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Microbiology Lab > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

microorganisms are ubiquitous meaning

A

there is a species of microorganism that is able to adapt and occupy almost every environment

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2
Q

microbes are used in the food industry to produce

A

wine, cheese, sauerkraut

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3
Q

opportunistic pathogen

A

often harmless but can cause disease if conitions are right

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4
Q

nosocomial infection

A

infection that an individual acquired while in a health care facility

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5
Q

physical control method examples

A

heat, drying, filtration, irradiation

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6
Q

chemical control methods involve the use of

A

chemical to interfere with an organisms ability to survive or multiply

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7
Q

chemical control method example

A

disinfectants, antiseptics, antimicrobial therapy

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8
Q

antimicrobial agent refers to

A

either a chemical that halts the growth of an organism or one that causes death of an organism

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9
Q

chemicals that interfere with microbial growth usually have some effect on other life forms. One must weigh the benefit of ________ ____ with the degree of _________ ____ __________

A

microbial death, human cell damage

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10
Q

-cidal

A

when the agent kills the organism

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11
Q

-static

A

agents that halt the growth of a particular class

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12
Q

antimicrobial agents

A

chemicals which will or prevent replication of a microorganism. This term is often used in reference to pharmacutial agents as opposed to cleaning agents

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13
Q

antiseptic

A

chemical that reduces the number of microbes on animate objects, typically reduces the number of microbes significantly

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14
Q

cleaner

A

agent used to remove dirt, oil, dead cells and other debris from an object

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15
Q

disinfectant

A

chemical that reduces the number of microbes on an inanimate object, often significantly reduce the number of microbes present

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16
Q

inhibit growth

A

render an organism unable to multiply but not necessarily kill each cell present

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17
Q

kill

A

render an organism unable to metabolize or multiply again

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18
Q

physical control methods

A

procedures which reduce the number of microbes present to a safe level by exposing microbes to physical conditions outside of their growth tolerance levels

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19
Q

sanitize

A

used in food prep industry to refer to the action of reducing the number of microbes specifically on eating utensils and food preparation surfaces

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20
Q

sterilize

A

process of completely eradicating microorganisms from an object or substance

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21
Q

heat kills bacterial cells by

A

damaging or denaturing the essential proteins in the cell

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22
Q

moist heat destroys bacteria by

A

altering the 3D structure of microbial proteins causing coagulation

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23
Q

dry heat

A

oxidizes proteins and other components

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24
Q

shorter or longer or normal times must be used when attempting effective kill with large volumes or greatly soiled items

A

longer

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25
Q

incineration

A

burning an item

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26
Q

the higher the temp

A

the more quickly proteins are denatured and the more quickly the cells are killed

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27
Q

the longer the time of exposure to the heat

A

the higher the number of cells killed

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28
Q

TDT

A

thermal death time

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29
Q

TDP

A

thermal death point

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30
Q

TDT is when __________ is constant but _____ is the variable

A

temp, time

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31
Q

TDP is when _____ is constant but ________ is the variable

A

time, temp

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32
Q

TDT definition

A

shortest time needed to kill all cells in a specific organism culture at a specific temp

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33
Q

what are some structural elements a cell can have to resist heat

A

capsules, endospores, enzymes

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34
Q

autoclave will destroy what relating to endospores

A

vegetative cells and formed endospores

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35
Q

pressure the autoclave exerts

A

15lbs/in2

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36
Q

temp autoclave reaches

A

250F/121C

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37
Q

in an autoclave at correct conditions how long will it take to kill an endospore

A

12-15 mins

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38
Q

why do large volumes of liquid and dense materials require longer time in the autoclave

A

need to allow time for steam under pressure to penetrate all areas of material in autoclave

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39
Q

what are the most difficult organisms to kill by heat

A

thermophilic bacteria

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40
Q

what is the most commonly used quality control method to check if the autoclave is functioning correctly

A

QC vials containing endospores (bacilli’s stearothermophilus)

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41
Q

what color will the autoclave tape become once it has reached the specific temp

A

black and white stripe

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42
Q

autoclave tape will tell us that either the surface or the internal reached a specific temp

A

surface

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43
Q

some organisms are firmly attached and difficult to remove with handwashing

A

resident flora

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44
Q

organisms picked up through contact with objects in the environment

A

transients

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45
Q

is transient or residential easily spread

A

transient

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46
Q

where are residentials found

A

within the skin layer

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47
Q

man made sources of UV radiation include

A

tanning booths, sterilization units, UV wands, light boxes

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48
Q

3 types of UV radiation

A

A, B, C

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49
Q

UV radiation causes __________ ______ to form in DNA

A

thymine dimers

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50
Q

can UV light penetrate sufraces

A

no

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51
Q

UVA wave length

A

315-400nm

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52
Q

UVB wave length

A

280-315nm

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53
Q

UVC wave length

A

200-280nm

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54
Q

UVA ability to penetrate skin

A

deepest to middle dermal layer

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55
Q

UVB ability to penetrate skin

A

to outer dermal layer only

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56
Q

UVC ability to penetrate skin

A

does not penetrate, affects only surface cells

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57
Q

UVA ability to penetrate the ozone layer

A

yes

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58
Q

UBV ability to penetrate the ozone layer

A

yes

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59
Q

UVC ability to penetrate the ozone layer

A

little to none

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60
Q

UVA health risk

A

sunburn, premature aging, skin cancer

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61
Q

UVB health risk

A

sunburn, premature aging, skin cancer

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62
Q

UVC health risk

A

severe burn, temporary inability to see, very little cancer risk

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63
Q

UVA found in

A

sunlight, tanning booths, some lighting sources

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64
Q

UVB found in

A

sunlight, tanning booths, some lighting sources

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65
Q

UVC found in

A

sunlight prior to filtering through ozone, man made lamps, light boxes

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66
Q

UVA bactericidal

A

very little

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67
Q

UVB bactericidal

A

limited

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68
Q

UVC bactericidal

A

antibacterial: air or surface sterilization only

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69
Q

sterilization by filtration is based on the inability of microorganisms to pass through

A

a filter with pores

70
Q

filtrate

A

liquid after passing through the filter

71
Q

filtration by size is only one type of filtration what is another one

A

chemical filtration which causes chemical changes to the liquid passing through

72
Q

example of chemical filtration

A

lead removal

73
Q

choice of a disinfectant is based on

A

target microbe, material to be disinfected, and conditions in the surrounding environment

74
Q

chemicals that are used to destroy microbes on inanimate surfaces are referred to as

A

disinfectants

75
Q

example in the lab of a disinfectant

A

solution applied to bench top before and after lab

76
Q

chemicals applied to animate surfaces to reduce the amount of bacteria present are called

A

antiseptics

77
Q

example of antiseptics

A

isopropyl alcohol

78
Q

do disinfectants sterilize

A

no

79
Q

typically disinfectants target _________ for destruction and the disinfecting chemical may not destroy all organisms that are present

A

pathogens

80
Q

differences in microbial structure result in different

A

susceptibilities to the active ingredient in disinfectant solution

81
Q

what bacterial structure is resistant to chemicals

A

endospores

82
Q

solutions of disinfectant should be freshly prepared because the chemical may be

A

less effective over time

83
Q

The use dilatation method compares the ability of various disinfectants at the ___________ recommend for use to kill a specific microorganism

A

dilution

84
Q

procedure for the use dilatation method

A

test organism is dried on a solid surface and exposed to the disinfectant at use dilatation for specific time periods

85
Q

the Kirby Bauer test us used to test several

A

antimicrobial agents for the ability to inhibit the growth of a strain of pathogenic organism

86
Q

all of these steps in the Kirby Bauer test must be followed to the letter

A
  • strain must be well isolated and grown in a broth to a specific concentration
  • the broth culture is spread evenly over the surface of a Mueller-Hinton agar plate of specified thickness
  • filter paper discs, each with a specific concentration of a different drug, are placed on the agar plate
  • the plate is incubated for 18-24 hours at 37 degrees C and examined
  • the diameter of the zone of inhibition around each disc is measured in millimeters
  • interpretation table is consulted to determine the susceptibility of the test microbe to the antibiotic
87
Q

antimicrobial agents with an inhibitory effect on the organism will cause a ________ ____ ____________ to appear around the disc (no growth around the disc)

A

zone of inhibition

88
Q

interpretation chart was developed as a result of studies that correlated zone size obtained in the lab setting with the

A

recovery rate of patients treated with that drug

89
Q

when a person has a bacterial infection before treatment is begun

A

a clinical specimen should be obtained from the site of infection

90
Q

direct smear

A

stain preformed on a portion of the original specimen and will contain stained cells and debris from the collection site

91
Q

initial culture results called __________ ____ give general information such as gram stain and shape found. These can be obtained 24 hours after specimen collection

A

preliminary report

92
Q

2 important genera of gram pos cocci that contain pathogens

A

streptococci, staphylococci

93
Q

pyogenic

A

infections that cause many WBC to travel to the site of infection creating a purulent exudate (pus)

94
Q

gram reaction results for Staph species

A

gram pos
cocci
clusters

95
Q

catalase results for Staph species

A

positive

96
Q

tolerance for 7.5% salt results for Staph species

A

positive

97
Q

hemolysis on blood agar results for Staph species

A

beta/nonhemo

98
Q

colony morphology results for Staph species

A

white, cream, opaque

99
Q

gram reaction results for Strep species

A

gram pos
cocci
chain

100
Q

catalase results for Strep species

A

negative

101
Q

tolerance for 7.5% salt results for Strep species

A

negative (only positive species is enterococcus)

102
Q

hemolysis on blood agar results for Strep species

A

alpha/beta/non

103
Q

morphology on blood agar results for Strep species

A

usually gray, translucent

104
Q

what is the differentiate step between staph and strep species and what is the result for each species

A

catalase test
stap species= positive
strep species= negative

105
Q

what is the order of differentiation after we get a positive catalase test

A

coagulase
7.5% salt tolerant/manitol fermentation

106
Q

what is the order of differentiation after we get a negative catalase test

A

bile esculin
hemolysis
A and P disc

107
Q

under what hemolysis conditions will we use the P disc

A

alpha hemolysis

108
Q

under what hemolysis conditions will we use the A disc

A

beta hemolysis

109
Q

growth on manitol salt agar means the organism is

A

tolerant to 7.5% salt agar

110
Q

the catalase test shows if there is a presence to the enzyme __________ which allows organisms to break down ______

A

catalase, h2o2

111
Q

you perform a salt tolerance on manitol salt agar and notice there is no growth, this test is negative or positive

A

negative

112
Q

you preform a catalase test and notice there is bubbles appering, this test is negative or positive

A

positive

113
Q

what are 2 common things found in the lab that will react with H2O2 and we need to follow proper protocol to get a correct catalase test

A

metal loop and agar of blood agar

114
Q

since metal reacts with H2O2 we want to use a

A

steril cotton swab

115
Q

coagulase tests for the enzyme _______ which causes a ____ formation

A

coagulase, clot

116
Q

you preform a coagulase test and you notice a clot formed, this test is positive or neagtive

A

positive

117
Q

what staph species is of major concern

A

staphylococcus aures

118
Q

hemolysis tests for

A

the ability of organisms to hemolzye blood cells

119
Q

beta hemolysis will present

A

with transperency on the agar

120
Q

alpha hemolysis will present

A

green like, non transparent

121
Q

gama hemolysis will present

A

with no change

122
Q

you preform a hemolysis test and you first look at the plate and it appears green but once you hold it up to the light you notice it is transparent, what type of hemolysis is this

A

beta

123
Q

bile esculin will only test positive for

A

enterococci species

124
Q

you preform a bile esculin test and there is obvious black color change, this is

A

positive

125
Q

what species is sensitive to the A disc

A

streptococcus pyogenes

126
Q

P disc is the common test for what species

A

streptococcus pneumonae

127
Q

example of group A streptococci

A

S. pyogenes

128
Q

Group A produce what hemolysis

A

beta

129
Q

example of group D streptococci

A

streptococcus faecalis

130
Q

group D can be identified through what test

A

bile esuclin

131
Q

streptococcus pneumonia present how

A

gram pos diplococci
lancet shape being more poised on one side

132
Q

strep throat is commonly caused by what species

A

strep pyogenes

133
Q

UTI refers to an infection in the

A

kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra

134
Q

upper UTI involves the

A

kidney

135
Q

lower UTI involves the

A

bladder and urethra

136
Q

nephritis

A

infection of kidney

137
Q

nephritis can not always be caused by UTI, it can also be caused by

A

toxins in the blood, like sepsis

138
Q

cystitis

A

infection to bladder

139
Q

cystitis is often caused by

A

organisms originating in the external genetailia

140
Q

what is the most common pathogen for UTI

A

e. coli

141
Q

who gets more UTIs, male or female

A

female

142
Q

what is the most common collection of urine

A

voided sample

143
Q

voided sample

A

first pee of the day

144
Q

contamination during sample collection is assumed the probable source of organism see if

A
  • small number are present
  • large variety of organisms are present in any amount
145
Q

infection is assumed present if

A
  • large amount of organisms are present, almost entirely from the same species
146
Q

E. coli can double every __ mins

A

20

147
Q

urine is both __________ in content and at optimal _________ for growth

A

nutritive, temp

148
Q

if urine is not transported and stored properly this could cause

A

falsely high report

149
Q

how should a urine sample be stored/transported

A

refrigerated

150
Q

lawn flora

A

spreding organisms over the whole agar

151
Q

10uL samples are used when

A

low numbers are expected (turbidity is clear or hazy)

152
Q

1uL samples are used when

A

high numbers are expected (turbidity is cloudy or turbid)

153
Q

genes transferred from one bacterium to another without replication

A

horizontal gene transfer

154
Q

horizontal gene transfer quickens the spread of ______ through a population of bacteria and plays a factor in increasing the ability to ______ the effects of antimicrobic drugs

A

genes, resist

155
Q

transformation

A

DNA fragments are free floating in the environment can be taken into a cell

156
Q

competent cell

A

cell that allows DNA fragments to enter

157
Q

competent cell is often due to larger

A

pores

158
Q

plasmids

A

circular bits of double stranded DNA

159
Q

most notable competent species

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

160
Q

one species that can be made competent in the lab is

A

e. coli

161
Q

creating competent cells involves altering the

A

cellular membrane/walls

162
Q

making a cell competent is achieved through (in this lab) exposure to chemicals like _____ and followed by _____ _____

A

CaCl2, heat shock

163
Q

in lab the e.coli cells are exposed to a solution with plasmid in it called

A

pGLO

164
Q

three genes of significance of pGLO

A

GFP, araC, bla

165
Q

GFP stands for

A

Green flourensce protein

166
Q

GFP allows the bacteria to glow green Florence under

A

UV light

167
Q

araC encodes for

A

regulatory protein which binds to the promoter for the GFP protein, which switches this promotor on

168
Q

bla encodes for what enzyme

A

beta lactamase

169
Q

beta lactamse will cleave the ____ _______ ring in penicillin and related molecules and rendering the drug useless

A

beta lactam

170
Q

once our E. coli is transformed growth on the ____ plate demonstrates the ability of the organism to survive in the presence of amplicllin

A

LB amp

171
Q

growth of the pGLO- strain on the LB but not on LB amp indicated the E. coli was

A

susceptible to ampicillin prior to transformation

172
Q

growth on both LB and LB amp of the pGLO+ strain indicated the organism is now able to

A

withstand presence of ampicillin due to the presence of pGLO

Microbiology Lab (3 decks)

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