Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

gram positive

A

All Staphylococci species, Streptococci species and Bacillus subtilis

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2
Q

gram negative

A

E. coli, Acintobacter faecails, Klebsiella pneumoniae

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3
Q

fastidious organisms

A

All Streptococcus species.

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4
Q

organisms that tolerate 7.5% salt

A

All Staph species and Bacillus species.

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5
Q

goal of glove uses

A

prevent exposure of the worker to potentially harmful organisms, and prevent contaimination of the work with normal flora from the workers of from organisms from the environment

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6
Q

gloves should be put on in a manner that one does not

A

introduce organisms to the surface of the gloves

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7
Q

gloves should be removed in such a manner that one does not contaminate ones self with

A

the very organisms for which the gloves were preventing exposure

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8
Q

dispose of used gloves in the

A

biohazard waste disposal

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9
Q

in procedure 1.1 we touched our gloved hand to the agar plate, then we touched our hair, face and cultures to the plate. What was the point of touching just the gloved hand before we touched anything else to the plate.

A

this was the control

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10
Q

in exercise 1.2 we conducted a experiment using live organisms but before that we swabbed our clean gloves on a plate and after the experiment we put our gloves on the plate. What was the point of this exercise.

A

to see the bacteria that was on our hands prior and compare it to the amount of bacteria that grew on the after plate, this showed that even if we do not touch the bacteria some can still get on ourselves through the air.

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11
Q

resolution

A

measure of clarity of an image. measure of the shortest distance between 2 objects

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12
Q

parfocal

A

the ability of a microscope to retain coarse adjustment focus when changing objectives

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13
Q

total magnification

A

magnification is the amount by which the image one views is enlarged. total magnification of the object viewed is the magnification available through the objective lens multiplied by the magnification of by the oculars

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14
Q

oculars magnify how much

A

10x

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15
Q

if viewing through the 40x how much is the total magnification

A

400x

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16
Q

low objective

A

first objective used when viewing a slide

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17
Q

low objective number

A

10x

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18
Q

high dry objective

A

used to obtain higher magnification

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19
Q

high dry objective number

A

40x

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20
Q

you can view protozoa and fungi through

A

40x

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21
Q

you must use what when using 100x lens

A

immersion oil

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22
Q

you can see bacteria with what objective

A

100x

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23
Q

sepsis

A

presence of microbial life

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24
Q

aseptic technique

A

protocol that ensures cultures do not travel to the outside world

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25
Q

colony

A

group of genetically identical cells grouped on solid or semisolid matrix in a large enough mass that is visible to the naked eye

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26
Q

inoculating needle

A

handle with a long straight piece of wire made from metal

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27
Q

inoculating loop

A

tool has a handle with a long piece of wire that has been bent at the end to form a loop

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28
Q

sterile cotton swabs

A

used to transfer organisms from the original source to a growth medium, or to transfer a culture from one medium to another

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29
Q

loops and stabs are incinerated to

A

kill any organisms on them immediately prior to use

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30
Q

after you transfer bacteria with a loop or stab you incinerate it again, why?

A

to prevent culture organisms from entering the environment

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31
Q

thermophile

A

grows best above 45 degrees Celsius

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32
Q

mesophile

A

growth range is 10-47 degrees Celsius with an optimal range of 25-35 degrees Celsius

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33
Q

psychrophile

A

growth range of -5-20 degrees Celsius with an optimal range from -5-5 degrees Celsius

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34
Q

psychrotroph

A

able to grow as low as 0-5 degrees Celsius but may grow at higher temps with a maximum temp often well above 20 degrees Celsius

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35
Q

majority of human pathogens are

A

mesophile

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36
Q

aerobic

A

grows only in the presence of oxygen

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37
Q

anaerobic

A

cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and grows only in its absence

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38
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

prefers anaerobic but can survive in either the presence or absence of oxygen

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39
Q

facultative aerobe

A

prefers aerobic conditions but can survive in either the presence or absence of oxygen

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40
Q

facultative

A

can survive aerobic or anaerobic, inconclusive on what it prefers

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41
Q

microaerophilic

A

prefers lower than ambient air oxygen level and a higher CO2 lever but not a strict anaerobic condition

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42
Q

ambient air incubation

A

is the air found in our environment, incubating in ambient air means simply placing the culture in the room or incubator as is

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43
Q

microaerophilic incubation

A

a candle jar is created by placing a candle on top of the cultures, lighting it, and closing it with a tight seal. as the candle burns down, O2 is depleted, raising the % CO2 to the proper level

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44
Q

anaerobic incubation

A

contain no O2. obtained by fixing the O2 in ambient air with H2 and creating water

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45
Q

ambient air incubation were placed on

A

the normal rack

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46
Q

microaerophillic incubation were placed in

A

jar

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47
Q

anaerobic incubation were placed in

A

container

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48
Q

energy source

A

energy can be obtained from light or from chemical bonds

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49
Q

phototroph

A

obtain energy from light

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50
Q

chemotroph

A

obtain energy from chemical bonds

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51
Q

most organisms that cause human disease are

A

chemotroph

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52
Q

carbon source

A

carbon is needed to build organic moleules necessary for life. generally provided in the form of a carb, but some bacteria can obtain carbon from other organic moleules. some organisms can obtain from CO2 as it is fixed into organisms moleules to store energy from sunlight

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53
Q

nitrogen source

A

through some bacteria can use inorganic nitrogen most bacteria require an organic nitrogen source. organic nitrogen can be found in protiens, amino acids and other organic compounds

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54
Q

inorganic salts

A

often present in media, salts provide cofactors for enzymatic reactions and other purposes, excess salt can inhibit growth

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55
Q

vitamins

A

many bacteria require specific vitamins for growth. others can manufacture vitamins. humans rely on this feature for some of their own vitamin needs

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56
Q

free water

A

water is essential for life. bacteria require a minimum level of available water for growth

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57
Q

defined media

A

contains a specific and precise amount of ingredients. One knows exactly how much of a particulate sugar or amino acid is present

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58
Q

minimal media

A

contains bare minimum of nutrients required, often limiting the amount or variety available for purposes of study

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59
Q

general media

A

contains all the basic needs for most organisms

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60
Q

enriched media

A

contains a vast variety and amounts of nutrients, giving organisms the best chance of growth

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61
Q

2 commonly used standard methods to isolate pure cultures

A

pour plate method, streak plate method

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62
Q

most common used method of isolation

A

streak plate

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63
Q

semiquantitation

A

quadrant in which isolated colonies occur is dependent on the concentration of initial inoculation

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64
Q

first stage of idenfication

A

colony morphology, cellular morphology, gram reaction of the organisms

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65
Q

biochemical testing

A

refers to testing an organism for the ability to preform a single biochemical reaction or a battery of specific biochemical reactions

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66
Q

color

A

use terms like white, creamy, yellow, red, gray

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67
Q

size

A

described in milimeter, average diameter across an isolated colony

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68
Q

density

A

describes the ability of light to pass through the colony

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69
Q

transparent

A

one can see through it when it is held up to the light

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70
Q

opaque

A

solid, not able to see through

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71
Q

shape

A

describes the shape of the entire colony, use terms like round, pinpoint, filamanous or irregular

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72
Q

margin

A

describes the shape of the edge of the colony use terms like, smooth, wavy, irregular, woolly

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73
Q

elevation

A

describes the colony as viewed from the side, use terms like raised, flat, convex, hilly, pitted or craterform

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74
Q

consistency

A

describes the texture of the colony

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75
Q

turbidity

A

degree of cloudiness

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76
Q

0 turbidity

A

one can see clearly through the broth; one is able to clearly read print through the broth

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77
Q

1 turbidity

A

hazy, the broth has a slight haze; letters appear out of focus when read through broth

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78
Q

2 turbidity

A

cloudy, it is difficult to see through the broth; letters cannot be distinguished though one can tell they exist

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79
Q

3 turbidity

A

turbid, the broth is so cloudy one cannot see through it

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80
Q

cellular morphology

A

refers to the size, shape and arrangement of the bacterial cells

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81
Q

cellular shape

A

coccus, bacillus, spirillum

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82
Q

coccus

A

spherical in shape

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83
Q

bacillus

A

rod shaped, elongated, shaped like a stick or rod

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84
Q

spirillum

A

long and coiled

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85
Q

arrangment

A

diplo, chaining, tetrad, clusters, palisade, random

86
Q

diplo

A

appers in pairs

87
Q

chaining

A

form a chain

88
Q

tetrad

A

cells tend to group in fours

89
Q

clusters

A

cells clump in an irregular fashion forming grape like clusters

90
Q

palisade

A

picket fence arrangement

91
Q

random

A

no regular arrangment

92
Q

bacilli cannot _______ ever

A

cluster

93
Q

when prepping a slide from a broth you do not need to add

A

water to the slide

94
Q

simple stain

A

ascertain the cellular shape and arrangement of the bacteria being studied

95
Q

methylene blue

A

blue

96
Q

safranin

A

pink/red

97
Q

most common differential stain

A

gram stain

98
Q

gram postive color

A

purple

99
Q

gram negative color

A

pink

100
Q

primary stain of gram

A

crystal violet

101
Q

mordant

A

substance which aids the cells ability to hold a stain

102
Q

gram counter stain

A

safranin

103
Q

how to report a gram stain

A

gram reaction (positive or negative), cell shape (bacillus, cocci, spirillum) and then cell arrangement (chain, cluster, tetrad, loosely arranged)

104
Q

differential stain is designed to

A

enhance visualizing unique morphology as well as obtain additional information that is helpful in differentiating between species

105
Q

differential stain is based on

A

structural or physiologic differences between groups of bacteria

106
Q

differential step

A

the procedural step in the process that determines the identifying difference between two groups of bacteria

107
Q

differential step in gram stain

A

decolorization

108
Q

report for spore stain

A

no spores seen, terminal/subterminal/central spore seen

109
Q

spore formers are more difficult to

A

kill

110
Q

primary stain in spore

A

malachite green

111
Q

differential step in spore

A

rinse

112
Q

counter stain in spore

A

safranin

113
Q

primary stain/differential step in capsule

A

india ink

114
Q

in capsule stain the India ink is a

A

negative stain

115
Q

counter stain for capsule

A

crystal violet

116
Q

fluorescence antibody stain determines if a specific _____ is present

A

antigen

117
Q

lophotricous and polar

A

flagella at one end with multiple flagella

118
Q

monotricous and polar

A

one flagella at one end

119
Q

peritrichous

A

multiple flagella all over cell

120
Q

amphitrouous and polar

A

flagella at both ends

121
Q

acid fast screen for what bacteria

A

myobacterioum sp. and nocardia sp.

122
Q

acid fast do not

A

gram stain

123
Q

capsule

A

state capsule is present or not present

124
Q

spore

A

state positive for spore formation or negative for spore formation

125
Q

acid fast

A

state acid fast or non acid fast

126
Q

flagella stain

A

state flagella present or flagella not present, where flagella are present state arrangement

127
Q

general purpose media

A

designed to permit growth of most organisms.

128
Q

nutritive (enriched) agar

A

designed to permit growth of fastidious organisms as well as organisms that grow well on general purpose media.

129
Q

selective media

A

enhances the ability to isolate an organism by providing the adequate growth requirements for the group of organisms being selected while inhibiting the growth of an alternate group or not

130
Q

differential media

A

designed to visualize a difference in some ability of two groups of organisms and narrow down the possibilities in an identification process

131
Q

TSA classification

A

general/ not differential

132
Q

TSA

A

most organisms grow well on TSA

133
Q

NUT agar classification

A

not differential

134
Q

NUT agar

A

more nutrients than TSA and is basically NUT broth with agar added to form a semisolid media, some fastidious organisms survive on NUT agar

135
Q

blood agar classification

A

nutritive and differential

136
Q

BA is based on the organisms ability to hemolyze

A

RBC

137
Q

MacConkey Agar classifcation

A

selective and differential

138
Q

macconkey is selective for

A

gram negative

139
Q

Macconkey is differential based on the ability of the organism to ferment

A

lactose as a energy source

140
Q

mannitol salt classification

A

selective and differential

141
Q

mannitol is selective for

A

7.5% salt tolerant organisms

142
Q

mannitol is differential based on an organisms ability to ferment

A

manitol

143
Q

eosin methylene blue classification

A

selective and differential

144
Q

EMB is selective for

A

gram negative

145
Q

EMB is differential between

A

lactose feremeters

146
Q

arm

A

area of microscope between tube and base.

147
Q

base

A

Bottom support structure of microscope

148
Q

coarse focus

A

Larger of the two adjustment knobs, this moves the objective lenses closer or farther away. Large steps

149
Q

fine focus

A

Smaller of the two adjustment knobs, moves objective lenses closer or farther away in small steps. Can be used to fine tune focus after using the course focus

150
Q

condenser lens

A

Mounted in or below the stage. This focuses the light on the specimen. Helps increase illumination and resolution.

151
Q

diaphragm

A

Most useful at higher powers. 5 hole disc housed under the stage adjusts the amount of light passing through the stage opening.

152
Q

eyepiece lens

A

AKA ocular lenses. What you actually look through.

153
Q

field of view/field of vision

A

Diameter of light visible when looking into the eyepiece. Increasing lens power equals smaller FOV

154
Q

illuminator

A

light source, Mounted underneath the stage.

155
Q

nose piece

A

Hold the objective lens.

156
Q

objective lens

A

Lens closest to the object being viewed. Each one has different magnification, 4x, 10x, 40x, 100x.

157
Q

4x

A

scanning lens

158
Q

10x

A

low power

159
Q

40x

A

high dry power

160
Q

100x

A

oil immersion

161
Q

immersion oil

A

Special oil used at 100x or higher. Drop of oil is placed on the cover slip with the objective lens lowered until it touches the oil. Acts as a bridge between the glass lens and the glass slide. Oil concentrates the path of light to increase the resolution of the
Image.

162
Q

mechanical stage/stage

A

Main flat stage that holds the specimen.

163
Q

stage clip

A

On the stage that clip the specimen down

164
Q

on/off switch

A

Controls the power to the microscope.

165
Q

parfocal

A

Maintains focus on the specimen when objective lens is switched

166
Q

resolution

A

Lens system ability to resolve fine details of the observed object.

167
Q

staphylococcus epidermis GS

A

gram pos cocci

168
Q

staphylococcus epidermis fast

A

no

169
Q

staphylococcus epidermis 7.5% salt tolerant

A

no

170
Q

staphylococcus epidermis other characteristics

A

mannitol nonfermenter, usually nonhemolytic

171
Q

staphylococcus aureus GS

A

gram pos cocci

172
Q

staphylococcus aureus fast

A

no

173
Q

staphylococcus aureus 7.5% salt tolerant

A

yes

174
Q

staphylococcus aureus other characterisitcs

A

mannitol fermenter usually
beta or nonhemolytic

175
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae GS

A

gram pos cocci

176
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae fast

A

yes

177
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae 7.5% salt tolerant

A

no

178
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae other characteristics

A

alpha hemolytic fastidious

179
Q

bacillus subtillis GS

A

gram pos bacillis

180
Q

bacillus subtillis fast

A

no

181
Q

bacillus subtillis 7.5% salt tolerant

A

yes

182
Q

bacillus subtillis other characteristics

A

spore former

183
Q

escherichia coli GS

A

gram neg bacillus

184
Q

escherichia coli fast

A

no

185
Q

escherichia coli 7.5% salt tolerant

A

no

186
Q

escherichia coli other characteristics

A

lactose fermenter

187
Q

acinetobacter faecalis GS

A

gram neg bacillus

188
Q

acinetobacter faecalis fast

A

no

189
Q

acinetobacter faecalis 7.5% salt tolerant

A

no

190
Q

acinetobacter faecalis other characteristics

A

lactose nonfermenter

191
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae GS

A

gram neg bacillus

192
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae fast

A

no

193
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae 7.5% salt tolerant

A

no

194
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae other characterisitics

A

lactose fermenter
capsule former
mucoid colony morphology when forming capsules

195
Q

what species is fastidious

A

streptococcus pneumoniae

196
Q

what species is 7.5% salt tolerant

A

staphylococcus epidermis, staphylococcus aureus, bacillus subtillis

197
Q

ubiquitous

A

reside in almost every naturally occurring environment

198
Q

universal protocal

A

policy followed in the medical professions requiring that one must treat every patient and every biological sample as if they carry a potential pathogen

199
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

can cause disease in the right circumstances

200
Q

what lab type are we in

A

BSL2

201
Q

after switching from high dry or oil lenses one only adjusts the

A

fine focus

202
Q

only adjust coarse focus when in

A

low power

203
Q

basic steps in the process of identification of bacteria strains

A

isolation of strain
determination of colony morphology
determination of cellular morphology and gram stain

204
Q

you can confidently confirm a species after doing the basic steps by

A

biochemical testing
antigen determination
molecular techniques

205
Q

cellular morphology refers to the

A

size shape and arrangement of cells

206
Q

goal of a smear

A

adhere to a glass slide a single layer of bacterial cells for viewing

207
Q

direct smear

A

term used in clinical settings to refer to a stain preformed directly on a clinical specimen

208
Q

how do we know if a carb test is positive

A

positive means a change in color to yellow, negative stays the pink color with no color change

209
Q

urease positive and negative

A

positive is bright pink and negative is no color change

210
Q

positive and negative citrate color

A

positive is a deep blue and negative is no color change (green color)

211
Q

sulfur test positive and negative

A

positive is black color where there is growth and negative is no black color

212
Q

positive and negative indole

A

positive is when the kovacs reagent changes color into a red ring and negative is no red ring