exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

intrinsic control of the GIT

A

enteric nervous system
GI hormones

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2
Q

extrinsic control of the GIT

A

vagus n.
splanchnic n.
non-GI hormones

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3
Q

where is the enteric nervous system located

A

in the GI wall

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4
Q

located b/w the submucosa and circular m.
regulates mucus secretion and food absorption

A

plexus submucosus

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5
Q

located in the muscularis externa b/w the muscle layers
controls of tone and contraction rhythm

A

plexus myentericus

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6
Q

the muscle bundles of the enteric nervous system connect with one another through

A

gap junctions

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7
Q

enteric neurons secrete neurotransmitters from

A

varicosities

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8
Q

which type of sensory nerve cell recognizes stretching of the intestinal wall or volume changes

A

mechanosensitive cells

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9
Q

which type of sensory nerve cell detects the presence of nutrients in the GI lumen, changes in osmolarity and changes in the pH

A

chemosensitive cells

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10
Q

where do the axons of sensory nerve cells travel to

A

enteric nerve cells and CNS

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11
Q

interneurons send signals to ___

A

motor neurons

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12
Q

muscle motor neurons are located in the ____

A

plexus myentericus

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13
Q

secretory motor neurons are located in the ___

A

plexus submucosus

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14
Q

____ motor neurons are located in both plexuses; they regulate the tone of blood vessels

A

vaso motor neurons

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15
Q

non-noradrenergic, non-cholinergic (NANC) neurotransmitters include

A

NO
VIP
substance P
ATP

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16
Q

NANC inhibitory; reduces GIT motility

A

NO

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17
Q

NANC inhibitory; relaxes sm. m sphincters
possibly stimulatory to secretory glands

A

VIP

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18
Q

NANC excitatory; inc secretion and GIT motility

A

substance P

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19
Q

which SNS neurotransmitter inhibits GI activity

A

norepinephrine

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20
Q

which PSNS neurotransmitter excites GI activity

A

acetylcholine

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21
Q

visceral afferents are stimulated by:

A

irritation of gut mucosa
excessive gut distention
presence of specific chemical substances in the gut

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22
Q

____ fibers of the PSNS become integrated with fibers of the ENS

A

pre-ganglionic

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23
Q

PSNS post-ganglionic neurotransmitters are

A

acetylcholine
VIP
NO

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24
Q

SNS post-ganglionic neurotransmitter

A

noradrenaline

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25
Q

the frequency of slow waves determines

A

rhythm of GI contractions

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26
Q

AP of the GIT; occur when the RMP of the GI sm. m. becomes more positive than -40mV

A

spike potentials

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27
Q

slow waves originate in specialized smooth muscle cells called _____; “electrical pacemaker” for smooth muscle cells

A

interstitial cells of cajal (ICC)

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28
Q

stimuli for depolarization in the GIT

A

stretching
Ach release
GI hormones

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29
Q

stimulus for hyperpolarization in the GIT

A

NEPI and EPI

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30
Q

which reflexes are integrated entirely within the gut wall

A

control of GI secretion
peristalsis
formation of mixing contractions
local inhibitory effects

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31
Q

reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia

A

gastrocolic reflex
enterogastric reflex
colonoileal reflex

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32
Q

signals from the stomach that cause evacuation of the colon

A

gastrocolic reflex

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33
Q

signals from the colon and small intestine to inhibit stomach motility and stomach secretion

A

enterogastric reflex

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34
Q

signals from the colon that inhibit emptying of ileal contents into the colon

A

colonoileal reflex

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35
Q

reflexes that travel from the gut to the spinal cord or brainstem

A

gastric motor and secretory activity
pain reflexes
defecation reflex

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36
Q

during peristalsis, how are the muscles behind the site of distension

A

longitudinal relaxed
circular contracts

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37
Q

during peristalsis, how are the muscles distal to the site of distension

A

longitudinal contracts
circular relaxed

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38
Q

during peristalsis, contraction of which muscle moves the chyme

A

circular

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39
Q

contraction of muscles during peristalsis occurs when motor neurons release

A

Ach and substance P

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40
Q

relaxation of muscles during peristalsis occurs when motor neurons release

A

NO
VIP
ATP

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41
Q

reflex that controls motility of the GI muscle layers in response to distention by chyme; ex. receptive relaxation of the stomach in response to mastication and deglutition

A

vagovagal reflex

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42
Q

which region of the stomach is the gastric reservoir

A

proximal

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43
Q

which region of the stomach is the gastric pump

A

distal

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44
Q

true or false: there is no change in intraluminal pressure of the stomach when it enlarges

A

true

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45
Q

sequence of inflow into the gastric pump

A
  1. tonic contraction of fundus
  2. strong peristaltic wave in the corpus
  3. passage into grinder and then pylorus
  4. emptying into duodenum
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46
Q

what happens if a piece of food is still too big to go through the pylorus

A

pyloric sphincter closes so it can go through another mixing cycle

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47
Q

during feedback relaxation of the stomach, what is released when nutrients reach the duodenum

A

CCK

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48
Q

two patterns of movement in the small intestine during the digestive period

A

propulsive pattern
non-propulsive pattern

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49
Q

type of contraction during the propulsive pattern

A

peristaltic

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50
Q

type of contraction during non-propulsive pattern

A

segmentation, localized contractions of circular muscle

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51
Q

fx of non-propulsive pattern

A

splits the chyme for better digestion

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52
Q

time between meals when the stomach and sm. intestine are empty

A

interdigestive period

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53
Q

motility pattern during interdigestive period

A

migrating motoric complex (MMC)

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54
Q

fx of migrating motor complex

A

help push indigested material out of the intestine
control bacterial population

55
Q

phase I of MMC

A

motoric rest, no contractions

56
Q

phase II of MMC

A

intermittent and irregular contractions

57
Q

phase III of MMC

A

strong peristaltic contractions from stomach to colon

58
Q

fx of antiperistaltic waves in the large intestine

A

impede movement of ingesta for more intense mixing

59
Q

where is vomiting coordinated

A

brainstem

60
Q

stimuli before food intake, visceral afferent reaching the vomiting center, or stimulation of the _____ can trigger vomiting

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone

61
Q

occurs when absorption is inadequate to recover all secreted water; can occur because of destructed villi from infection

A

malabsorptive diarrhea

62
Q

occurs when the rate of intestinal secretion inc and overwhelms absorptive capacity; can occur because of enterotoxins stimulating the production of cAMP and opening of Cl channels

A

secretory diarrhea

63
Q

which sphincter involved in the defecation reflex is made of skeletal muscle

A

external

64
Q

how is the internal anal sphincter innervated

A

parasympathetic - relaxation
sympathetic - constriction

65
Q

peristaltic movement of feces into the rectum and relaxation of internal anal sphincter; causes the urge to defecate

A

rectosphincteric reflex

66
Q

in the ruminant stomach, enzymes for digestion are of ___ origin

A

microbial

67
Q

fx of the reticular groove

A

directs milk directly into abomasum, bypassing the rumen in newborns

68
Q

what type of epithelium are the forestomachs lined with

A

stratified squamous

69
Q

what accelerates development of the forestomach in a newborn

A

solid feed and contact with adult ruminants

70
Q

non-ruminant period of a newborn

A

birth to 3 weeks

71
Q

most protozoa in the ruminant stomach are ____ (ciliated/flagellates)

A

ciliated

72
Q

in the rumen, bacteria are ingested by

A

protozoa

73
Q

which VFA goes to the liver to enter gluconeogenesis

A

propionate

74
Q

which VFA goes to adipose tissue to produce fatty acids

A

acetate

75
Q

which part of the plant cell acts as an important substrate for fermentative digestion

A

plant cell walls

76
Q

in ruminants, cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin are hydrolyzed by

A

cellulase

77
Q

what is the fate of monosaccharides released from hydrolysis of polysaccharides in the rumen

A

further metabolized by microbes

78
Q

within the microbial cell, glucose enters the glycolytic pathway and produces ___

A

2 pyruvate
2 NADH
2 ATP

79
Q

pyruvate is used in the ruminant to produce

A

VFAs

80
Q

microbes produce ____ which form short chain peptides to be absorbed into the microbial cell bodies

A

endopeptidases

81
Q

what are the two fates of peptides once in the microbial cell

A

form microbial protein
further degraded into VFA pathway

82
Q

in rumen microbes, amino acids are synthesized intracellularly by

A

hydrolyzed peptides
NH3
VFA

83
Q

in ruminants, amino acids contribute to

A

synthesis of microbial protein
synthesis of VFA and ammonia

84
Q

what must happen to an amino acid to enter the VFA pathway

A

deamination

85
Q

what makes ruminants efficient conservers of nitrogen in conditions of low dietary protein

A

urea recycling - portion of urea reaching the rumen is resynthesized into protein that will contribute amino acids

86
Q

in ruminants, what are the 2 sources of urea to be synthesized in the liver

A

urea from deamination
nitrogen absorbed as ammonia

87
Q

in fermentative digestion, fats are hydrolized by microbial lipases; the glycerol and sugars go into the VFA pathway, while the fatty acids released ___

A

are hydrogenized and go into the abomasum and sm. intestine for absorption

88
Q

typical ruminal acetic/propionic/butryic acid concentration ratio

A

70:20:10 - high forage
60:30:10 - high grain

89
Q

vitamins synthesized by microbes include

A

C, K, B1, B12

90
Q

high concentration of which ion, present in young pastures, competes with the absorption of magnesium

A

K+

91
Q

functions of the omasum

A

concentration of ingesta - absorption of H2O
SCFA (VFA) absorption
Na and Cl absorption
HCO3 reabsorption

92
Q

what is the function of primary rumen contractions

A

reduce particle size

93
Q

what is the function of secondary rumen contractions

A

force gas towards cranial portion of the rumen

94
Q

where do cranial moving contraction of the rumen start

A

caudo-dorsal blind sac

95
Q

where does the regurgitation reflex begin

A

mid-dorsal rumen

96
Q

where is the eructation center located

A

medulla

97
Q

in which sac does the eructation center receive afferent fibers from mechanoreceptors

A

dorsal sac

98
Q

legume bloat occurs because

A

the presence of gas is not detectable by mechanoreceptors, due to being trapped in bubbles

99
Q

the reticulorumen motility is controlled by

A

ENS and vagus nerve
control center: brain stem

100
Q

changes in motor distention, consistency of ingesta, pH, VFA concentrations and ions will cause a (inc/dec) in rumen motility

A

decrease

101
Q

ruminant ketosis is associated with

A

hypoglycemia

102
Q

stimulated by PTH in response to hypocalcemia

A

calcitriol

103
Q

hormone activator, renal regulation of BP

A

renin

104
Q

stimulates the absorption of calcium

A

calcitriol

105
Q

secreted in response to acute drop in plasma volume and BP

A

renin

106
Q

stimulates Na reabsorption to inc blood volume and BP

A

angiotensin II

107
Q

first step in urine formation

A

filtration of fluid through glomerular capillaries

108
Q

components of the filtration barrier

A

fenestrated capillary endothelial cells
glomerular basement membrane - glycoproteins
podocytes

109
Q

3 layers of the glomerular basement membrane

A
  1. lamina rara interna
  2. lamina densa
  3. lamina rara externa
110
Q

out of the three glomerular basement membrane layers, which is especially rich in proteins

A

lamina densa

111
Q

the glomerular capillaries are impermeable to proteins, meaning the glomerular filtrate is _____

A

protein free

112
Q

main driving force for filtration

A

hydrostatic pressure of the glomerular capillary

113
Q

99% of GFR returns to the extracellular compartment by _____

A

tubular reapsorption

114
Q

properties of indicator substances of GFR

A
  1. must be freely filterable
  2. filtered amount must not change due to reabsorption or secretion in the tubule
  3. must not be metabolized in the kidney
  4. must not alter renal fx
115
Q

if [creatinine] in plasma is elevated, GRF is ____

A

reduced

116
Q

which reflex detects changes in glomerular perfusion

A

myogenic reflex

117
Q

detects changes in tubule fluid delivery

A

tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF)

118
Q

renin is synthesized in the ____ cells, in the wall of the afferent arteriole

A

juxtaglomerular

119
Q

macula densa cells sense changes in ____ in the distal tubule

A

NaCl

120
Q

fx of TGF

A

prevents a flow rate that would exceed transport capacity of the tubular system

121
Q

2 vasodilators that cause vasodilation and inc GFR

A

NO (NOS)
PGE2 (COX-2)

122
Q

vasoconstrictors that mostly effect the efferent arterioles

A

norepinephrine
epinephrine
endothelin
angiotensin II
TXA2

123
Q

what happens to GFR is RBF inc

A

inc GFR

124
Q

what happens to GFR is systemic pressure inc

A

inc GFR

125
Q

what happens to GFR if afferent arteriole tone inc

A

dec GFR

126
Q

what happens to GFR if efferent arteriole tone slightly inc

A

inc GFR

127
Q

what happens to GFR if efferent arteriole tone strongly inc

A

dec GFR

128
Q

what happens to GFR if hydrostatic pressure of bowman’s capsule inc

A

dec GFR

129
Q

nephron segment that filters the blood of solutes, water, urea and creatinine to make primary urine

A

glomerulus

130
Q

nephron segment that reabsorbs most filtered solutes, reabsorbs H2O, excretes waste and xenobiotics

A

proximal tubule

131
Q

nephron segment that maintains medullary hypertonicity, reabsorbs H2O, Na and Cl

A

thin limbs of henle’s loops

132
Q

nephron segment that reabsorbs Na, K, Cl; dilutes tubule fluid and maintains medullary hypertonicity

A

thick ascending limb

133
Q

nephron segment that reabsorbs Na, Cl, Ca, Mg; connecting segments regulate acid, HCO3-, NH3, Ca, Na, K and H2O excretion

A

distal convoluted tubule

134
Q

nephron segment that regulates acid, HCO3-, NH3, Na, K, and H2O excretion/reabsorption to make final urine

A

collecting ducts