media? Can you tell them apart by looking at the ingredients of a medium?

A

Complex media contain extracts and digests of yeasts, meat, or plants. The chemical composition is not known in complex media. Chemically defined media, however, has a known chemical composition and are usually composed of pure biochemicals off the shelf.

Since the differences between the two medias are due to chemical composition, it would not be possible to tell them apart just by looking at them through our normal eyes.

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40
Q

What are general purpose, enriched, selective and differential media? Give some examples of each.

A

General purpose media can be used to grow a broad spectrum of microorganisms. Some examples are nutrient agar (NA) and trypticase soy agar (TSA).

Enriched media contains nutrients or growth factors for growing fastidious microbes. Some examples are blood agar and chocolate agar.

Selective media contains ingredients to inhibit the growth of certain microbes in order to isolate a specific type of microorganism. Examples are MAC (MacConkey agar) and PEA (phenylethyl alcohol agar).

Differential media allows multiple organisms to grow but display difference in their growth, for example, color differences. Some examples of differential media include MSA (mannitol salt agar) and MAC (MacConkey agar).

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41
Q

What are the main CNS protections?

A

The CNS is protected by structures including the skull, spinal vertebrae, meninges, and cerebrospinal fluid.

42
Q

What does ‘immunologically privileged’ mean when it comes to the nervous system? Is it good or bad?

A

The CNS is a vital structure that needs to be prioritized, or “privileged”. Immunologically privileged refers to the absence of a “normal” inflammatory immune response that could cause damage. Sites of immune privilege include the eyes, brain and central nervous system, placenta/uterus and testis.

43
Q

Does the CNS have normal biota? Briefly explain.

A

Since the blood-brain barrier excludes most microbes, there is no normal microbiota in the CNS

44
Q

How is rabies transmitted? What are the main reservoirs in the US compared to the rest of the world?

A

Rabies is zoonotic it is transmitted from animals that have the virus to human beings. The main reservoirs in the United States are usually bats, raccoon, skunks, foxes etc. and other non domesticated animals. While in other countries such as Africa and Asia there a lot more rabies mortality; maybe due to lack of vaccination in pet population.

45
Q

How does the disease progress? What are some virulence factors of rabies?

A

One important factor is the location of the initial site of infection. The closer it is to our brain, the higher the risk, due to the way rabies progress.

The rabies virus will initially spread within the muscle tissue of the bite, and then slowly into the peripheral nervous system.

Once it reaches the central nervous system, it will cause encephalitis, or inflammation of the brain. Once the virus enters the Central nervous system, it will spread out to nearby tissue, such as tear ducts, taste buds, nasal cavity, and salivary glands. This allows the virus to be transmitted to other hosts.

46
Q

What is the ‘central dogma’? Draw a mini-concept map to illustrate the steps, players (enzymes, etc.) and cellular locations for prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

A

The central dogma of molecular biology is a theory stating that genetic information flows only in one direction, from DNA, to RNA, to protein, or RNA directly to protein.

47
Q

Explain (use pictures if it helps!) why Okazaki fragments form on the lagging strand during DNA replication.

A

Okazaki fragments form on the lagging strand during DNA replication is due to the antiparallel nature of DNA. The lagging strand, complementary to the 5’ to 3’ parental DNA, grows away from the replication fork, so the polymerase must move back toward the replication fork to begin adding bases to a new primer, again in the direction away from the replication fork. It does so until it bumps into the previously synthesized strand and then it moves back again. These steps produce small DNA sequence fragments known as Okazaki fragments, each separated by RNA primer.

48
Q

Compare the speed of DNA replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Why is it slower in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes?

A

DNA replication in Eukaryotes is slower than in prokaryotes for many reasons. The most obvious is that eukaryotic genomes are larger and more complex than prokaryotic genomes and often consist of multiple linear chromosomes that are supercoiled and need to be unwound before replication can take place. Prokaryotic genomes are circular and less highly supercoiled than eukaryotic. Prokaryotic DNA replication has only one single origin of replication while Eukaryotic replication has many. Another reason that DNA replication is slower in Eukaryotes is that their DNA replication takes place within the nucleus, a much smaller environment than the cytoplasm of prokaryotic replication.

49
Q

Where does transcription happen in prokaryotic vs. eukaryotic cells? What is the template, and what is being made? What is the main enzyme?

A

In prokaryotic cells, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm since prokaryotes lack a distinct nucleus. The template for transcription in prokaryotic cells is the single-stranded DNA present in the cytoplasm, which serves as the genetic material of the cell. During transcription, an RNA polymerase enzyme binds to the promoter region of the DNA template and synthesizes a complementary RNA molecule, which serves as the template for protein synthesis.

In eukaryotic cells, transcription occurs in the nucleus, where the DNA is contained within the nuclear envelope. The template for transcription in eukaryotic cells is also the DNA, which is double-stranded and packaged into chromatin. Before transcription can occur, the chromatin structure must be modified to allow access to the DNA template. During transcription, RNA polymerase II is the primary enzyme responsible for synthesizing mRNA molecules from DNA templates in eukaryotic cells.

The main product of transcription is a complementary RNA molecule, which can either be used directly to synthesize proteins or undergo further processing (e.g., splicing, capping, and polyadenylation) to form mature mRNA. The mature mRNA is then exported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where it is translated into a protein by ribosomes.

50
Q

What are the roles of “promoter” and “terminator”? Who binds to the promoter?

A

The promoter is a sequence that initiates the binding of RNA polymerase (and so, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter). The terminator is a sequence that indicates the completion of the transcription process.

51
Q

What is RNA processing in eukaryotic cells? What purpose does it serve?

A

RNA processing is the term collectively used to describe the sequence of events through which the primary transcript from a gene acquires its mature form. Very soon after synthesis by RNA polymerase II begins, pre-messenger RNAs transcribed from eukaryotic nuclear protein-coding genes acquire a 5׳ cap structure.

52
Q

What is the genetic code? What molecule carries the codon, and what molecule carries the anticodon? What does ‘redundancy’ mean when it comes to genetic code?

A

The genetic code typically refers to DNA, and consists of many different “genes”, each coding for a single protein. The codon is a sequence of three nucleotide bases present on the mRNA that codes for a single amino acid. An anti-codon consists of the complementary base pairs to its codon and is present on the tRNA. The anti-codon will bind to the codon on the mRNA as a part of a process that adds consecutive amino acids to complete a protein sequence.

Redundancy refers to the ability of multiple codons to code for the same amino acid. This is an evolutionarily advantageous adaptation considering that point mutations may not necessarily change the amino acid that is coded for and thus not always change the structure or function of the resulting protein.

53
Q

Do you know the functions of the large and small subunits of ribosomes? What are the 3 sites for tRNAs? Where does translation start, and where does it end?

A

Ribosomes contain two different subunits, both of which are required for translation. The small subunit (“40S” in eukaryotes) decodes the genetic message and the large subunit (“60S” in eukaryotes) catalyzes peptide bond formation.

Three binding sites for tRNA, called the aminoacyl site (A site), peptidyl site (P site), and exit site (E site), have been identified on both the large and small subunit

Translation ends in a process called termination. Termination happens when a stop codon in the mRNA (UAA, UAG, or UGA) enters the A site. Stop codons are recognized by proteins called release factors, which fit neatly into the P site (though they aren’t tRNAs).

54
Q

What are polyribosomes? Why can translation begin before transcription is complete in prokaryotes, but not eukaryotes?

A

Prokaryotic transcription occurs in the cytoplasm alongside translation. Prokaryotic transcription and translation can occur simultaneously. This is impossible in eukaryotes, where transcription occurs in a membrane-bound nucleus while translation occurs outside the nucleus in the cytoplasm.

a cluster of ribosomes linked together by a molecule of messenger RNA and forming the site of protein synthesis.

55
Q

What are the three possible effects on the cell (or organism) when a mutation occurs in DNA? Which ones are most common? Which one is rare?

A

Point mutations changes the third nucleotide of a codon, more often than not this will result in the same amino acid being incorporated into the peptide chain, resulting in a silent mutation, meaning no real harm was done, making them often neutral mutations. These are the most common mutations.

They however could incorporate a stop codon where it is not meant to be, resulting in a incomplete polypeptide chain.

missense mutation on the other hand does result in a different amino acid being incorporated into the polypeptide chain, the effect it depends highly on what chemically different the incorrect amino acid being incorporated is from it’s wild type (correct amino acid). It would also be worse if the incorrect amino acid is incorporated into an active site. Conditional mutations, which are missense mutations that only come into play under certain environmental conditions, although rare this kind of mutation can sometime result in beneficial advantages.
Beneficial is the least common

frameshift mutations which can be caused by insertions or deletions of nucleotides that break the 3 base pair codon system are always very harmful mutation. This result in ribosomes reading entirely incorrect code from start to finish. The resulting proteins are completely non functional.

56
Q

What is the difference between a “point missense mutation” and a “frameshift” mutation? Which one is likely to cause bigger problems for the cell or organism?

A

Frame-shift mutations occur when a base is added or removed from the sequence. Non-sense mutations create a stop codon, which can prevent the protein from being produced entirely, while missense mutations result in the substitution of one amino acid for another.
Frameshift is more problematic

57
Q

How are gene regulations different in prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells? What is the difference between constitutive expression and regulated expression of a gene? Give an example of each type of gene.

A

What is the main difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic gene regulation? Groups of eukaryotic genes are likely to be regulated together, whereas each prokaryotic gene is usually regulated separately.
Constitutive genes are always being expressed (usually at a basal/regular level) but regulated genes are only expressed under certain necessary conditions in order to save cellular energy.

58
Q

Understand the logic and mechanisms of how the lac operon is regulated by glucose and lactose. What is the role of the repressor, operator and promoter?

A

The lac repressor protein binds to the operator and blocks RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and transcribing the operon. The promoter is the binding site for RNA polymerase, the enzyme that performs transcription. The operator is a negative regulatory site bound by the lac repressor protein.

59
Q

What is meningitis, and what are some signs and symptoms?

A

Meningitis is the inflammation of brain and spinal cord membranes. It can be caused viral, bacterial or fungal infection. Bacterial meningitis is one of the most serious form of meningitis.

60
Q

What causes meningococcal meningitis? What are some characteristics of the bacterium?

A

Bacteria called Neisseria meningitidis cause meningococcal disease. About 1 in 10 people have these bacteria in the back of their nose and throat without being ill. This is called being ‘a carrier. ‘ Sometimes the bacteria invade the body and cause certain illnesses, which are known as meningococcal disease.

61
Q

What are some virulence factors of N. meningitidis? How do they work?

A

The virulence (14) of N. meningitidis is influenced by multiple factors: capsule polysaccharide expression, expression of surface adhesive proteins (outer membrane proteins including pili, porins PorA and B, adhesion molecules Opa and Opc), iron sequestration mechanisms, and endotoxin (lipooligosaccharide, LOS). N.

62
Q

How is meningococcal meningitis transmitted? Where is the meningitis belt located?

A

People spread meningococcal bacteria to other people by sharing respiratory and throat secretions (saliva or spit). Generally, it takes close (for example, coughing or kissing) or lengthy contact to spread these bacteria. Fortunately, they are not as contagious as germs that cause the common cold or the flu.

The meningitis belt of sub-Saharan Africa runs across the continent from Senegal to Ethiopia. This region is prone to major epidemics of meningococcal meningitis, with a high case fatality and serious sequelae that place a heavy strain on national and local health services.

63
Q

How is meningitis usually diagnosed? What about treatment and prevention?

A

Diagnosis. If a doctor suspects meningitis, they will collect samples of blood or cerebrospinal fluid (fluid near the spinal cord). A laboratory will test the samples to see what is causing the infection. Knowing the specific cause of meningitis helps doctors treat it.

Acute bacterial meningitis must be treated right away with intravenous antibiotics and sometimes corticosteroids. This helps to ensure recovery and reduce the risk of complications, such as brain swelling and seizures. The antibiotic or combination of antibiotics depends on the type of bacteria causing the infection.

64
Q

Which of the following refers to the type of interaction between two prokaryotic populations in which one population benefits and the other is not affected?

A

commensalism

65
Q

Which of the following statements about Neisseria is false?

A

They are strictly aerobic

66
Q

Spirochetes cause the following diseases except for:

A

Chlamydia

67
Q

Match each bacterial genus with the best description of its morphology.

A

Clostridium gram positive rods

Streptococcus chains or pairs of cocci

Staphylococcus clusters of cocci

68
Q

The envelope of a virus is derived from the host’s:

A

membrane structures

69
Q

What is an example of a chronic infection?

A

HIV

70
Q

Match the events that are specific for lytic cycle, lysogenic cycle, or both.

A

Active synthesis of phage DNA and proteins lytic cycle

Phage attaches to the host cell (attachment) both

New phages released, killing host cell lytic cycle

Phage DNA incorporated into the host genome lysogenic

Phage DNA injected into host cell (penetration) both

New phage particles assembled lytic cycle

71
Q

Which of the following are signs of an animal cell infected by a virus? Check all that apply.

A

vacuoles in the cytoplasm

inclusion body in the cytoplasm

changes in cell shape

72
Q

Which of the following are organic molecules that help enzymes work correctly?

A

Electron carriers (NADH and FADH2)

73
Q

What is the theoretical maximum number of ATP molecules that are produced by aerobic respiration if glucose is the energy source?

A

38

74
Q

Which of the following statements about fermentation is TRUE?

A

Microbes can be differentiated according to the substrates they are able to or unable to ferment.

75
Q

During which phase would penicillin, an antibiotic that inhibits cell-wall synthesis, be most effective?

A

log phase

76
Q

While ____ is able to detoxify a reactive oxygen species, it also produces one, hydrogen peroxide.

A

Superoxide dismutase

77
Q

Bacteria isolated from Lake Natron, where the water pH is close to 10, are which of the following?

A

alkaliphiles

78
Q

A soup container was forgotten in the refrigerator and shows contamination. The contaminants are probably which of the following?

A

Psychrotrophs

79
Q

Bacteria living in salt marshes are most likely which of the following?

A

Halotolerant

80
Q

Cells are always producing proteins from every gene they possess.

A

False

81
Q

Which of the following enzymes involved in DNA replication is unique to eukaryotes?

A

telomerase

82
Q

What are the three different regions of a gene?

A

Promoter, coding region, and terminator

83
Q

Each codon within the genetic code encodes a different amino acid.

A

False

84
Q

Which of the following is an example of a frameshift mutation?

A

deletion of one nucleotide

85
Q

Malaria is caused by a:

A

Protozoan

86
Q

E. coli serotype O157:H7 infection may cause severe life-threatening symptoms such as hemorrhagic colitis. Most of the symptoms arise due to the Shiga like toxin, which has a genetic similarity with Shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae. Why do scientists think that the Origin of the Shiga toxin gene is from Shigella species that cause dysentery, a disease with a similar symptom?

A

Because both genera are evolutionarily related, and the same bacteriophage can transduce pieces of DNA between the species.

87
Q

What is an example of an activator of a repressor protein?

A

tryptophan

88
Q

Which of the following scenarios was created through genetic engineering?

A

The gene that codes for insulin production was inserted into a bacterium and then the bacterium is used to produce insulin.

89
Q

Which of the following scenarios was created through genetic engineering?

A

The gene that codes for insulin production was inserted into a bacterium and then the bacterium is used to produce insulin.

90
Q

Which of the following techniques is used to visualize DNA?

A

Southern blot

91
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of gene therapy?

A

The introduction of a non-mutated and functional gene into a patient’s DNA.

S. aureus skin infections usually happens when skin is broken, causing raised, red bumps localized around the hair follicles. These bumps are usually pus-filled, or purulent.

SSSS mostly affects newborns and babies, in which exotoxins cause blisters and large scale skin peeling.

Impetigo is a highly contagious condition common in children, in which exotoxins cause peeling skin, crusty and flaky scabs around the mouth, face and extremities.

92
Q

To prevent transmission, a person with an active MRSA infection should:

A

Keep the lesion covered

93
Q

Nerve cells form long projections called ________.

A

axons

94
Q

Order the following structures from the outside (close to the skull) to the inside (close to the brain).

A

skull
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
subarachnoid mater
Pia matter
Brain

95
Q

Rabies is one of the few diseases that can be treated with both passive and active immunizations. Why is that?

A

The slow spread of the virus in the peripheral allows time for the patient’s immune system to be activated.

The rabies virus is a(n) enveloped RNA virus. After infection, the virus replicates slowly in the peripheral, and rapidly in the CNS.

96
Q

Who should be getting the meningitis vaccination? Check all that apply

A

young people serving in military
travelers visiting the ‘meningitis belt’
young people living in dorms
16 year old for booster
11-12 year old children

97
Q

N. meningitidis can only grow on chocolate agar and not on regular nutrient agar. What does this mean about its nutritional requirements? Check all that apply.

A

It needs additional nutrients for growth
It is fastidious

Which of the following are potential reasons why the prevalence of N. meningitidis infections is high in the ‘meningitis belt’? Check all that apply.

These SSA countries have overcrowding and low standards of living
Citizens in these SSA countries may suffer malnutrition
Citizens in these SSA countries may have low immunocompetence
These SSA countries have dry, dusty climate

98
Q

What types of microbes live in the intestines?

A

Diverse species of bacteria, archaea, and fungi, especially Bacteroides and Firmicutes bacteria

99
Q

The absence of Listeria 16S rRNA detected from the amniotic fluid culture means that the fetus is not infected with Listeria.

A

True

100
Q

It is common for Listeria to be antibiotics-resistant.

A

False