Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NUR 346 > Exam 1: week 3 > Flashcards

Exam 1: week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different neurotransmitters that are released by neurons in the brain that pertain to mental health

A
  • norepinephrine
  • serotonin
  • dopamine
  • glutamate
  • γ aminobutyric acid (GABA)
  • acetylcholine
  • epinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two ways that neurotransmitters are destroyed

A

Enzymes
- acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine
Reuptake
- excess neurotransmitters are absorbed back into the presynaptic neuron
- norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is insufficient transmission

A

When either there isn’t enough neurotransmitter released from presynaptic neuron or there is an issue with the receptors making them unable to bind enough neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the limbic system of the brain

A

Area of the cerebrum that plays a major role in emotional status and psychological function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which neurotransmitters are active in the limbic system of the brain

A
  • norepinephrine
  • serotonin
  • dopamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of the brain stem

A

Processes sensory information then passes that information to the limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus

A
  • basic drives
  • link between thought and emotion
  • function of internal organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum

A
  • coordinates smooth muscle
  • regulates skeletal muscle
  • maintains equilibrium and balance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of the cerebrum

A
  • consciousness
  • emotional status
  • memory
  • skeletal muscle movement
  • language/communication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three ways we can visualize the brain

A
  • electrical
  • structural
  • functional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does electrical visualization of the brain entail

A

Shows the electrical signals in the brain
- electroencephalography (EEG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an EEG

A

An electrical method of visualization of the brain that shows the state a person is in and supports the identification of brain abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are structural imaging techniques for visualizing the brain

A

Provide overall images of the brain and its layers
- can reveal schizophrenia and cognitive disorders
- computed tomography (CT)
- magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a CT

A

An xray showing slices of the brain. It is done fast (2.5 minutes) and can be used in an urgent situation.
Can see:
- large masses
- bleeds
- lesions
- infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an MRI

A

A detailed imaging technique using magnetic fields. This takes longer than a CT (30-60 minutes).
Can see:
- edema
- trauma
- ischemia
- neoplasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the functional imagine techniques for visualizing the brain

A

Reveals the physiological activity of the brain
- can detect schizophrenia, mood disorders, and adult ADHD
- functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
- positron emission tomography (PET)
- single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an fMRI

A

Visualizes brain activity through blood O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a PET scan

A

A tracer is injected to show the activity of the brain through a 3D image of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is SPECT

A

Just like a PET scan but shows the activity of each brain layer as well as the whole brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What occurs with too much acetylcholine

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does acetylcholine do in the brain

A
  • learning
  • memory
  • regulates mood
  • affect sexual behavior
  • affect aggressive behavior
  • stimulates parasympathetic nervous system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What occurs with too little acetylcholine

A
  • dementia
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Huntington’s
  • Parkinson’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does dopamine do in the brain

A
  • fine muscle movement
  • integrates emotions and thoughts
  • decision making (frontal lobe)
  • Stimulates hypothalamus to release hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What occurs with too much dopamine

A
  • schizophrenia
  • mania
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What occurs with too little dopamine

A
  • ADHD (frontal cortex)
  • Parkinson’s (substantia nigra in the midbrain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does serotonin do in the brain

A
  • sleep regulation
  • hunger
  • mood
  • pain perception
  • hormonal activity
  • aggression
  • sexual behavior
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What occurs with too little serotonin

A
  • depression
  • OCD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What occurs with too much serotonin

A

anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does GABA do in the brain

A
  • inhibition of aggression, anxiety, and excitation
  • anticonvulsant properties
  • muscle relaxant properties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What occurs with too little GABA

A
  • anxiety
  • schizophrenia
  • mania
  • Huntington’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What occurs with too much GABA

A

anxiety reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does norepinephrine do in the brain

A
  • mood
  • attention
  • arousal
  • stimulates sympathetic “fight-or-flight”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What occurs with too little norepinephrine

A

depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What occurs with too much norepinephrine

A
  • schizophrenia
  • mania
  • anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does glutamate do in the brain

A
  • learning
  • memory
  • excitatory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What occurs with too little glutamate

A

psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what occurs with too much glutamate

A
  • Alzheimer’s
  • neurotoxic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What occurs with too little epinephrine

A

depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What occurs with too much epinephrine

A

anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is pharmacodynamics

A

what drugs do in the body and how they do it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is pharmacokinetics

A

Movement of the drug through the body
- Absorption
- Distribution
- Metabolism
- Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are benzodiazepines

A

Drugs that promote activity of GABA and has a calming effect
- anti-anxiety
- hypnotic
- anticonvulsant
- amnestic
- muscle relaxant
- addictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some common benzodiazepine drugs for anxiety

A

All are schedule c-IV according to the DEA
- diazepam (Valium)
- clonazepam (Klonopin)
- alprazolam (Xanax)
- lorazepam (Ativan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the scale used to determine if a patient has an anxiety disorder

A

SWICKIR anxiety scale; worries plus 3 additional symptoms for at least 6 months

S- somatic symptoms
W- worries
I- irritability
C- concentration
K- keyed-up/on edge
I- initial insomnia
R- relaxation difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some benzodiazepine drugs used for insomnia

A

Used for their predominant hypnotic effects
- Flurazepam (Dalmane)
- Temazepam (Restoril)
- Triazolam (Halcion)

46
Q

What are some benzodiazepine drugs used for alcohol withdrawal

A
  • Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
  • Diazepam (Valium)
  • Lorazepam (Ativan)
47
Q

What are Z-hypnotics

A

Nonbenzodiazepine receptor agonists. Short acting sedatives that have the hypnotic effect of benzos without the antianxiety, muscle relaxant, or anticonvulsant properties.
- Quick onset
- short half-life (up to 8 hours)

48
Q

what are some Z-hypnotic drugs

A
  • Zolpidem (Ambien)
  • Zaleplon (Sonata)
  • Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
49
Q

What is something that is important to tell a patient who is taking Eszopiclone

A

will have a bad taste in their mouth when they wake up

50
Q

What is Ramelteon (Rozerem)

A
  • treats insomnia
  • melatonin receptor agonist
  • helps regulate circadian rhythms
  • no abuse potential
51
Q

What are the side effects of Ramelteon (Rozerem)

A
  • headache
  • dizziness
52
Q

What is Doxepin (Silenor)

A
  • used for trouble staying asleep
  • low dose tricyclic antidepressant
  • sedative effects from histamine-1 (H1) receptor antagonism
53
Q

What are orexins

A

neuropeptides produced in the hypothalamus that promote wakefulness

54
Q

What are some orexin receptor antagonist drugs

A
  • Suvorexant (Belsomra)
  • Lemborexant (Dayvigo)
55
Q

What is Buspirone (BuSpar)

A
  • used in generalized anxiety disorder
  • partial serotonin agonist (unlike benzos that effect GABA)
  • no potential for abuse
  • not a CNS depressant
  • no sedative effect
56
Q

What are some side effects of Buspirone (BuSpar)

A
  • headache
  • dizziness
  • nausea
  • insomnia
57
Q

What are SSRIs and SNRIs

A

selective serotonin (norepinephrine) reuptake inhibitors that are used to treat depression but can also be used to treat many anxiety disorders

58
Q

What are some anxiety disorders that can be treated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A
  • OCD
  • social anxiety disorder (SAD)
  • generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
  • panic disorder (PD)
  • PTSD
59
Q

Which serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are used to treat anxiety disorders

A

Venlafaxine (Effexor)
- generalized anxiety disorder
- social anxiety disorder
- panic disorder
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
- generalized anxiety disorder

60
Q

What is the monoamine hypothesis of depression

A

depression is caused by a deficiency of norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine or a combination of the three

61
Q

what is the prolonged use hypothesis

A

prolonged use of antidepressants can lead to neurotrophic factor production leading to increased neuron survival and new neurologic pathways being formed in the brain

62
Q

How do tricyclic antidepressants work

A

blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine or both norepinephrine and serotonin

63
Q

What are some side effects of tricyclic antidepressants

A
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • confusion
  • disturbed concentration
    -sedation/drowsiness
  • anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention)
  • overdose can be fatal
    can lead to mania in bipolar pts
64
Q

What are the tricyclic antidepressant drugs

A
  • Amitriptyline (Elavil)
  • Nortriptyline (Pamelor)
  • Imipramine (Tofranil)
65
Q

How do MAOIs work

A

Used to treat depression
Inhibits monoamine oxidase which is the enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine). This allows more neurotransmitters to be released from the presynaptic neuron.

66
Q

What needs to be avoided when taking MAOIs

A

tyramine rich foods such as
- cheese
- wine
- fish
- meat
eating these food can lead to a hypertensive crisis

Also these have a lot of interactions with other drugs

67
Q

What are some MAOI drugs

A
  • Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
  • Phenelzine (Nardil)
  • Tranylcypromine (Parnate)
  • Selegiline (EMSAM)
68
Q

What are some side effects of MAOIs

A
  • hypertensive crisis when eating tyramine rich foods
  • photosensitivity
  • weight gain
  • sexual dysfunction
69
Q

What is serotonin syndrome

A

A potential life-threatening syndrome that occurs when taking multiple serotonin altering drugs.
- onset of 6 hours
- treat with cyproheptadine

70
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A
  • N/V/D
  • diaphoresis (sweating)
  • tachycardia
  • fever
  • tremors
  • muscle rigidity
  • agitation
  • delirium
  • coma
71
Q

What are some SSRI drugs

A

Used to treat depressed mood, OCD, obesity, bulimia, and anxiety
- Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- Sertraline (Zoloft)
- Paroxetine (Paxil)
- Citalopram (Celexa)
- Escitalopram (Lexapro)
- Fluvoxamine (Luvox)

72
Q

What are some side effects of SSRIs

A
  • N/V
  • low libido
  • apathy
  • headache
  • painful menstruation
  • insomnia
  • rash
  • taste changes
  • tremor
  • dizziness
  • weight loss/gain
73
Q

What are some SNRI drugs

A
  • Venlafaxine (Effexor)
  • Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)
  • Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
  • Levomilnacipran (Fetzima)
74
Q

What are the side effects of SNRIs

A
  • hypertension at higher doses
  • less anticholinergic effects of SSRIs
75
Q

What is Mirtazapine (Remeron)

A

A norepinephrine and serotonin specific antidepressant (NaSSA)

76
Q

What is Bupropion (Wellbutrin) (Zyban)

A

Norepinephrine dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI)
- used in smoking cessation
- no sexual dysfunction
- abrupt D/C can cause seizures
- my cause appetite suppression

77
Q

Delete

A
78
Q

What are some mood stabilizing agents

A

Lithium
Anticonvulsants
Off-label drugs

79
Q

what is the gold standard of mood stabilization

A

Lithium (Eskalith, Lithobid)
- stabilizes depression and mania
- narrow therapeutic index
- potential toxicity
- mechanism unknown but may be electrical due to it being a positive cation

80
Q

What are some complications of lithium treatment

A
  • fluid imbalance (polyuria, edema)
  • bradycardia
  • hypothyroidism in long term use
  • hyponetremia (leads to toxicity)
81
Q

What are some anticonvulsant drugs used for mood stabilization

A

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
- for acute mania
Divalproex (Depakote)
- managing impulsive aggression
Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
- maintenance therapy
Oxcarbezepine (Trileptal)

82
Q

What are some off-label drugs used for mood stabilization

A
  • gabapentin (Neurontin)
  • pregabalin (Lyrica)
  • Topiramate (Topamax)
83
Q

What are some side effects of mood stabilizers

A
  • weight gain
  • somnolence (sleepiness)
  • agranulocytosis
  • thrombocytopenia
  • hepatitis
  • Steven Johnsons syndrome
84
Q

What is the therapeutic blood level for lithium

A

0.8-1.4 mEq/L

85
Q

What is the maintenance blood level for lithium

A

0.4-1.3 mEq/L

86
Q

What is the toxic blood level for lithium

A

1.5 mEq/L and above

87
Q

What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity

A
  • N/V/D
  • abdominal pain
  • dizziness
  • weakness
  • confusion
  • memory problems
  • psychosis
  • tremors
  • nystagmus
  • seizure
  • coma
  • kidney failure
88
Q

How do you treat lithium toxicity

A

Activated charcoal
NG tube to remove stomach contents
IV fluids

permanent neuro/cognitive symptoms may persist after treatment

89
Q

What are the characteristics of first-generation antipsychotic drugs

A

Treat the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (delusions, hallucinations)
- dopamine receptor antagonists
- muscarinic antagonists for histamine, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine receptors
- has significant side effects

90
Q

What are the side effects of first-generation antipsychotics

A
  • weight gain
  • sedation
  • Extrapyramidal symptoms (involuntary facial movements)
91
Q

Delete

A
92
Q

what are the characteristics of second-generation antipsychotics

A

Treat the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia
- dopamine and serotonin antagonists
- fewer extrapyramidal symptoms
- increased risk of metabolic syndrome (increased weight, blood sugar, triglycerides, and insulin resistance)

93
Q

What are some second generation antipsychotic drugs

A
  • Clozapine (Clozaril)
  • Risperidone (Risperdal)
  • Quetiapine (Seroquel)
  • Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
  • Ziprasidone (Geodon)
  • Aripiprazole (Abilify)
  • Paliperidone (Invega)
  • Iloperidone (Fanapt)
  • Lurasidone (Latuda)
  • Asenapine (Saphris)
94
Q

What are some important characteristics of Clozapine (Clozaril)

A
  • first second-gen antipsychotic
  • highly effective at treating schizophrenia
  • lowest possibility of extrapyramidal symptoms
  • required absolute neutrophil testing for agranulocytosis
  • prescriber must be certified in REMS program and enroll the patient in the program
95
Q

What are some side effects of Clozapine (Clozaril)

A
  • seizures
  • myocarditis
  • agranulocytosis
  • hypersalivation
  • weight gain
96
Q

What are some medications used for ADHD

A

Stimulants
- Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta)
- Amphetamines (Adderall, Vyvanse)
Nonstimulants
- Atomoxetine (Strattera)
- Guanfacine (Intuniv)
- Clonidine (Kapay)

97
Q

What drug classes are used to treat Alzheimer’s

A

Cholinesterase Inhibitors
Glutamate blockers

98
Q

How do cholinesterase inhibitors help Alzheimer’s

A

Slows the rate of memory loss by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine

99
Q

How do glutamate blockers help Alzheimer’s

A

Stops the excessive stimulation of NMDA by glutamate while still allowing glutamate to activate when making new memories

100
Q

What are some western traditional worldviews

A
  • identity is found in self
  • values autonomy, independence, and self-reliance
  • mind and body are separate entities
  • disease has a cause and treatment is aimed at the cause
  • time is linear
  • success is obtained by preparing for the future
101
Q

What are some eastern traditional worldviews

A
  • identity is found in the family
  • mind, body, and spirit is one entity
  • time is circular and recurring
  • born into fate; duty to comply to that fate
  • disease caused by fluctuating of opposing forces
102
Q

What are some indigenous culture worldviews

A
  • significance of place of humans in the world
  • identity is found in the tribe
  • person is an entity only in relation to others
  • disease is the lack of harmony between the individual and the environment
103
Q

What is enculturation

A

The transmission of a culture’s worldview, beliefs, values, and practices to its members

104
Q

What is ethnocentrism

A

The universal tendency of humans to think their way of thinking is the only correct way

105
Q

What is cultural imposition

A

Process in which people or groups try impose their own values on others because they believe their way is superior

106
Q

What is somatization

A

When psychological issues are expressed as physical ailments
This is seen in cultures where they believe their mind and body are one entity

107
Q

What is Susto

A

Among indigenous people in Latin America, this is an illness is considered a spirit attack.

symptoms include anxiety, insomnia, fever, depression, and diarrhea

108
Q

What is acculturation

A

When immigrants are learning the beliefs, values, and practices of their new cultural setting

109
Q

What is assimilation

A

when immigrants adopt the culture of their new home as well as teaching their culture to those around them

110
Q

What is the difference between immigrants and refugees

A

immigrants chose to move but refugees are forced from their home culture

111
Q

Delete

A

NUR 346 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions