Exam 1 - Study Guide Questions Flashcards
what are the four basic tissues of the human body?
epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissues
what is the function of each type of bone cell?
osteoblast - form bone, osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone, osteoclast - remodel bone
what is the primary constituent of the ground substance?
glycosaminoglycans
what types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?
chondroitin sulfate, keratin sulfates and hyaluronic acid
what is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?
collagen type 1
what are the primary constituents of the bone
calcium, phosphate, citrate, carbonate ions
what is the most frequently described to deposit in bone
hydroxyapatite
bone is also the repository for what additional ions
sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium
what is Wolff’s law as it pertains to bone
living tissue will respond to stressors such as anxiety, tension or pressure; bone is formed or absorbed in response to the same stressors
what three responses of living bone or stressed in class
it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stress or such as anxiety, tension or pressure and to age
bone is the embryological derivative of which specific connective tissues
mesenchyme and or cartilage
what is the name given to the pattern of ossification and mesenchyme
intramembranous ossification
what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification
from the second to third month in utero
what part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification
the skull
what is the name given to the pattern of ossification and cartilage
endochondral ossification
what is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage
the 2nd to 5th month in utero
which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification
the mandible sphenoid temporal and occipital bones
which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification
the clavicle
what are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance
primary centers of ossification appear before birth secondary centers of ossification appear after birth
mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density
cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone
what is the name of the outer fibro cellular covering of bone
the periosteum
what is the name given to the fibro cellular lining of bone
the endosteum
what are the primary sources of variation observed in bone
sexual dimorphism or gender variation, ontogenic variation or growth / age variation, graphic or population-based variation or ethnic origin, idios syncratic variation or individual variation
differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation
sexual dimorphism or gender variation
differences in the number or morphology of vertebra within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation
ontogenetic variation
differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or location variation is identified as which type of variation
Geographic variation or population-based variation
differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on uniqueness between individuals as identified as which type of variation
idiosyncratic variation
what are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, sesamoid bones and paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones
what are the examples of short bones
most of the bones of the carpus and Tarsus
What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone
the bone develops within a tendon
what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones
patella and pisiform
which classifications of bone are characteristic of the axial skeleton
flat bones, irregular bones and paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones
what are the examples of flat bones
the parietal bone and sternum
what are examples of irregular bone
the vertebra and innominate bones
what is characteristic of pneumatic bone
air spaces within the bone
what are examples of pneumatic bone
frontal ethmoid maxilla sphenoid and temporal
what bones contain paranasal sinuses
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid
what are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed and spinal Anatomy
accessory and heterotopic bone
what is the name given to Bone formed from existing bone
accessory bone
what are examples of accessory bone
para articular processes and bony Spurs of vertebra
what is the name given to Bone formed in a non bone location
heterotopic bone
what are examples of hetero topic bone
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments
what are the four basic surface feature categories
facets, elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways
when do the surface features of bone become prominent
during and after puberty
what are the types of osseous elevations
linear, rounded and sharp
what are the types of osseous linear elevations
the line, Ridge and crest
what are the types of rounded osseous elevations
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus
what are the categories of sharp osseous elevations
spine and process
what are the categories of osseous depressions
linear and rounded depressions
what are the categories of osseous linear depressions
notch or incisure, Groove, Sulcus
what are the categories of rounded osseous depressions
the fovea and fossa
what are the names given to openings on the surface of bone
ostium or orifice and Hiatus
what is the definition of an osseous ostium
a round or oval opening on the surface of bone
what is the definition of an osseous hiatus
an irregular opening on the surface of bone
what are the names given to the osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone
foramen or canal
what is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway
meatus
what are the categories of osseous facets
flat facet and rounded facets
what are the categories of rounded osseous facets
articular heads and articular condyles
how many bones from the typical adult appendicular skeleton
126 bones
how many bones form a typical adult axial skeleton
80 bones
what bones form the axial skeleton
the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum, and ribs
what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible
the cranium
what are the names given to the top of the adult skull
the calvaria or calva
what are the categories of bone form in the typical adult skull
the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral Cranium) and the auditory ossicles
what is the neurocranium
the bones that support and protect the brain
how many bones from the typical adult neurocranium
eight bones
what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull
the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid
how many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)
14 bones
what is the facial skeleton
is the bones that support the face or front of the head
what bones form the facial skeleton
mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal Concha, Palatine, and zygomatic
by strict definition what is the splanchnocranium
the bones that support the face minus the mandible
what bones form the splanchnocranium
vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal Concha, Palatine, zygomatic
how many bones are present in the adult hyoid
one bone
what is the number of bones comprise in each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column
seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebra, one sacrum and one coccyx
what is the name given to the pre sacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column
the spine
what is the total number of bones form in the typical adult spine
24 bones
what is the definition of spine as it pertains to the vertebral column
the Pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column
how many bones are present in the typical adult sternum
one bone
what regions are present along the typical adult sternum
the manubrium sterni, the Corpus Sterni and the xiphoid process
how many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton
12 pair or 24 ribs
what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult
26 segments
what constitutes the spine
the 24 presacral segments; cervical thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
how many segments United Forum the typical sacrum
five segments
how many segments United from the typical coccyx
four segments
what does the term cervical refer to
the region of the neck
what is the typical number of segments in the cervical region
7 segments
what does the term thoracic refer to
breastplate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the
what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest
the dorsal segments, the dorsal
what are the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region
12 segments
what does the term lumbar refer to
the loin; the region between the rib and the hip
what is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region
five segments
what does the term sacrum refer to
the holy bone or holy region
what does the term coccyx refer to
the cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds beak
what is the length of a typical male spinal column
about 70 CM or 28 inches
what is the length of a typical female spinal column
about 60 cm or 25 inches
what is the difference in length between the typical male and typical female spinal column
about three inches
what is the length of the male cervical
about 12 CM or five inches
what is the length of a male thoracic region
about 28 CM or 11 inches
what is the length of the male lumbar region
about 18 cm or 7 inches
what is the length of the male sacrum
about 12 CM or five inches
based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column what is the length of the male spine
about 58 cm or 23 in
how does the vertebral column participate in the protection of neural tissues
the spinal cord and beginning pns are located within the vertebral segments
how does the vertebral column participate in protection of the viscera
ribs are attached to vertebrae to form the thorax thus protecting the heart and lungs
what parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column
the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis
how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation
ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template
what levels of the vertebral column specifically, date weight-bearing transfer
S1 through S3 at the auricular surface
distinguish between motion and locomotion
motion is movement without travel. Locomotion is movement to a new site or location
what is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame
comparative anterior versus posterior height of the vertebral body and compared of anterior versus posterior height of the intervertebral disc
what organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull
the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
how is the vertebral column in stabilization of visceral function
Integrity of the spinal column enhance is appropriate nerve system control of viscera
when does the embryonic disk form
second week in utero
when does gastrulation occur or a three-layered embryo form
third week in utero
invagination of ectoderm along the Primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure
notochord
what is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column
paraxial mesoderm
what does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column
somites
name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite
sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome
what part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column
sclerotome
list in order the names of the successive vertebral column’s formed during development
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature
the perichordal blastema
the Perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes
neural processes and costal processes
cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features
a loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal scleratomite
what forms between the sclerotomite of a parachordal blastema
the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature
the perichordal disc
the perichordal disc is the presumptive location of what adult feature
the intervertebral discs
what is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc
the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
the union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature
the vertebral blastema
what vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema
the segmental artery
when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema
beginning in the sixth embryonic week
what is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage
chondrification
chondrification is first identified in which region of the embryonic vertebral column
the cervical region
what are the names given to the center of chondrification within the vertebral blastema
Centrum Center, neural Arch Center, transverse process center
how many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema
six. Two for the Centrum, two for the neural Arch, two for each transverse process
what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra
during the seventh embryonic week
ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column
the lower cervical-upper thoracic region
what is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra
three primary Center to five secondary Center
what are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra
Centrum Center and neural Arch Center
how many primary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra
3 1 for the Centrum 2 for the neural arches
what is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification
cartilage synchondrosis or amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
what are the names of the synchondrosis forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra
neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis
what are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra
tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
how many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra
five. One for the tip of each transverse process, one for the tip of the spinous process, one for each epiphyseal plate
what are the names of the synchondroses formed between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra
tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis
what is the range of a parents for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra
during puberty, typically ages 11 to 16 years old
what are the three basic parts of a vertebra
the vertebral body, vertebral Arch, and the apophyseal regions
what is formed by the vertebral body and vertebral Arch
vertebral foramen
what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine
cervical is rectangular, thoracic is triangular, lumbar is reniform
what is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body
Superior epiphyseal Rim, inferior epiphyseal rim
what is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of the developing vertebral body
Superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate
what are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body
nutrient foramina or vascular foramina
what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body
the basivertebral venous foramen
what is the name of the vessel entering the nutrient or vascular foramen
osseous artery
what is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body
the basivertebral vein
what is the semi-circular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called
the vertebral Arch
what is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral Arch
the pedicle
what is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral Arch
lamina
what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral Arch where the transverse process and articular processes
the lamina - pedicle Junction
what is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle
the superior vertebral Notch (incisure) and the inferior vertebral notch (incisure)
what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine
cervical - posterior lateral, thoracic - posterior, slightly lateral, lumbar - posterior
all lamina are oriented in what direction
posterior and median
what is the name given to the overlap of Laminae seen on x-ray
shingling
what ligament will attach to the lamina
the ligamentum flavum
what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum
para - articular process
what classification of bone will para - articular processes represent
accessory bone
what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle Junction at each region of the spine
cervical - articular pillar, thoracic and Lumbar - pars interarticularis
what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral Arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray
the spinolaminar Junction
what is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral Arch
the apophyseal regions
what names may be given to each apophysis of the spine
the transverse apophysis or transverse process, articular apophysis or articular process, spinous apophysis or spinous process
what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine
cervical - anterolateral, thoracic - posterolateral, lumbar - lateral
all non rib bearing vertebrae of the spine retain what equivalent feature
the costal element
what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process
the transverse tubercle
what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process
the transverse tubercle
what will cause the transverse process to alter its initial Direction in the cervical region
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
what will cause the transverse process to alter its initial Direction in the thoracic region
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes back
what will the articular process support
the articular facet
what is the name given to the Joint formed between the articular facets of a vertebral couple
the zygapophysis
what is the name given to the Bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis
the superior articular facet
what is the name given to the Bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis
the inferior articular facet
what names are given to the part of the vertebrate which supports the front of the zygapophysis
the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre - zygapophysis
what names are given to the part of the vertebrate which supports the back of the zygapophysis
the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post - zygapophysis
in the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the
pre - zygapophysis
in the vertebral couple the part of the vertebrate which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the
post - zygapophysis
what is the name given to the part of the vertebrate forming the pre zygapophysis
the superior articular process
what is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post- zygapophysis
the inferior articular process
what is the method of calculating the angle of a spinous process
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process and the horizontal plane
what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes as seen on x-ray
imbrication
what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process
the spinous tubercle
what is the orientation of the spinous process at each region of the spine
cervical - slight angle inferiorly, thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly, lumbar - no inferior angle
what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen
the inferior articular process, the superior articular process, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen
the inferior vertebral notch
what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen
the superior vertebral notch
what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral discs, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
what name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure
the vertebral foramen
the union of all vertebral foramen are forms and apparent vertical cylinder called the
vertebral Canal or spinal canal
what neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2
the spinal cord, the proximal part of the peripheral nervous system, and the meninges
what is the typical shape or outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column
cervical - triangular, thoracic - oval, lumbar - triangular, sacrum - triangular
at what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate
L1
at what vertebral level will the Dural Sac typically terminate
S2
what are the segmental arteries
the arteries whose branches Supply the vertebra or segment
identify all segmental arteries of the vertebral column
vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, Superior intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, Lumbar, Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, and median sacral
what are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine
the vertebral artery, the ascending cervical artery, and the Deep cervical artery
what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine
the Deep cervical artery, Superior intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery, and subcostal artery
what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine
the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median sacral artery
what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median sacral artery
what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum
the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median sacral artery
what segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery
C1 through C6
what signal levels are supplied by the a sending cervical artery
C1 through C6
what segmental levels are supplied by the Deep cervical artery
C7 through T1
what the segmental levels are supplied by the superior intercostal artery
T1 and T2
what segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery
T3 through T 11
what segmental level are supplied by the subcostal artery
T12
what segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries
L1 through L4
what segmental levels are supplied by the median sacral artery
L5, S1 through S5 and coccyx
what sentimental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery
L5, S1 through S5 and coccyx
what segmental levels are supplied by the lateral sacral artery
L5, S1 through S5 and coccyx
which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it
L5
what are the segmental arteries for L5
iliolumbar artery, median sacral artery and lateral sacral artery
what branch of the segmental arteries supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region
the dorsospinal artery
what artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen
spinal artery
which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter sub arachnoid space
spinal artery
which branches of the spinal artery Supply the contents of the epidural space
osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery
what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum
posterior spinal canal arteries and plexus
which branches of the spinal artery Supply the contents of the subarachnoid space
anterior radicular artery, posterior auricular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery
which vessel will supply the ventral or anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root
anterior radicular artery
which vessel will supply the dorsal or posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion
posterior radicular artery
which artery is now set to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery
the radicular artery
what is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length
anterior spinal artery
the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery
vertebral artery
is the anterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord
no
as the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel
anterior medullary feeder arteries
the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord
it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord
is the posterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord
no
as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous facile
posterior medullary feeder arteries
what forms the arterial Vasa Corona
anterior spinal artery, posterior spinal arteries, and communicating arteries
what is the generic name given to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord
intra medullary arteries
what are the intra medullary branches of the arterial vasa Corona
Pial perforating arteries and the central/ ventral /sulcal Perforating arteries
what artery gives off the ventral/central/sulcal Perforating arteries
the anterior spinal artery
what arterial Visa Corona branches Supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord
ventral/central/sulcal Perforating arteries
what intra medullary branches Supply about one-third of the spinal cord
pial Perforating arteries
what is the source for pial Perforating arteries
the pial plexus
what arteries form the pial plexus
the posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries
what arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial Vasa Corona along the cord
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
what vessels drain the spinal cord
pial veins
what will pial veins drain into
Venous vasa Corona
Which vessels form the venous vasa Corona
anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, and communicating veins
Which vessels will drain the venous Vasa Corona
anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins
Which vessels will drain the ventral or anterior nerve roots
anterior radicular nerves
Which vessels will drain the dorsal or posterior nerve roots
posterior radicular veins
what vessel will drain the dorsal or posterior nerve root ganglion
posterior radicular veins
what veins will lie in the subarachnoid space
pial veins, venous Vasa Corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins
what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
what lumenal feature of the anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels May function like valves of typical veins
trabeculae
what veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
what venous vessels are identified with the intervertebral foramen
intervertebral veins
what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal
they like the bicuspid valve of typical veins
identify the meninges of the spinal cord
dura mater, arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater
identify the meninges of the spinal cord and the commonly accepted meaning of each
dura mater - tough mother, arachnoid Mater - Spider mother, Pia Mater - tender or delicate mother
name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord
epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater, subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid Mater, subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid Mater and the Pia Mater
what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space
interstitial fluid
what are the neural contents of the epidural space
recurrent meningeal /sinuvertebral /sinus vertebral nerve
what ligaments are associated with the epidural space
posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, Hoffman /anterior Dural /meningovertebral ligaments
which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body
recurrent meningeal or sign of vertebral or sinus vertebral nerve
which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body
posterior longitudinal ligament and Hoffman/ anterior dural / meningovertebral ligaments
which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina
recurrent meningeal and sinus vertebral nerve
which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the lamina
ligamentum flavum and Hofmann/ anterior dural ligaments
which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space not an actual space
subdural space comma between the dura mater and the arachnoid Mater
which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein, recurrent meningeal nerve, anterior Dural ligaments
which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus, ligamentum flavum, recurrent meningioma nerve, anterior Dural ligament
what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space
serous fluid
what is the name given to the fluid of the subarachnoid space
cerebrospinal fluid
what ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space
dentate ligament
what contents are the subarachnoid space are changed below the level C6
the arterial Vasa Corona consists of one anterior spinal artery, two posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries
what is the name given to the lateral extension of Pia Mater along the spinal cord
dentate ligament
what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal
they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins
in horizontal view what direction of the spinal cord tends to be the largest
transverse
what are the spinal cord enlargement locations in the name given to each
C3 through T1 - the cervical enlargement, T9 through T12 - the lumbar enlargement
where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord
C6
in which plane will the diameter of the spinal cord decrease from C2 down to T1
midsagittal or anterior posterior plane
what spinal nerves originate from the lumbar enlargement
L1 through S3 spinal nerves
what is the generic cord level of the origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar enlargement
L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L-3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5 S1 cord levels in t11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra
what is the caudal end of the spinal cord called
conus medullaris
what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris
typically S4, S5, and Co 1
in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed
L1
what is the name given to the nerve Roots below L1
cauda equina
what is the continuation of Pia Mater below the conus medullaris called
filum terminale internum
what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column
typically S2, the Dural cul-de-sac
neural tissue has been identified and what part of the filum terminale
proximal part of the filum terminale internum
what is the fate of the neural tissue identified a long of the filum terminale internum
it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
what does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate
lower Limbs and the external anal sphincter
the last arterial Vasa Corona creates what feature on angiogram
cruciate anastomosis
what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2
filum terminale externum
what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges
coccygeal medullary vestige
what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened
tethered cord syndrome
what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome
it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord
at the intervertebral foramen what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine
in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after. C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2 and C3
at the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum
in the thoracic and lumbar spine and for the sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after. T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6 and t7
what is the relationship between rib number and vertebral numbers at the Costocentral joint
rib number always equates to same vertebral number at the costocentral joint, rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with the t2 segment only ribs 1, 11 and 12 typically join with a single segment
what is the relationship between spinal nerves, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple, the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
what osseous modification is observed to the front of the anterior arch of C1
the anterior tubercle
what is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1
the fovea dentist
what attaches behind the anterior arch of C1
the lateral Mass
what is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1
tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament
what is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1
the posterior tubercle
what Superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral Mass
groove or sulcus for the vertebral artery
what Superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1
the arcuate rim
what attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of Atlas into the superior articular process of the lateral mass of Atlas
a complete ponticulus posticus
based on the amount of bony Union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form
an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus
what names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus
arcuate foramen or retro articular canal
what is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1
the inferior vertebral notch
what is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1
the costal element
what is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1
the true transverse process
what is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1
the posterior tubercle
what unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2
the dens or odontoid process
what surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2
facet for fovea dentis, Groove for transverse atlantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical Dental ligament
which feature is identified on the anterior surface of the odontoid process of C2
facet for fovea dentis
what feature is identified on the posterior surface of the odontoid process of C2
Groove for transverse atlantal ligament
what feature is identified on the superolateral margins of the odontoid process of C2
attachment sites for the alar ligament
what feature is identified on the tip of the odontoid process of C2
attachment site for the apical Dental ligament
what feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2
the longus colli muscle attachment
what feature is identified on the anterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2
the anterior lip
what feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2
the posterior lip
what features are present at the lateral margins of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2
right and left lateral grooves
what feature is arise from the posterolateral margins of the vertebral body of C2
the pedicles
what lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2
the superior articular process
what is the location of the superior vertebral Notch of C2
on the lamina pedicle Junction
which feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2
the inferior vertebral notch
what is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C2
the costal element
what is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C2
the true transverse process
what is the distal most part of the transverse process of C2
the posterior tubercle
What is the characteristic of parents of the C2 spinous process in humans
it is bifid
what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical
anterior Groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
what are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical
uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus, lateral lip
, what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
what attaches to the posterolateral margin and in the center of a typical cervical vertebral body
the pedicle
what bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle
the articular pillar
what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar
the groove or sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
what bony feature is attached to the posterior part of the articular pillar
the lamina
what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical
ligamentum flavum
ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature
para - articular processes
list in order the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
what is the name given to the superior margin of the cost of transverse bar
sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process
the Carotid tubercle
what surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7
anterior Groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes
what is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of C7
typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the typical cervical
what are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7
costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process
what are the features of the spinous process of C7
long, horizontal, non bifid
what is the outline of the vertebral body of T1 from Superior View
somewhat rectangular with curved anterior margins
what is the appearance of the superior surface of the vertebral body of T1
it is somewhat cup-shaped with elevations at the posterior and lateral margin
what is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of T1
typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the cervical
what surfaces are present on the upper and lower margins of the T1 vertebral body
the right and left Superior costal facet and right and left inferior costal Demi facet
what is the direction of the transverse process at T1
the transverse process projects nearly straight out laterally
what is present on the transverse tubercle of T1
the transverse costal facet
what is the angulation of the spinous process of T1
the undersurface of the T1 spinous processes will be nearly horizontal
what features will allow discrimination between T2 through T4 and T5 through T8 segmental groups
the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process
on cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the t2 through T4 group
the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides
on cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T5 through T8 group
the left side of the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex
what is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5 through T8
the aortic impression
what part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5 through T8
the left side Superior and inferior epiphyseal rims
what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic
the right and left Superior and the right and left inferior costal demifacets
what is the appearance and position of the lamina in a typical thoracic
the lamina is short, Broad and thick and lies next to the spinous process
what is present at the tip of the transverse process of a typical thoracic
the transverse tubercle
what is the distance between the transverse tubercles and the typical thoracic region
from T to each transverse diameter becomes shorter as the transverse processes angle more posterior
what is present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic
the transverse costal facet
how did the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the t2 through T4 region
the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment
how did the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5 through T8
the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same as or equal to the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment
what name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics
the pars interarticularis
what is the pars interarticularis
the region between the superior and inferior articular processes
what part of a vertebra arises laterally from the pars interarticularis
the transverse process
what part of the vertebra arises medially from the pars interarticularis
the lamina
what is the orientation of the spinous process of a typical thoracic
they slant backward and downward
what is the angulation of the spinous process of T2 through T4
the undersurface of T2 through T4 spinous processes will angle up to 40 degrees from the horizontal plane
what is the angulation of the spinous process of T5 through T8
the undersurface of T5 through T8 spinous processes will angle up to 60 degrees from the horizontal plane
which vertebrae will have a spinous process emulation of up to 40 degrees
T2 through T4
which vertebra will have a spinous process angulation up to 60 degrees
T5 through T8
what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T9
right and left Superior costal demifacets, right and left inferior costal demifacets
which synovial joint surfaces may be absent from the vertebral body of T9
inferior costal demifacets
what is present on the transverse tubercle of T9
the transverse costal facet
what is the orientation of the spinous process of T9
posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal
what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T10
the right and left Superior costal facet
which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10
inferior costal demifacet
what is the position and direction of the pedicle from the vertebral body at T10
the particle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly
what feature is very commonly observed on the lamina of T10
para - articular processes
what part of the transverse process may be absent on T10
the transverse costal facet
what is the orientation of a spinous process of T10
posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal
what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of t11
the right and left Superior costal facet
which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T 11
inferior costal demifacet
what part of the transverse process is absent on t11
the transverse costal facet
what is the position of the spinous process of t11
posterior and horizontal along the undersurface
what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T12
the right and left Superior costal facet
which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T12
inferior costal demifacet
what is present of a transverse process region of T12
3 tubercles of variable size
which typical on T12 represents the transverse process
the lateral tubercle
which tubercle on T12 represents the mammillary process of the lumbars
the superior tubercle
which typical on T12 represents the accessory process of the lumbars
the inferior tubercle
what joint surface of the typical thoracic transverse process is absent on T12
the transverse costal facet
what is the curvature of the inferior articular facets of T12
they are slightly convex
what is the orientation of the spinous process of T12
posterior and horizontal
what is a generic shape of the typical lumbar vertebral body from the cranial View
Reniform or kidney-shaped
what is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process
accessory process
what is the name of the lamina pedicle Junction of a typical lumbar vertebra
pars interarticularis
what is characteristic of the L1 through Alpha articular processes
the transverse diameter Superior articular processes of an L1 through out for Segment will be greater than the transverse diameter of the inferior articular processes of that same segment
what is the name given to the projection on lumbar Superior articular processes
mammillary process
what characteristic of the L1 throughout for pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment be specific and complete as the differences on the segment from each group
on cranial view, the lateral surface of the pedicle is a parent on the AL one through L4 segment. At L5 the transverse process originates from the vertebral body, pedicle and lamina pedicle region
what is the generic Direction and length of the fifth lumbar transverse process
it is directed straight lateral and is the shortest of all lumbar transverse processes
what is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult sacrum
five segments
what forms the median sacral crest
fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles
what forms the intermediate sacral crest
fused articular processes and their facets
what features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest
the mammillary process of S1 and the sacral cornu of S5
what does the sacral cornu represent
the inferior articular process and facet of S5
what is the name of the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal
the sacral hiatus
what forms the lateral sacral crest
the fused transverse processes and transverse tubercles from S1 to S5
what is the sacral tuberosity
the enlarged transverse tubercle of S2
what feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5
the inferior and lateral sacral angle
from the anterior view of the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature
transverse ridges
what feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1 through S3
auricular surface
what feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form
the sacral promontory
what is the name given to the region of bone extending laterally from the s-1 vertebral body looking from the base View
sacral ala
what forms the sacral ala
the costal element and true transverse process
what is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult coccyx
four segments
what bony features are present on the coccyx
all segments are represented by a vertebral body. In addition Co one has a coccygeal cornu and transverse process
what is the homologue of the superior articular process and facet in co1
coccygeal Cornu
what feature is present at the top of the manubrium sterni
jugular notch
what is the name given to the articular site at the superolateral margin of the manubrium sterni
clavicular notch
what names are given to the articular sites for the joint with the first and second rib
costal Notch one for the first rib costal cartilage, costal Notch two for the second rib costal cartilage
how many sternabrae for the Corpus Sterni
4 sternabrae
what surface feature on the Corpus store and I identifies the location of the old synchondroses
transverse lines
what articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the Corpus Sterni
costal notches two through seven
what are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib
the head, neck, and tubercle
what names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of a typical rib based on location
Superior articular surface or facet and inferior articular surface or facet
what feature of the head of a rib separates the superior from inferior articular surface or facet
the inter articular crest
what features may be identified on the neck of a typical rib
the crest of the rib
which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the head of the rib
the articular surface of the tubercle
which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the shaft of the rib
the non articular surface of the tubercle
what features may be identified on the body of a typical rib
the costal angle and costal Groove
what is present on the head of the first rib
a single articular surface
is there a Crest on the neck of the first rib
not a well-developed one like on the typical rib
which groove on the body of the first rib is close to the vertebral end
the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve
which groove on the body of the first rib is close to the sternal end
the groove for the subclavian vein
is either the costal angle or costal Groove apparent on the first rib
no
what features may be identified on the head of rib two
to articular surfaces and the inter articular crest
what feature may be identified on the neck of rib two
the crest of the rib
what features may be identified on the body of rib two
the tuberosity for the serratus anterior, the costal angle, and the costal Groove
what distinguishes the vertebral end of rib 11 from typical ribs
the single articular surface, absence of a well-developed Crest on the neck and the tubercle may be absent or if present consists only of a non articular surface
what features may be present on the body of the 11th rib
the costal angle and costal Groove are underdeveloped
what helps to distinguish the vertebral end of the 12 rib from other ribs
the head has a single articular surface, the crest of the neck is probably developed, the tubercle is absent
what is the condition of the body of rib 12
it is the shortest of all ribs and the costal angle and costal Groove are
what is the term used to identify the study of joints
arthrology
what term is used to identify the study of ligaments
syndesmology
what are the three histological classifications of joints
fibrous, cartilaginou, and synovial fluid
what were the three Latin classifications of joints based on movement potential
synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
what are the characteristics of the amphiarthrosis synchondrosis
they are primarily cartilage joints, temporary and Longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
which classification of cartilage joint is secondary, permanent, composed of fibrous cartilage, and occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification
amphiarthrosis symphysis
what are the four consistent features of synovial joints
articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid
what examples of synovial plane joints occur along the vertebral column
most of zygapophyses of the vertebral column
what is an example of synovial pivot joints along the vertebral column
median atlantoaxial joint
what is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints
an osseous pivot point and an Osteo ligamentous ring
what example of synovial saddle joint is identified along the spine
The Joint of luschka of typical cervical is a modified Sellar joint
what example of the Darth roses condylar joint is identified along the spine
the Atlanta occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis condylar joint
what example of the diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint is identified along the spine
the Atlanta occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrotic ellipsoidal joint
which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks
ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints
