exam 1 tophat Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of interactions in terms of strength (from strongest to weakest)?

A

Covalent Bonds, Ionic Charge-Charge Interactions, Hydrogen Bonds, Van der Waals forces

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2
Q

Which of the following secondary protein structures is best described as a u-shaped four residue segment stabilized by hydrogen bonds?

A

reverse turn

literally looks like a letter-U

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3
Q

Select the hydrophobic amino acid

A

hydrophobic (nonpolar) have an alkyl or aromatic group

r group has no +/-

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4
Q

Which of the these four stages that result in the formation of a protein structure occurs due to interactions between amino acid R groups from the same polypeptide chain?

A

tertiary

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5
Q

The binding of an agonist to which of the following transmembrane receptors does not result in the opening of a pore and an alteration in ion conductance?

A

GPCR - function is to transduce extracellular stimuli into intracellular signals

essentially an on-off switch

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6
Q

Which of the following types of receptor interacts directly with DNA?

A

nuclear receptors
-directly bind to DNA

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7
Q

Tachyphylaxis is

A

rapid decrease in drug response following initial administration

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8
Q

In order for an action potential to be generated, the _____ must first be reached through the activation of a ligand-gated ion channel.

A

threshold

in order for an action potential to be generated, the THRESHOLD must first be reached through the activation of a ligand-gated ion channel

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9
Q

In an excitatory cell, such as a neuron, an antagonist of which of the following voltage-gated ion channels would result in hyperpolarization and therefore an inhibitory effect (select the two that apply)?

A

Sodium (Na+) and Calcium (Ca2+)

drugs that open Na+ and Ca2+ channels are excitatory

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10
Q

Drugs that open K+ or Cl- channels are

A

inhibitory

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11
Q

Which of the following receptors has it’s own intrinsic enzymatic activity?

A

Receptor Tyrosine Kinase

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12
Q

In regards to an agonist, which of the following parameters is the most important clinically?

A

efficacy

In regards to an AGONIST, which of the following parameters is the most important clinically

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13
Q

Assuming that the maximal biological response is achieved when all receptors are occupied and that biological response is proportional to the amount of receptors bound to a drug, which of the following is true?

A

Kd = EC50

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14
Q

Based on the therapeutic index (TI) values, which of the following drugs would most likely require constant patient monitoring.

A

TI = 10

lower TI more unsafe, higher TI more safe drug

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15
Q

A drug that has a low Kd value for a particular receptor has a ___________ affinity

A

high

low kd = high affinity
high kd = low affinity

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16
Q

Assuming that there are no spare receptors, a non-competitive antagonist will reduce the ___________ of an agonist for a particular receptor

A

efficacy

noncompetitive antagonist reduces agonist efficacy

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17
Q

Competitive antagonist reduces agonist ________?

A

potency

competitive antagonist reduces agonist potency

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18
Q

If Drug A has no effect at Receptor X but enhances the effect of Drug B at Receptor X we consider this type of interaction to be which of the following?

A

potentiation

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19
Q

additive/summation

A

final effect equal to sum of the effect of two drugs

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20
Q

potentiation

A

drug with no or little effect on its own enhances effect of 1st drug

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21
Q

Which of the following is the orthosteric site?

A

the active binding site

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22
Q

Which of the following types of ligand requires a receptor to have basal activity in order to alter a receptors response.

A

inverse agonist

23
Q

antagonist

A

inhibit action of an agonist but have no effect in absence of the agonist

24
Q

agonist

A

a ligand that binds to and activates a receptor eliciting a physiological response

25
Full agonist
binds and has full response
26
Partial agonist
50% response may be more potent than a full agonist
27
Partial agonist
binds to receptor at active site but produces only a partial response (even when all receptors occupied) even if it occupies 100% of its receptors, it can't exert 100% of maximal response occurs at 50% of max possible response can be more/less potent than full agonist
28
Inverse agonist
ligand that binds to receptor eliminating basal activity or constitute activity
29
Which of the following mechanisms of transportation of a drug molecule across a cell membrane requires energy to move a drug against it's chemical concentration gradient?
Active Transport
30
Which of route of administration results in the greatest bioavailability for a drug?
Intravenous
31
Sort the following compartments from first to last in terms of when a drug will be distributed into that part of the body after it has been administered.
blood, heart, skeletal muscle, adipose tissue
32
Assuming that your drug is administered intravenously, when calculating your maintenance dose you multiply the steady-state plasma concentration by which of the following parameters?
clearance Css x Cl
33
Drug X has a volume of distribution value of 43 L. Which of the following areas of the body has it most likely been distributed?
Total Body Water (Intracellular + Extracellular)
34
Assuming that the volume of distribution is unaltered, what happens to the half-life of a drug if it's clearance rate slows down?
increases decreased clearance = increased half life
35
First-order kinetics relates to the elimination of a constant _______ of drug for each half-life of the compound.
fraction First order kinetics relates to the elimination of a constant FRACTION of drug for each half-life of the compound gets drug out quicker than zero order
36
Zero order kinetics relates to constant _________ of a drug overtime
amount takes longer to get drug out of body
37
Which of the following drugs is mostly likely to accumulate in adipose tissue?
Vd = 18,000 extremely large Vd means adipose tissue
38
Inhibition of which of the following drug transporters will NOT increase drug bioavailability?
Uptake transporter on the luminal apical membrane of a small intestine enterocyte
39
Efflux transporters
inhibition results in INCREASE in bioavailability for drug substrates
40
Uptake transporters
inhibition results in DECREASE in bioavailability
41
Which of the following drug transporter subfamilies only consist of unidirectional, efflux primary active transporters?
ABC transporters
42
SLC transporters
uptake (into cell) facilitated diffusion secondary/tertiary active transport bi-directional
43
ABC transporters
A= atp efflux (out of cell) primary active transport uni-directional
44
Which Glucose Transporter (GLUT) is insulin-sensitive?
GLUT-4 glut-1-3 are insulin INSENSITIVE
45
An adverse effect that occurs as a result of a drug metabolite binding to the intended receptor in an unintended tissue would be considered to be an ___________ effect?
on-target
46
Which of the following mechanisms of decontaminating a patient after a drug overdose would be the most appropriate if all of the drug has been absorbed into the bloodstream?
Urinary Alkalinization
47
gastric emptying
most effective when used within one hour of ingestion
48
activated charcoal
oral poisonings
49
WBI
flushes and cleanses bowel most useful for substances that are not well-absorbed by activated charcoal.... aids in passing of poison before absorption takes place
50
Urinary alkalinization
decontaminates drug once it has been absorbed into bloodstream
51
Which of the following type of adverse drug reactions is most commonly observed?
Type A - Augmented (dose-related ADRs)
52
If an individual is an ultrarapid CYP2D6 metabolizer they may require a __________ dose of a drug metabolized through that enzyme compared to the average recommended dose
higher look at graph lecture 10
53