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Microbiology Lab > Exam 1 Learning Objectives > Flashcards

Exam 1 Learning Objectives Flashcards

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1
Q

state how a contaminated item is properly disposed of at the end of lab

A

in the biohazard bin

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2
Q

state the safety protocol specific to gram staining

A

have the sink running while preforming the gram stain since the dyes are flamable

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3
Q

state the safety protocol specific if the indole test

A

preform in the fume hood since the Kovacs reagent releases dangerous fumes and is extremely flammable. Dispose of tubes that have the Kovacs reagent in the fume hood to let the lab staff take care of

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4
Q

proper attire for lab

A

lab coat, gloves, goggles and proper shoes and pants with no skin showing

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5
Q

state proper lab notebook protocol for record keeping

A

keep notebook on the bag during lab

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6
Q

is the genus or epithet capitalizes in a scientific naming

A

genus

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7
Q

explain why and when gloves must be worn

A

when dealing with bacteria, to prevent bacteria from getting on you and eventually getting into the outside world and to prevent your own microbiota from getting into the bacteria

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8
Q

when should we not wear gloves

A

when dealing with microscopes

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9
Q

ubiquitous

A

descriptive term meaning to exist in wide variety of places, almost universally present

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10
Q

what is included in full proper labeling

A

name/initials, section, bench color, species name, and date

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11
Q

resolution

A

clarity, distance between 2 points

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12
Q

parfocal

A

ability of a microscope to stay in coarse focus when changing objectives

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13
Q

purpose of immersion oil when viewing items in 100x

A

immersion oil stops light rays from escaping leading to higher resolution

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14
Q

when should we adjust coarse focus

A

when on low power

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15
Q

when should we adjust fine focus

A

when on high power

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16
Q

describe how one knows all the oil has been removed from the lens

A

clean it until clean with a lens paper

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17
Q

total magnification of low power

A

40 (4x10)

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18
Q

total magnification of high dry power

A

400 (40x10)

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19
Q

total magnification of oil immersion

A

1000 (100x10)

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20
Q

what lens is often used when viewing protozoa or fungi

A

40x

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21
Q

what lens is used when viewing bacteria

A

100x

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22
Q

define aseptic technique

A

not introducing organisms

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23
Q

define sepsis

A

organisms present

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24
Q

define colony

A

grew from one bacteria, DNA is identical to one another and is visible to the naked eye

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25
Q

discuss the frequency and reason for being careful not to touch or handle the open end of a media tube and transfer tool when transferring organisms

A

could get bacteria on your gloves and could be spread

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26
Q

mesophile

A

grows between 10-47 degrees Celsius and the optimal temp is between 25 and 35 degrees celcius

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27
Q

thermophile

A

grows best above 45 degrees celcius

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28
Q

psychrophile

A

optimal is between -5-5 but can grow up to 20 degrees celcius

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29
Q

define aerobic

A

grows in the presence of oxygen

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30
Q

define anaerobic

A

grows in the absence of oxygen

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31
Q

define facultative

A

either aerobic or anaerobic, data is inconclusive

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32
Q

define microaerophilic

A

prefers less oxygen and more CO2 but is not strictly a anaerobe

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33
Q

when creating a graph for anaerobic and aerobic bacteria the graph must start at __ on both x and y axis

A

0

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34
Q

predict how failing to sterilize the loop between quadrants might affect the ability to obtain isolation

A

if you fail to sterilize the loop you are not going to get proper dilution from the previous quadrant because the bacteria on the loop is going to go on the plate leading to no isolation

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35
Q

colony morphology

A

based on how the colony appears, based on color, shape, height, etc

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36
Q

cellular morphology

A

based on a single cell, based on gram reaction, cell shape, and arrangements of cells

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37
Q

if cloudiness of a liquid is caused by bacteria and not by other factors, discuss the correlation between cloudiness of a liquid and the amount of bacteria present

A

direct relationship between amount of bacteria and cloudiness

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38
Q

cocci/coccus

A

spherical shape

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39
Q

bacillus, bacilli

A

rod shaped

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40
Q

spirulim

A

spiral shaped

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41
Q

describe the purpose of heat fixing a smear

A

to kill the bacteria and fix it to the slide which means the dead bacteria is stuck to the slide which allows you to stain the slide and still have bacteria on it

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42
Q

discuss the two methods of heat fixing a smear using the equipment in our lab

A

15 seconds over the incinerator (in front of the opening) or 5 mins on the holder above the incinerator

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43
Q

diplo

A

pairs

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44
Q

chain (prefix strepto)

A

forms a chain

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45
Q

tetrad

A

4s

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46
Q

clusters (prefix staphlo)

A

clusters of cells

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47
Q

what bacteria cannot cluster

A

baccili

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48
Q

paliside

A

parallel (looks like sausages in a package)

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49
Q

random

A

random arrangement

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50
Q

looking at a species name be able to predict the cellular morphology: streptococcus

A

chaining arrangement and cocci shaped cells

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51
Q

looking at a species name be able to predict the cellular morphology: staphylococcus

A

cluster arrangement and cocci shaped cells

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52
Q

looking at a species name be able to predict the cellular morphology: bacillus

A

bacilli shaped cells

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53
Q

define simple stain

A

use of one dye

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54
Q

describe the information one is able to obtain from a simple stain

A

cell shape and arrangement

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55
Q

gram positive stain

A

purple

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56
Q

gram negative stain

A

pink

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57
Q

discuss the effects of over decolorization

A

stain may wash out of the gram positive cells making them appear pink at the end of the gram stain

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58
Q

discuss the effects of under decolorization

A

stain may not wash out of gram neg cells making them appear purple at the end of the gram stain

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59
Q

define gram stain

A

classifications based on gram reaction

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60
Q

state the gram reaction and cellular shape of: E. coli

A

Gram Neg, Bacillus

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61
Q

state the gram reaction and cellular shape of: Staph aureus

A

gram pos, cocci

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62
Q

state the gram reaction and cellular shape of: bacillus subtilis

A

gram pos, bacillus

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63
Q

list the steps of the gram stain procedure

A

crystal violet, mordant, decolorized, safrain

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64
Q

describe the basic procedure for preforming a capsule stain

A

india ink and crystal violet

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65
Q

state the function of a bacterial capsule, describe the role of a capsule in determining an organisms level of virulence

A

capsule prevents from adverse environment, help cell live which adds to virulence

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66
Q

one flagella at one end of cell

A

monotrichous and polar

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67
Q

tuft of flagella at one end of cell

A

lophotrichous and polar

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68
Q

flagella all throughout the cell

A

peritrichous

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69
Q

one flagella at both ends of the cell

A

amphitrichous and polar

70
Q

name an acid fast species

A

sp. Nocardia and sp. Myobacterium

71
Q

discuss the name of the acid fast stain in relation to the procedure

A

if a cell is positive for acid fast it is said “the bacteria holds fast”

72
Q

name the two stains used in an acid fast stain procedure

A

carbolfushin and methylene blue

73
Q

positive acid fast bacteria will stain

A

red

74
Q

discuss the purpose of an endospore in bacterium

A

protects against adverse environments

75
Q

give the name of one spore forming bacteria

A

clostridium

76
Q

name the two stains used in spore stain procedure

A

malachite green and safrain

77
Q

describe the ingredient which makes MAC agar a differential media

A

lactose

78
Q

MAC is selective for

A

gram neg bacteria

79
Q

the appearance of MAC when positive

A

bright pink

80
Q

describe the ingredient which makes MSA a differential media

A

manitol

81
Q

the appearance of MSA when positive

A

turns yellow

82
Q

determine the type of hemolysis seen on the blood agar plate with growth: alpha hemolysis

A

partial breakdown, green area

83
Q

determine the type of hemolysis seen on the blood agar plate with growth: beta hemolysis

A

complete breakdown, yellowish clear

84
Q

determine the type of hemolysis seen on the blood agar plate with growth: gamma hemolysis/nonhemolysis

A

inability to breakdown, no zone created

85
Q

describe the ingredient which makes blood agar a nutritive media

A

red blood cells

86
Q

define selective media

A

growth only for the selective microorganism

87
Q

define differential media

A

differential between closely related organisms/groups

88
Q

define nutritive

A

overall nutrients to provide growth

89
Q

describe MAC

A

selective and differential

90
Q

describe MSA

A

selective and differential

91
Q

describe blood agar

A

nutritive and differential

92
Q

describe TSA

A

general and nondifferental

93
Q

describe the how blood agar can be differential

A

differential based on the ability to hemolyses RBC

94
Q

what group is being differentiated for in MSA

A

ability to ferment mannitol

95
Q

what group is being selective for in MSA

A

selective for 7.5% salt tolerance

96
Q

describe why TSA agar is considered to be a general media

A

because it permits growth for most organisms

97
Q

describe how biochemical tests aid in identification of a unknown bacterial species

A

because this is a yes or no question which we already have the answer to, there is no room for interpretation

98
Q

what would a positive SIM tube look like for S

A

black color

99
Q

what would a positive SIM tube look like for I

A

red ring created when added Kovacs reagent

100
Q

what would a positive SIM tube look like for M

A

visual expansion of bacteria in the tube

101
Q

what would a positive urease test look like

A

bright pink (color change)

102
Q

what would a positive carb tube look like

A

yellow (color change)

103
Q

universal procations

A

a policy followed in the medical professions requiring that one must treat every patient and every biological sample as if they carried a potential pathogen

104
Q

in exercise 1.1 you touched a plate, then touched your hair, then touched the agar plate again, why did you need to touch the plate prior to your hair

A

this was our control

105
Q

what is the total magnification when viewing a sample through the low power lens of a standard light microscope

A

40x

106
Q

purpose of a nosepiece

A

to hold the objectives in place

107
Q

which of the growth environments provides the amount of oxygen typically available in deep tissues in the human body

A

the candle jar

108
Q

central spore

A

spore in the middle of the bacteria

109
Q

subterminal spore

A

spore near one end of the bacteria but still some space until the end of the bacteria

110
Q

terminal spore

A

all the way at one end of the bacteria

111
Q

how to report if no spores are seen

A

‘no spores seen’

112
Q

staphylococcus epidermis GS

A

gram pos

113
Q

staphylococcus epidermis fastidious

A

no

114
Q

staphylococcus epidermis 7.5 salt tolerant

A

yes

115
Q

staphylococcus epidermis other characteristics

A

mannitol nonfermenter, usually nonhemolytic

116
Q

staphylococcus aureus GS

A

gram pos

117
Q

staphylococcus aureus fastidious

A

no

118
Q

staphylococcus aureus 7.5 salt tolerant

A

yes

119
Q

staphylococcus aureus other characteristics

A

mannitol fermenter usually beta or nonhemolytic

120
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae GS

A

gram pos

121
Q

streptococcus pneuminiae fastidious

A

yes

122
Q

streptococcus pneuminae 7.5 salt tolerant

A

no

123
Q

streptococcus pneuminae other characteristics

A

alpha hemolytic

124
Q

bactilis subtillis GS

A

gram pos

125
Q

bacillus subtillis fastidious

A

no

126
Q

bacillus subtililis 7.5 salt tolerant

A

yes

127
Q

bacillus subtillis other characteristics

A

spore former

128
Q

escherichia coli GS

A

gram neg bacillius

129
Q

escherichia coli fastidious

A

no

130
Q

escherichia coli 7.5 salt tolerant

A

no

131
Q

escherichia coli other characteristics

A

lactose fermenter, green sheen develops in EMB

132
Q

aceintobacter faecalis gs

A

gram neg bacillus

133
Q

aceintobacter faecalis fastidious

A

no

134
Q

aceintobacter faecalis 7.5 salt tolerant

A

no

135
Q

aceintobacter faecalis other characteristics

A

lactose nonfermeneter

136
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae GS

A

gram neg bacillus

137
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae fastidious

A

no

138
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae 7.5 salt tolerant

A

no

139
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae other characteristics

A

lactose fermenter, capsule former, mucoid colony morphology when forming capsules well

140
Q

what are the needs that must be met for an organisms to be able to grow and reproduce

A

energy source, carbon source, nitrogen source, inorganic salts, vitamins, free water

141
Q

colony morphology is described by

A

color, size, density, shape, margin, elevation, and consistency

142
Q

colony morphology density

A

describes the ability of light to pass through the colony, translucent: once can see through it when held up to light
opaque: cannot see through

143
Q

colony morphology margin

A

shape of the edges of the colony, smooth, wavy, irregular, woolly

144
Q

colony morphology elevation

A

the colony viewed from the side, flat, convex, raised, hilly, pitted

145
Q

colony morphology consistency

A

the texture of the colony

146
Q

differential step in gram stain

A

decolorizer

147
Q

differential step in spore stain

A

rinsing

148
Q

steps of spore stain

A

malachite green, rinse, counter stain safrain

149
Q

differential step capsule stain

A

primary stain (India ink)

150
Q

steps of capsule stain

A

india ink, counterstain crystal violet

151
Q

steps to acid fast

A

carbolfushin with heat and steam, rinse/decolorize, counterstain methylene blue

152
Q

citrate positive test

A

deep blue

153
Q

citrate negative test

A

green

154
Q

describe eosin methylene blue (EMB)

A

selective and differential

155
Q

EMB is selective for

A

gram neg bacteria

156
Q

MAC is selective for

A

gram neg bacteria

157
Q

MSA is selective for

A

7.5% salt tolerant

158
Q

EMB is differential between

A

lactose ferementers

159
Q

EMB lactose fermenters produce

A

a color

160
Q

EMB lactose nonfermenters produce

A

no color

161
Q

MSA is differential for

A

ability to ferment mannitol

162
Q

MAC is differential for

A

ability to ferment lactose

163
Q

in EMB super fermenters produce

A

a green metatalic sheen

164
Q

what is one bacteria that was a super fermented in EMB

A

e. coli

165
Q

how do we create microcephalic conditions

A

with a candle

166
Q

how do we create anaerobic conditions

A

with oxygen sucking packets

167
Q

oxygen sucking packets color when there is no oxygen

A

white

168
Q

oxygen sucking packets color when there is oxygen

A

blue

169
Q

why is it important to utilize a 24 hour old sample when conducting a gram stain

A

because it is a cell wall stain, and cell walls deteriorate/change over time, which may lead to an erroneous interpretation of the Gram reaction

170
Q

what is e coli when it comes to oxygen and growing

A

facultative anaerobe which means it does not require it but grows better in the presence of oxygen

171
Q

what is b. subtilis when it comes to oxygen and growing

A

facultative aerobe, they were originally thought to be strictly aerobic but more research has came out and found they are a facultative aerobe

172
Q

what is C. sporogenes when it comes to oxygen and growing

A

anaerobe, no oxygen

Microbiology Lab (3 decks)

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