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BIO-361: Pathobiology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Apoptosis and in what ways is it activated?

A

Programmed Cell Death

Extrinsic Activation - death receptor mediated
Intrinsic Activation - mitochondrial activation

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2
Q

What is the purpose of Apoptosis?

A

Eliminate cells that are worn out, are produced in excess, have developed improperly, or have genetic damage

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3
Q

What is Necrosis?

A

Cell death in an organ or tissues that is still part of a living person

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4
Q

What are the 3 different types of Necrosis?

A

Liquifactive - cellular or bacterial enzymes degrade cell contents (absesses)

Coagulation - proteins are denatured; typical of infraction (e.g. heart attack)

Caseous - dead cells persist and form a “cheese-like debris” (common in granulomas)

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5
Q

What form of Necrosis is Wet Gangrene and what is it?

A

Liquefactive

Edema as venous return from the tissue is affected; this area is cold and no pulse can be found

Skin is moist, dark in color, and often has blisters

Contains no line of demarcation

Spread of tissue damage is rapid

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6
Q

What form of Necrosis is Dry Gangrene and what is it?

A

Coagulative

Tissue dies from arterial ischemia with no impairment of venous return from the tissue

Affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, changing color to dark brown or black

There is a line of demarcation that separates healthy tissue from the necrotic tissue

Slow spread

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7
Q

What is Gas Gangrene?

A

Caused by bacterial infection

Typically occurs in dirty wounds where the toxins dissolve the cell membranes, causing edema and RBC lysis

Hydrogen sulfide gas forms in the muscles

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8
Q

Which of the following can result in membrane damage?

(A) Inactivation of Na+/K+ ATPase
(B) Oxidation of phospholipid
(C) Ischemic activation of protease
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

A

(D) All of the above

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9
Q

Does Wet Gangrene have a line of demarcation?

A

No

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10
Q

What is Hutchinson-Gifford Progeria?

A

Premature aging

Lack of Lamin A gene which is important for DNA replication

Cell Nucleus is unstable and causes only normal growth to occur until 18-24 months of age

1 in 20 million - below average height and weight, prominent eyes, hair loss, large head, high-pitched voice

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11
Q

What are causes of Inflammation?

A

Immune response to infectious microorganisms
Trauma
Surgery
Caustic chemicals
Extremes of heat and cold
Ischemic damage to body tissues

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12
Q

What are cardinal signs of Inflammation?

A

Redness
Swelling
Heat
Pain
Loss of Function

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13
Q

What is the difference between Acute and Chronic Inflammation?

A

Acute: short duration (mins - days), emigration of leukocytes (neutrophils) into the tissue

Chronic: long duration (days - years)

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14
Q

What is the structure of an antibody?

A

Heavy chain, light chain, variable region, antigen binding site

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15
Q

Which antibody type is LEAST prevalent?

A

IgE

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16
Q

Which antibody type is released in the breast milk?

A

IgA

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17
Q

Which antibody type can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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18
Q

What two types of leukocytes participate in the acute inflammatory response?

A

Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils)
Monocytes (largest of WBCs)

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19
Q

What is the role on selectins in the migration of WBCs into the tissue?

A

They are an adhesion molecule that allows for “rolling” to occur within the WBC as it moves through a capillary

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20
Q

What is the role of integrins in WBC migration into the tissue?

A

Adhesion molecule that allows for firm adhesion to occur within the capillary wall, allowing for movement into the underlying tissue to occur

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21
Q

What is the role of Histamine?

A

Dilation of blood vessels
Contraction of airways (narrowing)

Preformed in cells and tissues and released in response to stimuli, trauma, or allergy

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22
Q

What is the role of Serotonin?

A

Important in healing burn injuries
Increases cell viability
Induces pro-inflammatory cytokine production
Proliferation
Migration of fibroblasts and keratinocytes to close wound

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23
Q

What is the role of TNF and IL1B?

A

Act together towards endothelial cells, neutrophils, and the acute-phase response

Cause selectins and integrins to be unregulated
Aggregation and priming (ready for battle) in neutrophils
Fever, anorexia, hypotension, increased HR, corticosteroid and ACTH release

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24
Q

What is the function of Platelet-activating Factor?

A

Allow for platelet aggregation
Attracts PMNs and EOS to tissue

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25
Q

What is Granulomatous Inflammation?

A

Associated with foreign bodies (splinters, sutures, asbestos)

Associated with microorganisms that cause syphilis, deep fungal infections, or brucellosis

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26
Q

Describe Acute Inflammation

A

Relatively short duration
Nonspecific early response to injury
Aimed primarily at removing the injurious agent and limiting tissue damage

Infiltration of neutrophils
Exudate

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27
Q

Describe Chronic Inflammation

A

Longer duration
Recurrent or progressive acute inflammatory process or a low-grade smoldering response that fails to evoke an acute response

Infiltration by mononuclear cells (macrophages) and lymphocytes
Proliferation of fibroblasts

28
Q

What are the 5 types of Exudates?

A

Serous
Hemorrhagic
Membranous
Purulent
Fibrinous

29
Q

Which protein on the surface of endothelial cells causes WBC rolling?

A

Selectins

30
Q

What is Serous Exudate and where is it?

A

watery fluids that are low in protein content

Result from plasma entering the inflammatory site

31
Q

What is Hemorrhagic Exudate and where is it?

A

Occurs when there is severe tissue injury that causes damage to blood vessels

When there is significant leakage of red cells from the capillaries

32
Q

What is Membranous Exudate and where is it?

A

Develop on mucous membrane surfaces

Composed of necrotic cells enmeshed in a fibro purulent exudate (pus, thick)

33
Q

What is Purulent Exudate and where is it?

A

An Abscess

Contains pus, composed of degraded white blood cells, proteins, and tissue debris (needs to be opened to drain it)

34
Q

What is Fibrinous Exudate and where is it?

A

Contain large amount of fibrinogen and form a thick and sticky mesh work

35
Q

What are some of the physical barriers of the Innate Immune System?

A

Skin
Mucus

36
Q

What are some of the physiological barriers of our Innate Immune System?

A

Coughing
Vomiting
Diarrhea

37
Q

What are some of the chemical barriers of our Innate Immune System?

A

pH (skin is 3-5; stomach is 2)
Tears (lysozymes)

38
Q

What is Complement?

A

Helps antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear pathogens from an organism

Flushing ECF into the cell to cause bacteria to explode

39
Q

What are the characteristics of adaptive immunity?

A

Specificity of recognition of antigen

Wide diversity of antigens can be specifically recognized

Memory, whereby immune system responds more quickly than the first time

Ability to distinguish self-antigens from non-self

40
Q

What are the 2 cells of adaptive immunity and what do they do?

A

T cells: helper type uses chemical signals to call on the B cells and other T cells while killer type identify infected host cells and employs chemical signals to cause then to die and be eliminated from the body

B cells: create antibodies that identify foreign invaders that need to be killed (flagged)

41
Q

What are MHC Class I?

A

Antigens from INSIDE the cell

All cells are this class

CD8 T cells activate “killer T cells”
Kill or release antiviral cytokines

Cell mediated immunity

42
Q

What are MHC Class II?

A

Antigens from OUTSIDE the cell

Antigen presenting cells

Activate CD4 T cells to help activate B cells for antibody production

43
Q

What regions of the body are important for adaptive immunity?

A

Bone marrow
Thymus
Spleen
Lymph nodes

44
Q

What do swollen lymph nodes tell us?

A

Give an idea of where the infection is

First “gateway”

45
Q

Why is vaccination important?

A

Helps to produce a ‘em memory of the vaccine antigen so if the pathogen enters the body in the future, the response will be stronger and faster than if it did not first encounter

46
Q

What is R0?

A

The number of people that can be affected by someone without immunity of a pathogen

47
Q

What is Herd Immunity?

A

Number of people in a population who have seen an antigen

If most of the population gets immunized, the spread of contagious disease is contained

48
Q

What is the Threshold for R0 when it comes to Herd Immunity?

A

The percent of the population that needs immunity to contain the spread and allow for herd immunity

49
Q

What is Primary Immune Response?

A

The first encounter with a foreign antigen

50
Q

What occurs in the Primary Immune Response?

A

Only few B and T cells can recognize the antigen and mount a response

Clónale expansion occurs where hundreds and hundreds of copies are made for memory cells

51
Q

What is the Secondary Immune Response?

A

The second encounter with a foreign antigen

52
Q

What occurs in the Secondary Immune Response?

A

Large clone of memory cells that can recognize the antigen

Immune response is faster and more effective

53
Q

What type of antigen is in the primary immune response? Secondary?

A

IgM

IgG

54
Q

What is Type I Hypersensitivity?

A

“Allergy”

IgE mediated

Against environmental antigens (allergens)

Release of histamine

55
Q

What are some of the responses to Allergies?

A

Sneezing
Itchy eyes
Runny nose

56
Q

What is Type II Hypersensitivity?

A

Antibody mediated
IgG and IgM antibodies

These bind to cell surface receptors or connective tissue

57
Q

What are the five mechanisms of Type II Hypersensitivity?

A

Cell is destroyed by antibodies and complement

Cell destruction through phagocytosis

Soluble antigen may enter the circulation and deposit on tissues

Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

Causes target cell malfunction

58
Q

What is Type III Hypersensitivity?

A

Immune complex mediated
IgG and IgM

Antigen-antibody complexes are formed in the circulation and are later deposited in vessel walls or extra vascular tissues

NOT organ specific

59
Q

What is the difference between Type II and Type III hypersensitivities?

A

Type II antibody binds to antigen on the cell surface

Type III antibody binds to soluble antigen that was released into the blood or other body fluids, and the complex is then deposited in the tissues (also not organ specific)

60
Q

What is Type IV Hypersensitivity?

A

Does NOT involve antibody

Cell-mediated immunity

CD8 T cells kill the antigen-bearing target cells as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions in which presensitized CD4 cells release cell-damaging cytokines

61
Q

What is the definition of Autoimmunity?

A

Breakdown of tolerance - body recognizes self-antigens as foreign (not normally seen by immune system)

This leads to infectious disease

62
Q

What is Myasthinia Gravis?

A

Decreased neuromuscular function as AcH is blocked of action in the neuromuscular junction

Leads to blurred vision, impaired speech, weakness of arms hands fingers and legs, difficulty swallowing and chewing

Type II Hypersensitivity

63
Q

What is Graves Disease?

A

Overproduction of Thyroid hormone

Anxiety, irritability
Fine tremor of hands or fingers
Heat sensitivity
Weight loss
Enlargement of thyroid gland

Type II Hypersensitivity

64
Q

Why have we as humans developed an aversion to fecal material and vomit?

A

We associate these things with unpleasant experiences (being sick, having food poisoning…)

65
Q

What is the purpose of pain?

A

To alert the body away from a danger to prevent further damage (e.g. hand on hot stove)

BIO-361: Pathobiology (4 decks)

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