Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a whole grain?

A

cereal grains, or foods made from cereal grains, that contain all the essential parts (starchy endosperm, germ, and bran) of the entire grain seed in its original proportions.

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2
Q

what is a refined grain?

A

cereal grains that have been milled, a process that removes the bran and germ; white flour is an example.

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3
Q

what is an enriched grain?

A

cereal grains that lost nutrients during processing but have vitamins and minerals added back in; refined grains are often enriched.

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4
Q

what are benefits of consuming whole grains?

A

reduced risk of heart disease, obesity, diabetes, and certain types of cancer.

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5
Q

what percentage of grains that Americans consume should be whole grains, according to the dietary guidelines for Americans?

A

at least 50%.

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6
Q

what molecules make up carbohydrates?

A

carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

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7
Q

what is a carbohydrate?

A

a single sugar unit.

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8
Q

how many calories are in 1 gram of carbohydrates?

A

4 kcal.

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9
Q

How are carbohydrates in regards to energy?

A

dominant source of energy for exercising muscles, exclusive source of energy for red blood cells, provide the vast majority of energy needed by the brain under normal circumstances.

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10
Q

How do carbohydrates affect amino acids?

A

reduces the use of amino acids to synthesize glucose, thereby sparing proteins from being broken down for this purpose.

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11
Q

what is the function of carbohydrates in food?

A

source of fiber, adds sweetness and flavor.

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12
Q

what are sources of carbohydrates?

A

fruits, vegetables, grains, milk, and mil products.

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13
Q

what percentage of calories should be from carbohydrates?

A

45-65%.

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14
Q

how are carbohydrates classified?

A

simple or complex.

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15
Q

what are simple carbohydrates made up of?

A

one or two sugar units.

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16
Q

what are monosaccharides?

A

sugar units that are made up of one sugar molecule.

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17
Q

what are disaccharides?

A

sugar units made up of two sugar molecules.

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18
Q

what are the three most abundant monosaccharides?

A

fructose, glucose, and galactose.

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19
Q

what is fructose?

A

the sweetest of the sugars, found in fruits, some vegetables, and honey.

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20
Q

what is glucose?

A

the most abundant sugar in our diet because it is part of all disaccharides, starches, and many fibers.

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21
Q

what is galactose?

A

one of the two monosaccharides that make up the disaccharide found in milk.

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22
Q

what are the three disaccharides?

A

maltose, lactose, and sucrose.

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23
Q

what is lactose?

A

made up of glucose and galactose, found only in dairy products, sometimes called “milk sugar.”

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24
Q

what is maltose?

A

made up of two glucose molecules, formed in large amounts as a product of starch digestion, very little is found in the foods we eat.

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25
Q

what is sucrose?

A

made up of fructose and glucose, “table sugar.”

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26
Q

how can disaccharides be digested?

A

they must be broken down to monosaccharides before they can be absorbed by cells of the intestines.

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27
Q

what are complex carbohydrates?

A

three or more monosaccharides linked together, often take the form of long or branched chains.

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28
Q

what are oligosaccharides?

A

3-10 linked monosaccharides.

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29
Q

what are polysaccharides?

A

chains (or polymers) of more than 10 monosaccharides.

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30
Q

what do most complex carbohydrates in our diet come from?

A

plants.

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31
Q

how can polysaccharides in plants function?

A

as a source of energy (starch) or as structure material (fiber).

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32
Q

what are starches?

A

a polysaccharide made up of many glucose units joined together by digestible bonds.

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33
Q

what are examples of starches?

A

amylose and amylopectin.

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34
Q

where are starches found?

A

grains, legumes, and starchy vegetables such as pease, potatoes, and corn.

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35
Q

what are fibers?

A

carbohydrates that include cellulose and hemicellulose, which make up plant cell walls and impart structure to the plant, humans lack the digestive enzymes to break down plant fiber, so it passes undigested through the digestive tract.

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36
Q

what are some fiber-rich foods?

A

whole grains, beans, vegetables such as winter squash, and fruit such as pears and raspberries.

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37
Q

what is glycogen?

A

a polysaccharide consisting of many glucose molecules, acts as storage form of glucose (carbohydrate) in animal tissue (liver and muscles).

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38
Q

what happens when glucose is needed?

A

the liver breaks down the glycogen into glucose and releases it into the blood.

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39
Q

what is the use of glycogen in skeletal muscles?

A

broken down to supply fuel for contracting muscles during intense exercise.

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40
Q

where is the energy found in carbohydrates from?

A

the sun.

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41
Q

what is photosynthesis?

A

the process by which plants convert the energy of the sun into chemical energy in the form of carbohydrates.

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42
Q

what is the endosperm?

A

the element of a grain that contains the highest amount of starch and protein, all hat remains when a grain is refined.

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43
Q

what is bran?

A

the element of a grain that contains the majority of dietary fiber and a significant amount of B vitamins and minerals.

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44
Q

what is the germ?

A

the embryo of the seed that germinates and grows and contains essential fatty acids and a number of B vitamins and minerals.

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45
Q

what are the 2 purposes of refining grains?

A

(1) helped keep flour from spoiling (because the germ becomes rancid quickly after being exposed to air) and (2) provides a desirable consistency (soft smooth texture).

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46
Q

what id the downside of refining grains?

A

the bran and germ contain the majority of healthful vitamins, minerals, phytochemical, and fiber

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47
Q

what is the whole grain stamp?

A

a front-of-package icon that tells consumers that a product contains at least 8 grams of whole grains per serving for 50% and at least 16 grams of whole grains per serving for 100%.

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48
Q

what total carbohydrate to fiber ration is advocated by the American Heart Association?

A

10:1.

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49
Q

what carbohydrates are the only ones that can be absorbed by the cells of the small intestine?

A

monosaccharides.

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50
Q

what enzyme breaks down starch molecules into shorter polysaccharides in the mouth?

A

salivary amylase.

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51
Q

what enzyme digests starch into oligosaccharides and maltose in the small intestine?

A

pancreatic amylase.

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52
Q

what is maltase?

A

the enzyme that breaks maltose down into two glucose units.

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53
Q

what is sucrase?

A

the enzyme that breaks sucrose down into fructose and glucose.

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54
Q

what is lactase?

A

the enzyme that breaks lactose down into glucose and galactose.

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55
Q

what happens to disaccharides after being broken down?

A

they are absorbed by the cells lining the small intestine and travel into the blood for distribution throughout the body.

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56
Q

what is lactose intolerance?

A

a condition characterized by diminished levels of the enzyme lactase and subsequent reduces ability to digest the disaccharide lactose.

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57
Q

what is the one monosaccharide that every cell in the body can use as fuel?

A

glucose.

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58
Q

what does the pancreas secrete after eating, and therefore having a rise in blood glucose levels?

A

insulin.

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59
Q

what is insulin?

A

a hormone produced by the pancreas that removes glucose from the bloodstream for use by cells.

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60
Q

what is glucagon?

A

a hormone produced in the pancreas that increases glucose availability in the blood in response to low blood glucose.

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61
Q

what are resistant starches?

A

a starch that remains intact after cooking, is not broken down by human digestive enzymes, and is not absorbed from the intestines.

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62
Q

what are the effects of a diets high in resistant starches?

A

improved responsiveness to insulin and a longer feeling of fullness.

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63
Q

what are some functional roles of added sugars?

A

preserving foods, browning baked items, and improving texture and appearance.

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64
Q

what is high fructose corn syrup made of?

A

55% fructose in relation to glucose (as opposed to 50%).

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65
Q

what accounts for the majority of added sugar in foods consumed in the United States?

A

beverages.

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66
Q

what are the two main issues are associated with excessive consumption of foods with added sugars?

A

adds substantial calories without adding significant bulk, provide no additional vitamins or minerals and therefore decreasing the nutrient density of foods.

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67
Q

what do the dietary guidelines for Americans recommend in regards to the percentage of calories from added sugars?

A

consume less than 10% of total calories from added sugar.

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68
Q

what are dental caries?

A

the progressive destruction of tooth enamel, and ultimately the tooth itself, through the action of bacteria on carbohydrates in the mouth, also called cavities or tooth decay.

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69
Q

what are the two types of sugar alternatives?

A

nutritive sweeteners and nonnutritive sweeteners.

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70
Q

what are nutritive sweeteners?

A

a source of calories, include polyols (alcohol forms of sugar), made from naturally occurring sugars in plants, provide 4 kcal per gram, poorly absorbed by the body, so excessive consumption of sugar alcohol often causes GI symptoms.

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71
Q

what are nonnutritive sweeteners?

A

not a source of calories, include aspartame products, which is made by linking two amino acids, 4 kcal per gram, but due to the intense sweetness, very little is used to achieve the same level of sweetness.

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72
Q

what is the recommended fiber intake per day for men under 50 years?

A

38 grams per day.

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73
Q

what is the recommended fiber intake per day for women under 50 years?

A

25 grams per day.

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74
Q

what is the average consumption of fiber per day for Americans?

A

17 grams per day.

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75
Q

where is fiber typically found in the plant?

A

in and around the cell walls.

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76
Q

what is soluble fiber?

A

a type of fiber that dissolves in water and often forms a viscous gel that acts to slow digestion and lower blood cholesterol and the risk of heart disease, readily fermented by bacteria in the colon.

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77
Q

what is insoluble fiber?

A

a type of fiber that does not dissolve in water, increases transit time through the GI tract, and contributes to “bulk” to still, fostering regular bowel movements.

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78
Q

what is dietary fiber?

A

naturally occurring carbohydrates and lignin from plants that cannot be digested in the intestinal tract or for which digestion is delayed.

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79
Q

what are the new fda regulations for dietary fiber on nutrition labels?

A

the fibers are naturally part of the intact food and certain added synthetic or isolated fibers that benefit human health, they must have been demonstrated to have at least one beneficial effect, such as lowering blood cholesterol or improving bowel function.

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80
Q

what are benefits of consuming insoluble fiber?

A

it softens stool and thereby helps maintain regular bowel movements, reduces the risk of hemorrhoids and diverticular disease, and has been shown to decrease the risk of diabetes.

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81
Q

what are benefits of consuming soluble fiber?

A

it has been shown to rescue the risk of coronary heart disease, slows the emptying of food from the stomach into the small intestine, which may extend the sensation of fullness following a meal and reduce the rise in blood glucose, which may improve blood glucose control in those with diabetes, and may rescue the risk of some types of cancer.

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82
Q

what is diabetes?

A

characterized by the body’s inability to properly regulate blood glucose concentrations.

83
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

occurs when the pancreas doesn’t produce enough of the hormone insulin, required for blood glucose control.

84
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A

occurs when specific tissues become resistant to the effects of insulin.

85
Q

what is the result of either type of diabetes?

A

an overload of glucose in the blood, causing vascular damage that can lead to serious and often fatal complications.

86
Q

what is hyperglycemia?

A

higher-than-normal blood glucose levels

87
Q

what are ketone bodies?

A

compounds synthesized from fatty acids by the liver when insulin is low, normal process, but type 1 diabetes causes this process to become unregulated.

88
Q

what is ketoacidosis?

A

the formation of excess ketone bodies from fatty acids when there is a relative absence of insulin.

89
Q

what is prediabetes?

A

a condition of higher-than-normal blood glucose levels, but not high enough for a diagnosis of diabetes’ characterized by a fasting plasma glucose level of 100-125 mg per dl of blood.

90
Q

what is an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)?

A

a test used to diagnose pre diabetes and diabetes, it measure the body’s response to glucose in the bloodstream.

91
Q

what are are some symptoms of diabetes?

A

constantly feeling thirsty, as the kidneys excrete the extra glucose through urine), experiencing blurred vision (as extra glucose enters the eye), and losing weight (due to low insulin levels and muscle cells relying on burning fat for energy).

92
Q

what are some long term symptoms of diabetes?

A

high levels of blood glucose can damage cells and organs, creating long term problems in the heart, blood vessels, kidneys, eyes, and nerves, the excess glucose causes blood vessels to thicken and lose some of their elasticity, making these people more prone to heart attacks and stroke.

93
Q

what is gestational diabetes?

A

a condition of elevated blood glucose levels arising in approximately 18% of all pregnant women, most of whom revert to normal blood glucose levels after delivery.

94
Q

how can gestational diabetes affect the mother?

A

increase her risk for developing type 2 diabetes in the future.

95
Q

how can gestational diabetes affect the infant?

A

higher risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes.

95
Q

how can gestational diabetes affect the infant?

A

higher risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes.

96
Q

what is an insulin pump?

A

a medical device used by individuals with type 1 diabetes that delivers insulin as needed.

97
Q

what are resistant starches?

A

a starch that remains intact after cooking, is not broken down by human digestive enzymes, and is not absorbed form the intestines.

98
Q

what is the glycemic index (GI)?

A

a number used to rank carbohydrate foods by their ability to raise blood glucose levels compared with a reference standard.

99
Q

what is the glycemic load (GL)?

A

the extent of increase in blood glucose levels, calculated by multiplying the glycemic index by the carbohydrate content of a food.

100
Q

what is hypoglycemia?

A

abnormally low blood glucose levels, resulting in symptoms of anxiety, hunger, sweating, and heart palpitations (fasting plasma glucose >70mg/dl)

101
Q

what is fasting hypoglycemia?

A

low levels of blood glucose that occur when people have not eaten, have drunk too much alcohol, or have underlying hormonal conditions or tumors.

102
Q

what is reactive hypoglycemia?

A

low levels of blood glucose that occur after eating large amounts of carbohydrates, causing a huge release of insulin and rapid drop in blood glucose.

103
Q

what is epinephrine?

A

a hormone released from the adrenal glands to help the body prepare for a fight-or-flight response by increasing glucose availability in the blood, a hormone that can be administered as an injection to treat the potentially life threatening symptoms of anaphylaxis.

104
Q

what is dietary fat?

A

a compound found in plant and animal foods that is essential as an energy source and necessary for absorption and transport of fat-soluble vitamins and phytochemicals.

105
Q

how many calories are there in 1 gram of fat?

A

9 kcal per gram.

106
Q

how does fat affect digestion?

A

it slows gastric emptying, causing foods to be digested and absorbed over longer periods of time, allowing for a longer feeling of fullness. This can also improve blood glucose control following the ingestion of high-carbohydrate foods when fats are included.

107
Q

what is adipose tissue?

A

connective tissue composed primarily of adipocytes (fat cells) that is a storage site for energy (in the form of triglycerides) and fat-soluble vitamins; cushions and insulates the body.

108
Q

how do fats affect foods?

A

increases palatability (taste and flavor) and contributes to the texture and aroma.

109
Q

what are lipids?

A

organic compounds composed of a diverse group of compounds that contain carbon-hydrogen chains of varying length with a lower proportion of oxygen atoms than in carbohydrates; a structurally diverse group of naturally occurring molecules that are generally insoluble in water but are soluble in organic solvents; fats are a subclass of lipids.

110
Q

what are some uses of lipids?

A

major component of cell membranes (gives it flexibility and integrity), required for the synthesis of some hormones and hormone-like substances.

111
Q

what are fatty acids?

A

a chain of carbon atoms with hydrogen atoms and a methyl group attached to one end of the fatty acid and a carboxylic acid group attached to the other end; a subclass of lipids that are also components of triglycerides and phospholipids.

112
Q

what is the function of fatty acids?

A

provide energy, regulate rates of gene expression, act as starting material used to synthesize several hormone-like compounds in the body.

113
Q

what types of lipids have fatty acids?

A

phospholipids and triglycerides.

114
Q

what are fatty acids composed of?

A

a linked chain of carbon atoms with remaining bonds containing only hydrogen atoms (a hydrocarbon chain).

115
Q

what is a methyl group?

A

a group of three hydrogen atoms bonded to a carbon atom found at the opposite end (the omega acid) of the fatty acid chain from the carboxyl group.

115
Q

what is a methyl group?

A

a group of three hydrogen atoms bonded to a carbon atom found at the opposite end (the omega acid) of the fatty acid chain from the carboxyl group.

116
Q

what is a carboxylic acid group?

A

the acid group found at one end of the fatty acid chain.

117
Q

how many carbon atoms do short chain fatty acids have?

A

less than 6 carbons.

118
Q

how many carbon atoms do medium chain fatty acids have

A

6-12 carbons.

119
Q

how many carbons atoms do long chain fatty acids have?

A

more than 12 carbons.

120
Q

what defines the degree of saturation of fatty acids?

A

ho many carbon atoms have their available bonds filled with hydrogen atoms.

121
Q

how do the properties (length of hydrocarbon chains and degree of saturation) affect fatty acids?

A

they determine the function in the body and its role in health and disease.

122
Q

what are saturated fatty acids?

A

a fatty acid molecule with no double bonds between the carbon molecules; all carbon binding sites not already bound to another carbon are saturated with hydrogen.

123
Q

what are unsaturated fatty acids?

A

a fatty acid with fewer than the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain.

124
Q

what are monounsaturated fatty acids?

A

a fatty acid with only one double bond between carbons in the carbon chain; abundant in olive and canola oils and nuts.

125
Q

what are polyunsaturated fatty acids?

A

a fatty acid with two or more double bonds between carbon sin the carbon chain; abundant in corn, safflower, sunflower, sesame, and soybean oil.

126
Q

what are triglycerides?

A

a storage form of fat, made up of three fatty acid chains attached to the three carbons on glycerol molecule; the most abundant type of dietary lipid; required for the efficient transport of certain fat soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K) through the body; made up of three fatty acid chains (mix of short medium and long chain) bound to one glycerol.

127
Q

what is glycerol?

A

a three carbon compound that makes up the backbone of a triglyceride molecule.

128
Q

what are essential fatty acids?

A

fatty acids that our bodies need but cannot synthesize in sufficient amounts; must be attained through our diet.

129
Q

what are sterols?

A

complex lipids of interconnected carbon rings with side chains of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; precursors for synthesis of steroid hormones; plant sterols have a possible role in reducing high blood cholesterol; used as additives in some margarines and spreads.

130
Q

what is cholesterol?

A

the most discussed sterol that is produced by the body and required for steroid hormone production and cell membrane function; a precursor for the synthesis of bile acids, vitamin D, and steroid hormones; does not provide any energy.

131
Q

where is cholesterol found?

A

animal foods such as meats and dairy products.

132
Q

what are phospholipids?

A

a molecule that is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic and is required to form cell membranes; lecithin, which can be found in egg yolks, liver, and some plant products, is a phospholipids; body can produce, so it is not an essential nutrient.

133
Q

what is a phospholipid composed of?

A

two fatty acids and one phosphate and a glycerol backbone.

133
Q

what is a phospholipid composed of?

A

two fatty acids and one phosphate and a glycerol backbone.

134
Q

where does fat digestion take place?

A

mostly in the small intestine, but a small part takes place in the mouth and stomach.

135
Q

what is emulsification?

A

a process hat allows lipids to form stable mixtures with water.

136
Q

why does emulsification happen?

A

lipids are not water soluble, so fat tends to clump together in the small intestine’s watery environment, so emulsification prevents this; aids digestion by breaking up large fat globules into much smaller droplets so that fat-digesting enzymes can operate efficiently

137
Q

what makes emulsification possible?

A

bile acids produced by the liver

138
Q

what is lipase?

A

enzymes produced by the pancreas that break down fats by releasing one or more fatty acids.

139
Q

what are micelles?

A

structures that deliver dietary lipids to the surface of mucosal cells of the small intestine; then they release the dietary lipids, which are absorbed by the mucosal cells

140
Q

what are lipoproteins?

A

structures formed by the assembly of proteins and phospholipids that transport lipids in lymph and in blood.

141
Q

what is chylomicron?

A

a very large lipoprotein that transports triglycerides and other dietary lipids away from the small intestine, first in lymph and then in the blood.

142
Q

what are very low density lipoproteins (VLDLs)?

A

a lipoprotein responsible for transporting primarily triglycerides to adipose tissue, cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle.

143
Q

what are low density lipoproteins (LDLs)?

A

a lipoprotein responsible for transporting primarily cholesterol from the liver through the bloodstream to the tissues; elevated levels are associated with an increase in the risk of heart disease.

144
Q

what are high density lipoproteins (HDLs)?

A

a lipoprotein responsible for transporting cholesterol from the bloodstream and tissue back to the liver; high HDL levels are typically associated with a lower risk for heart disease.

145
Q

what is omega-3 fatty acid?

A

polyunsaturated fatty acids that have the first double bond at the third carbon molecule from the methyl end of the chain; associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease and improved brain function.

146
Q

what is alpha-linolenic acid?

A

an omega-3 polyunsaturated essential fatty acid found in walnuts, flax seeds, soy, canola oil, and chia seeds; modified in the body to produce eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acid.

147
Q

what is omega-6 fatty acid?

A

polyunsaturated fatty acids that have their first double bond at the sixth carbon molecule from the metal end of the carbon chain; needed for normal growth and for synthesis of important hormone-like compounds called eicosanoids.

148
Q

what is linoleum acid?

A

an omega-6 polyunsaturated essential fatty acid found in seeds and vegetable oils.

149
Q

what is hydrogenation?

A

a chemical process by which hydrogen molecules are added to unsaturated fatty acids to make them more saturated and solid at room temperature; helps products be more resistant to becoming rancid.

150
Q

what is the result of partial hydrogenation?

A

the structure of some of the unsaturated fatty acids is converted from their natural cis configuration to another configuration known as trans.

151
Q

what are trans fatty acids?

A

fatty acids created by adding hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid; associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease; raise levels of LDL and lower levels of HDL in the blood

152
Q

what is the AMDR for total fat?

A

20-35% of our total calories.

153
Q

what is atherosclerosis?

A

a type of cardiovascular disease characterized by the narrowing and loss of elasticity of blood vessel walls, caused by accumulation of plaque and inflammation of tissue; develops over the course of several decades.

154
Q

what is plaque?

A

deposit of cholesterol, triglycerides, and cell materials that accumulate within the arterial walls; over time.

155
Q

what is myocardial infarction?

A

damage to heart tissue caused by decreased blood flow to the coronary arteries.

156
Q

what is a stroke?

A

a cerebral event (damage to the brain) that occurs when blood vessels supplying the brain are damaged or blocked.

157
Q

what is early plaque?

A

as LDLs accumulate in the blood, they infiltrate the arterial lining and become oxidized, causing inflammation and injury to the vessel wall; plaque development begins as lipids from LDL accumulate here.

158
Q

what is advanced plaque?

A

as lipids from LDL continue to accumulate, plaque expands and may often block a significant portion of blood flow. As plaque develops, it may also become vulnerable to rupture.

159
Q

what is clot formation?

A

plaque rupture promotes the formation of a blood clot that will further block blood flow through the artery.

160
Q

what are some risk factors of atherosclerosis?

A

poor diets, physical inactivity, obesity, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and heart related conditions.

161
Q

what are the ranges for total cholesterol in blood?

A

0-200 desirable
200-240 borderline high
240+ high

162
Q

what are the ranges for HDL cholesterol in blood?

A

0-40 low (undesirable)
40-60 acceptable
60+ high (desirable)

163
Q

what are the ranges for LDL cholesterol in blood?

A

0-100 optimal
100-130 near optimal
130-160 borderline high
160-190 high
190+ very high

164
Q

what are the ranges for triglycerides in blood?

A

0-150 normal
150-200 borderline high
200-500 high
500+ very high

165
Q

what is metabolic syndrome?

A

a cluster of risk factors associated with the development of cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.

166
Q

what is the RDA for protein?

A

0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight per day.

167
Q

what is the AMDR for proteins?

A

10-35% of total kcal.

168
Q

what are proteins?

A

large molecules that are assembled by joining together many amino acids, containing carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, into long chains.

169
Q

what are amino acids?

A

molecules of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen that jin together to form a protein; the building blocks of protein.

170
Q

what does an amino acid consist of?

A

a central carbon atom, an amino group, which contains nitrogen (NH2), an acid group (COOH), and a variable side chain; the side chain distinguished one amino acid from another.

171
Q

what is a peptide bond?

A

the bond that forms between the acid group of one amino acid and the amino group of another amino acid.

172
Q

what are peptides?

A

a short chain of amino acids attached together.

173
Q

what is a dipeptide?

A

an amino acid chain that contains two amino acids.

174
Q

what is a tripeptide?

A

an amino acid chain that contain three amino acids.

175
Q

what is a polypeptide?

A

an amino acid chain that contains many amino acids; several polypeptides can combine to form a protein.

176
Q

what are essential amino acids?

A

amino acids that cannot be produced in adequate amounts by the human body and therefore must be obtained from food (9 of the 20 amino acids).

177
Q

what are nonessential amino acids?

A

amino acids the body can make (11 of the 20 amino acids).

178
Q

what is protein synthesis?

A

the process of building peptide chains and ultimately proteins from amino acids using information provided by genes in a two-step process of transcription and translation.

179
Q

what is transcription?

A

the first step of protein synthesis; process by which information encoded in genes (DNA) is used to make messenger RNA.

180
Q

what is the role of DNA in protein synthesis?

A

provides the instructions for the assembly of amino acids into particular proteins.

181
Q

what is messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA)?

A

the type of RNA that carries the genetic code for a specific protein from the nucleus to the cytoplasm where proteins are made.

182
Q

what is translation?

A

the second step of protein synthesis, process by which mRNA is decoded by ribosomes to synthesize proteins in the correct amino acid sequences

183
Q

what are primary proteins?

A

chain of amino acids.

184
Q

what are secondary proteins?

A

chain of amino acids are coiled.

185
Q

what are tertiary proteins?

A

coiled chains of amino acids are folded.

186
Q

what are quaternary proteins?

A

multiple tertiary proteins.

187
Q

what is denaturation?

A

disruption of the three-dimensional shape of a protein, usually caused by heat, light, acid, or chemical reaction.

188
Q

how does denaturation of protein occur in the body?

A

stomach acid (hydrochloric acid) unfolds a food protein in the stomach, which allows the enzyme pepsin to access the peptide bonds and increase the digestibility of the protein.

189
Q

what is pepsin?

A

an enzyme produced by the cells lining the stomach that is involved in protein digestion.

190
Q

what happens to protein fragments after it enters the small intestine?

A

enzymes released from the pancreas, known as proteases, break the strings of amino acids into peptides, which are further digested by enzymes on the surface of the intestinal mucosa, and dipeptides, tripeptides, and individual amino acids are then absorbed by mucosal cells of the small intestine with the assistance of various transport proteins, which transport the amino acids into the blood.

191
Q

what are enzymes?

A

proteins that accelerate (catalyze) the thousands of critical chemical reactions that occur in our body (metabolism) and break down nutrients during digestion.

192
Q

what are hormones?

A

proteins that function as messengers between the body’s cells, tissues, and organs to regulate nearly every bodily function; regulate growth and development and play important roles in sexual development and in the going process.

193
Q

what are antibodies?

A

a type of protein that plays a central role in immunity.

194
Q

what is edema?

A

swelling due to fluid accumulation, caused by protein deficiency, protein helps maintain a proper fluid balance around the body and supports normal blood pressure.

195
Q

what is protein turnover?

A

the continuous breakdown and resynthesis of proteins in the body.

196
Q

what is nitrogen balance?

A

a measure of nitrogen intake (primarily from protein) minus nitrogen excretion

197
Q

what is nitrogen equilibrium?

A

one has approximately the same amount of total protein in our body from day to day, the amount of nitrogen we consume is equal to the nitrogen we excrete.

198
Q

what is positive nitrogen balance?

A

a person must excrete less nitrogen than he or she consumes, nitrogen in is greater than nitrogen out, as with someone just starting a resistance training program, pregnant women, or a growing child.

199
Q

what is negative nitrogen balance?

A

nitrogen in is less than nitrogen out, as with as older person who is bedridden, and the decrease in activity associated with aging and the loss in skeletal muscle mass.

200
Q

what is protein quality?

A

a measure of how well a protein meets our needs for protein synthesis, based on the proportion of essential amino acid present.