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Spinal Anatomy > Exam 1 - Study Guide Questions > Flashcards

Exam 1 - Study Guide Questions Flashcards

1
Q

what are the four basic tissues of the human body?

A

epithelial, muscle, neural and connective tissues

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2
Q

what is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

osteoblast - form bone, osteocyte - maintain or nurture bone, osteoclast - remodel bone

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3
Q

what is the primary constituent of the ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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4
Q

what types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroitin sulfate, keratin sulfates and hyaluronic acid

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5
Q

what is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type 1

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6
Q

what are the primary constituents of the bone

A

calcium, phosphate, citrate, carbonate ions

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7
Q

what is the most frequently described to deposit in bone

A

hydroxyapatite

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8
Q

bone is also the repository for what additional ions

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium

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9
Q

what is Wolff’s law as it pertains to bone

A

living tissue will respond to stressors such as anxiety, tension or pressure; bone is formed or absorbed in response to the same stressors

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10
Q

what three responses of living bone or stressed in class

A

it has the ability to heal, to remodel under stress or such as anxiety, tension or pressure and to age

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11
Q

bone is the embryological derivative of which specific connective tissues

A

mesenchyme and or cartilage

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12
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification and mesenchyme

A

intramembranous ossification

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13
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification

A

from the second to third month in utero

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14
Q

what part of the axial skeleton is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification

A

the skull

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15
Q

what is the name given to the pattern of ossification and cartilage

A

endochondral ossification

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16
Q

what is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage

A

the 2nd to 5th month in utero

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17
Q

which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification

A

the mandible sphenoid temporal and occipital bones

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18
Q

which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification

A

the clavicle

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19
Q

what are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance

A

primary centers of ossification appear before birth secondary centers of ossification appear after birth

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20
Q

mature bone is described as being composed of what areas based on bone density

A

cortical or compact bone and spongy, cancellous or trabecular bone

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21
Q

what is the name of the outer fibro cellular covering of bone

A

the periosteum

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22
Q

what is the name given to the fibro cellular lining of bone

A

the endosteum

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23
Q

what are the primary sources of variation observed in bone

A

sexual dimorphism or gender variation, ontogenic variation or growth / age variation, graphic or population-based variation or ethnic origin, idios syncratic variation or individual variation

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24
Q

differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on male and female variation is identified as which type of variation

A

sexual dimorphism or gender variation

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25
Q

differences in the number or morphology of vertebra within the population based on age or developmental variation is identified as which type of variation

A

ontogenetic variation

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26
Q

differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on ethnicity or location variation is identified as which type of variation

A

Geographic variation or population-based variation

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27
Q

differences in the number or morphology of vertebrae within the population based on uniqueness between individuals as identified as which type of variation

A

idiosyncratic variation

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28
Q

what are the six more commonly used classifications of normal bone

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, sesamoid bones and paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones

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29
Q

what are the examples of short bones

A

most of the bones of the carpus and Tarsus

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30
Q

What is the characteristic of sesamoid bone

A

the bone develops within a tendon

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31
Q

what are consistent examples of sesamoid bones

A

patella and pisiform

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32
Q

which classifications of bone are characteristic of the axial skeleton

A

flat bones, irregular bones and paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones

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33
Q

what are the examples of flat bones

A

the parietal bone and sternum

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34
Q

what are examples of irregular bone

A

the vertebra and innominate bones

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35
Q

what is characteristic of pneumatic bone

A

air spaces within the bone

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36
Q

what are examples of pneumatic bone

A

frontal ethmoid maxilla sphenoid and temporal

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37
Q

what bones contain paranasal sinuses

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla and sphenoid

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38
Q

what are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed and spinal Anatomy

A

accessory and heterotopic bone

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39
Q

what is the name given to Bone formed from existing bone

A

accessory bone

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40
Q

what are examples of accessory bone

A

para articular processes and bony Spurs of vertebra

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41
Q

what is the name given to Bone formed in a non bone location

A

heterotopic bone

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42
Q

what are examples of hetero topic bone

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart, and ligaments

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43
Q

what are the four basic surface feature categories

A

facets, elevations, depressions, tunnels or passageways

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44
Q

when do the surface features of bone become prominent

A

during and after puberty

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45
Q

what are the types of osseous elevations

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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46
Q

what are the types of osseous linear elevations

A

the line, Ridge and crest

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47
Q

what are the types of rounded osseous elevations

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber or tuberosity and malleolus

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48
Q

what are the categories of sharp osseous elevations

A

spine and process

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49
Q

what are the categories of osseous depressions

A

linear and rounded depressions

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50
Q

what are the categories of osseous linear depressions

A

notch or incisure, Groove, Sulcus

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51
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous depressions

A

the fovea and fossa

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52
Q

what are the names given to openings on the surface of bone

A

ostium or orifice and Hiatus

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53
Q

what is the definition of an osseous ostium

A

a round or oval opening on the surface of bone

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54
Q

what is the definition of an osseous hiatus

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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55
Q

what are the names given to the osseous ostia which completely penetrate bone

A

foramen or canal

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56
Q

what is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind ended passageway

A

meatus

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57
Q

what are the categories of osseous facets

A

flat facet and rounded facets

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58
Q

what are the categories of rounded osseous facets

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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59
Q

how many bones from the typical adult appendicular skeleton

A

126 bones

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60
Q

how many bones form a typical adult axial skeleton

A

80 bones

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61
Q

what bones form the axial skeleton

A

the skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum, and ribs

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62
Q

what is the name given to the adult skull minus the mandible

A

the cranium

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63
Q

what are the names given to the top of the adult skull

A

the calvaria or calva

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64
Q

what are the categories of bone form in the typical adult skull

A

the neurocranium, the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral Cranium) and the auditory ossicles

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65
Q

what is the neurocranium

A

the bones that support and protect the brain

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66
Q

how many bones from the typical adult neurocranium

A

eight bones

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67
Q

what bones form the neurocranium of the typical adult skull

A

the frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, and ethmoid

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68
Q

how many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)

A

14 bones

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69
Q

what is the facial skeleton

A

is the bones that support the face or front of the head

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70
Q

what bones form the facial skeleton

A

mandible, vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal Concha, Palatine, and zygomatic

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71
Q

by strict definition what is the splanchnocranium

A

the bones that support the face minus the mandible

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72
Q

what bones form the splanchnocranium

A

vomer, nasal, maxilla, lacrimal, inferior nasal Concha, Palatine, zygomatic

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73
Q

how many bones are present in the adult hyoid

A

one bone

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74
Q

what is the number of bones comprise in each region of the typical adult spinal column or vertebral column

A

seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebra, one sacrum and one coccyx

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75
Q

what is the name given to the pre sacral region of the typical adult vertebral column or spinal column

A

the spine

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76
Q

what is the total number of bones form in the typical adult spine

A

24 bones

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77
Q

what is the definition of spine as it pertains to the vertebral column

A

the Pre-sacral region of the vertebral column or spinal column

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78
Q

how many bones are present in the typical adult sternum

A

one bone

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79
Q

what regions are present along the typical adult sternum

A

the manubrium sterni, the Corpus Sterni and the xiphoid process

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80
Q

how many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton

A

12 pair or 24 ribs

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81
Q

what is the number of vertebrae in a typical adult

A

26 segments

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82
Q

what constitutes the spine

A

the 24 presacral segments; cervical thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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83
Q

how many segments United Forum the typical sacrum

A

five segments

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84
Q

how many segments United from the typical coccyx

A

four segments

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85
Q

what does the term cervical refer to

A

the region of the neck

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86
Q

what is the typical number of segments in the cervical region

A

7 segments

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87
Q

what does the term thoracic refer to

A

breastplate or chest; it referred to the armor bearing region of the

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88
Q

what other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest

A

the dorsal segments, the dorsal

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89
Q

what are the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region

A

12 segments

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90
Q

what does the term lumbar refer to

A

the loin; the region between the rib and the hip

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91
Q

what is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region

A

five segments

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92
Q

what does the term sacrum refer to

A

the holy bone or holy region

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93
Q

what does the term coccyx refer to

A

the cuckoo birds bill or cuckoo birds beak

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94
Q

what is the length of a typical male spinal column

A

about 70 CM or 28 inches

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95
Q

what is the length of a typical female spinal column

A

about 60 cm or 25 inches

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96
Q

what is the difference in length between the typical male and typical female spinal column

A

about three inches

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97
Q

what is the length of the male cervical

A

about 12 CM or five inches

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98
Q

what is the length of a male thoracic region

A

about 28 CM or 11 inches

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99
Q

what is the length of the male lumbar region

A

about 18 cm or 7 inches

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100
Q

what is the length of the male sacrum

A

about 12 CM or five inches

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101
Q

based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column what is the length of the male spine

A

about 58 cm or 23 in

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102
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in the protection of neural tissues

A

the spinal cord and beginning pns are located within the vertebral segments

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103
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in protection of the viscera

A

ribs are attached to vertebrae to form the thorax thus protecting the heart and lungs

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104
Q

what parts of the body are supported by the vertebral column

A

the head, upper extremities, ribs, viscera, and pelvis

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105
Q

how does the vertebral column participate in skeletal formation

A

ribs are formed from the costal process of the embryonic vertebral template

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106
Q

what levels of the vertebral column specifically, date weight-bearing transfer

A

S1 through S3 at the auricular surface

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107
Q

distinguish between motion and locomotion

A

motion is movement without travel. Locomotion is movement to a new site or location

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108
Q

what is specifically responsible for shape and position of the human frame

A

comparative anterior versus posterior height of the vertebral body and compared of anterior versus posterior height of the intervertebral disc

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109
Q

what organs are specifically associated with the horizontal axis of the skull

A

the eye and the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

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110
Q

how is the vertebral column in stabilization of visceral function

A

Integrity of the spinal column enhance is appropriate nerve system control of viscera

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111
Q

when does the embryonic disk form

A

second week in utero

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112
Q

when does gastrulation occur or a three-layered embryo form

A

third week in utero

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113
Q

invagination of ectoderm along the Primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic structure

A

notochord

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114
Q

what is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column

A

paraxial mesoderm

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115
Q

what does paraxial mesoderm give rise to that will form the vertebral column

A

somites

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116
Q

name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite

A

sclerotome, myotome, and dermatome

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117
Q

what part of the somite will give rise to the vertebral column

A

sclerotome

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118
Q

list in order the names of the successive vertebral column’s formed during development

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

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119
Q

migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature

A

the perichordal blastema

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120
Q

the Perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes

A

neural processes and costal processes

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121
Q

cell proliferation within the perichordal blastema will result in what features

A

a loose cranial sclerotomite and a dense caudal scleratomite

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122
Q

what forms between the sclerotomite of a parachordal blastema

A

the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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123
Q

the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature

A

the perichordal disc

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124
Q

the perichordal disc is the presumptive location of what adult feature

A

the intervertebral discs

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125
Q

what is the earliest embryonic feature that will identify the position of the adult intervertebral disc

A

the intersclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

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126
Q

the union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a loose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastema gives rise to what feature

A

the vertebral blastema

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127
Q

what vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema

A

the segmental artery

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128
Q

when will cartilage first form in the membranous vertebral blastema

A

beginning in the sixth embryonic week

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129
Q

what is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage

A

chondrification

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130
Q

chondrification is first identified in which region of the embryonic vertebral column

A

the cervical region

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131
Q

what are the names given to the center of chondrification within the vertebral blastema

A

Centrum Center, neural Arch Center, transverse process center

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132
Q

how many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema

A

six. Two for the Centrum, two for the neural Arch, two for each transverse process

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133
Q

what is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilaginous vertebra

A

during the seventh embryonic week

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134
Q

ossification begins in which region of the embryonic vertebral column

A

the lower cervical-upper thoracic region

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135
Q

what is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra

A

three primary Center to five secondary Center

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136
Q

what are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra

A

Centrum Center and neural Arch Center

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137
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra

A

3 1 for the Centrum 2 for the neural arches

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138
Q

what is the classification of the joint forming between primary centers of ossification

A

cartilage synchondrosis or amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

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139
Q

what are the names of the synchondrosis forming between primary centers of ossification in the typical vertebra

A

neurocentral synchondrosis and neural arch synchondrosis

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140
Q

what are the names of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra

A

tip of the transverse process, tip of the spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

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141
Q

how many secondary centers of ossification appear in the typical vertebra

A

five. One for the tip of each transverse process, one for the tip of the spinous process, one for each epiphyseal plate

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142
Q

what are the names of the synchondroses formed between secondary centers of ossification and the rest of the typical vertebra

A

tip of the transverse process synchondrosis, tip of the spinous process synchondrosis, and epiphyseal ring synchondrosis

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143
Q

what is the range of a parents for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra

A

during puberty, typically ages 11 to 16 years old

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144
Q

what are the three basic parts of a vertebra

A

the vertebral body, vertebral Arch, and the apophyseal regions

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145
Q

what is formed by the vertebral body and vertebral Arch

A

vertebral foramen

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146
Q

what is the general shape of the vertebral body at each region of the spine

A

cervical is rectangular, thoracic is triangular, lumbar is reniform

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147
Q

what is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surfaces of the vertebral body

A

Superior epiphyseal Rim, inferior epiphyseal rim

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148
Q

what is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of the developing vertebral body

A

Superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

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149
Q

what are the names of the openings found around the margins of the vertebral body

A

nutrient foramina or vascular foramina

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150
Q

what large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

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151
Q

what is the name of the vessel entering the nutrient or vascular foramen

A

osseous artery

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152
Q

what is the name given to the large vessel exiting the back of the vertebral body

A

the basivertebral vein

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153
Q

what is the semi-circular region of bone attached to the back of the vertebral body called

A

the vertebral Arch

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154
Q

what is the name given to the anterior part of the vertebral Arch

A

the pedicle

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155
Q

what is the name given to the posterior part of the vertebral Arch

A

lamina

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156
Q

what is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral Arch where the transverse process and articular processes

A

the lamina - pedicle Junction

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157
Q

what is the name of the feature located at the upper and lower surfaces of the pedicle

A

the superior vertebral Notch (incisure) and the inferior vertebral notch (incisure)

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158
Q

what is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine

A

cervical - posterior lateral, thoracic - posterior, slightly lateral, lumbar - posterior

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159
Q

all lamina are oriented in what direction

A

posterior and median

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160
Q

what is the name given to the overlap of Laminae seen on x-ray

A

shingling

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161
Q

what ligament will attach to the lamina

A

the ligamentum flavum

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162
Q

what is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum

A

para - articular process

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163
Q

what classification of bone will para - articular processes represent

A

accessory bone

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164
Q

what is the name given to the lamina - pedicle Junction at each region of the spine

A

cervical - articular pillar, thoracic and Lumbar - pars interarticularis

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165
Q

what is the name given to the junction of the vertebral Arch - spinous process on lateral x-ray

A

the spinolaminar Junction

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166
Q

what is the name given to the tubular bone growth regions of the vertebral Arch

A

the apophyseal regions

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167
Q

what names may be given to each apophysis of the spine

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process, articular apophysis or articular process, spinous apophysis or spinous process

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168
Q

what is the generic orientation of the transverse process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine

A

cervical - anterolateral, thoracic - posterolateral, lumbar - lateral

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169
Q

all non rib bearing vertebrae of the spine retain what equivalent feature

A

the costal element

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170
Q

what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process

A

the transverse tubercle

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171
Q

what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process

A

the transverse tubercle

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172
Q

what will cause the transverse process to alter its initial Direction in the cervical region

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward and downward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

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173
Q

what will cause the transverse process to alter its initial Direction in the thoracic region

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes back

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174
Q

what will the articular process support

A

the articular facet

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175
Q

what is the name given to the Joint formed between the articular facets of a vertebral couple

A

the zygapophysis

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176
Q

what is the name given to the Bone surface at the front of a zygapophysis

A

the superior articular facet

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177
Q

what is the name given to the Bone surface at the back of a zygapophysis

A

the inferior articular facet

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178
Q

what names are given to the part of the vertebrate which supports the front of the zygapophysis

A

the superior articular apophysis, the superior articular process, or the pre - zygapophysis

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179
Q

what names are given to the part of the vertebrate which supports the back of the zygapophysis

A

the inferior articular apophysis, the inferior articular process, or the post - zygapophysis

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180
Q

in the vertebral couple, the part of the vertebra which lies anterior to the zygapophysis is called the

A

pre - zygapophysis

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181
Q

in the vertebral couple the part of the vertebrate which lies posterior to the zygapophysis is called the

A

post - zygapophysis

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182
Q

what is the name given to the part of the vertebrate forming the pre zygapophysis

A

the superior articular process

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183
Q

what is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post- zygapophysis

A

the inferior articular process

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184
Q

what is the method of calculating the angle of a spinous process

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process and the horizontal plane

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185
Q

what is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes as seen on x-ray

A

imbrication

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186
Q

what is the name given to the rounded elevation at the tip of the spinous process

A

the spinous tubercle

187
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process at each region of the spine

A

cervical - slight angle inferiorly, thoracic - noticeable angle inferiorly, lumbar - no inferior angle

188
Q

what will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the inferior articular process, the superior articular process, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

189
Q

what will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the inferior vertebral notch

190
Q

what will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the superior vertebral notch

191
Q

what will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral discs, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

192
Q

what name is given to the opening located within the vertebral body - vertebral arch enclosure

A

the vertebral foramen

193
Q

the union of all vertebral foramen are forms and apparent vertical cylinder called the

A

vertebral Canal or spinal canal

194
Q

what neural structures will occupy the vertebral foramen until the level of L2

A

the spinal cord, the proximal part of the peripheral nervous system, and the meninges

195
Q

what is the typical shape or outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column

A

cervical - triangular, thoracic - oval, lumbar - triangular, sacrum - triangular

196
Q

at what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate

A

L1

197
Q

at what vertebral level will the Dural Sac typically terminate

A

S2

198
Q

what are the segmental arteries

A

the arteries whose branches Supply the vertebra or segment

199
Q

identify all segmental arteries of the vertebral column

A

vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, Superior intercostal, posterior intercostal, subcostal, Lumbar, Iliolumbar, lateral sacral, and median sacral

200
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine

A

the vertebral artery, the ascending cervical artery, and the Deep cervical artery

201
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine

A

the Deep cervical artery, Superior intercostal artery, posterior intercostal artery, and subcostal artery

202
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine

A

the lumbar arteries, iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median sacral artery

203
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median sacral artery

204
Q

what are the segmental arteries of the sacrum

A

the iliolumbar artery, lateral sacral artery, and median sacral artery

205
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery

A

C1 through C6

206
Q

what signal levels are supplied by the a sending cervical artery

A

C1 through C6

207
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the Deep cervical artery

A

C7 through T1

208
Q

what the segmental levels are supplied by the superior intercostal artery

A

T1 and T2

209
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery

A

T3 through T 11

210
Q

what segmental level are supplied by the subcostal artery

A

T12

211
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries

A

L1 through L4

212
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the median sacral artery

A

L5, S1 through S5 and coccyx

213
Q

what sentimental levels are supplied by the iliolumbar artery

A

L5, S1 through S5 and coccyx

214
Q

what segmental levels are supplied by the lateral sacral artery

A

L5, S1 through S5 and coccyx

215
Q

which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries associated with it

A

L5

216
Q

what are the segmental arteries for L5

A

iliolumbar artery, median sacral artery and lateral sacral artery

217
Q

what branch of the segmental arteries supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region

A

the dorsospinal artery

218
Q

what artery is primarily observed in the distal part of the intervertebral foramen

A

spinal artery

219
Q

which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter sub arachnoid space

A

spinal artery

220
Q

which branches of the spinal artery Supply the contents of the epidural space

A

osseous arteries, anterior spinal canal artery, posterior spinal canal artery

221
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

222
Q

what arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum

A

posterior spinal canal arteries and plexus

223
Q

which branches of the spinal artery Supply the contents of the subarachnoid space

A

anterior radicular artery, posterior auricular artery, anterior medullary feeder artery, posterior medullary feeder artery

224
Q

which vessel will supply the ventral or anterior nerve rootlet and nerve root

A

anterior radicular artery

225
Q

which vessel will supply the dorsal or posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion

A

posterior radicular artery

226
Q

which artery is now set to enlarge and form the medullary feeder artery

A

the radicular artery

227
Q

what is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length

A

anterior spinal artery

228
Q

the anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery

A

vertebral artery

229
Q

is the anterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord

A

no

230
Q

as the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel

A

anterior medullary feeder arteries

231
Q

the posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

232
Q

what is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

233
Q

is the posterior spinal artery a single continuous artery along the spinal cord

A

no

234
Q

as the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous facile

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

235
Q

what forms the arterial Vasa Corona

A

anterior spinal artery, posterior spinal arteries, and communicating arteries

236
Q

what is the generic name given to the arteries that penetrate the spinal cord

A

intra medullary arteries

237
Q

what are the intra medullary branches of the arterial vasa Corona

A

Pial perforating arteries and the central/ ventral /sulcal Perforating arteries

238
Q

what artery gives off the ventral/central/sulcal Perforating arteries

A

the anterior spinal artery

239
Q

what arterial Visa Corona branches Supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord

A

ventral/central/sulcal Perforating arteries

240
Q

what intra medullary branches Supply about one-third of the spinal cord

A

pial Perforating arteries

241
Q

what is the source for pial Perforating arteries

A

the pial plexus

242
Q

what arteries form the pial plexus

A

the posterior spinal arteries and the communicating arteries

243
Q

what arteries are responsible for supplementing the arterial Vasa Corona along the cord

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

244
Q

what vessels drain the spinal cord

A

pial veins

245
Q

what will pial veins drain into

A

Venous vasa Corona

246
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa Corona

A

anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, and communicating veins

247
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous Vasa Corona

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

248
Q

Which vessels will drain the ventral or anterior nerve roots

A

anterior radicular nerves

249
Q

Which vessels will drain the dorsal or posterior nerve roots

A

posterior radicular veins

250
Q

what vessel will drain the dorsal or posterior nerve root ganglion

A

posterior radicular veins

251
Q

what veins will lie in the subarachnoid space

A

pial veins, venous Vasa Corona, anterior longitudinal veins, posterior longitudinal veins, communicating veins, anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins, anterior radicular veins, posterior radicular veins

252
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

253
Q

what lumenal feature of the anterior internal vertebral venous plexus vessels May function like valves of typical veins

A

trabeculae

254
Q

what veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

255
Q

what venous vessels are identified with the intervertebral foramen

A

intervertebral veins

256
Q

what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal

A

they like the bicuspid valve of typical veins

257
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cord

A

dura mater, arachnoid Mater, Pia Mater

258
Q

identify the meninges of the spinal cord and the commonly accepted meaning of each

A

dura mater - tough mother, arachnoid Mater - Spider mother, Pia Mater - tender or delicate mother

259
Q

name and locate each space formed between the osseous vertebral foramen and the spinal cord

A

epidural space - between the vertebral foramen and the dura mater, subdural space - between the dura mater and the arachnoid Mater, subarachnoid space - between the arachnoid Mater and the Pia Mater

260
Q

what is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space

A

interstitial fluid

261
Q

what are the neural contents of the epidural space

A

recurrent meningeal /sinuvertebral /sinus vertebral nerve

262
Q

what ligaments are associated with the epidural space

A

posterior longitudinal ligament, ligamentum flavum, Hoffman /anterior Dural /meningovertebral ligaments

263
Q

which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

264
Q

which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body

A

recurrent meningeal or sign of vertebral or sinus vertebral nerve

265
Q

which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the vertebral body

A

posterior longitudinal ligament and Hoffman/ anterior dural / meningovertebral ligaments

266
Q

which of the blood vessels of the epidural space will be found near the lamina

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

267
Q

which of the nerves of the epidural space will be found near the lamina

A

recurrent meningeal and sinus vertebral nerve

268
Q

which of the ligaments of the epidural space will be found near the lamina

A

ligamentum flavum and Hofmann/ anterior dural ligaments

269
Q

which meningeal space is now thought to be a potential space not an actual space

A

subdural space comma between the dura mater and the arachnoid Mater

270
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space are more likely located near or around the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus, anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein, recurrent meningeal nerve, anterior Dural ligaments

271
Q

which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus, posterior internal vertebral venous plexus, ligamentum flavum, recurrent meningioma nerve, anterior Dural ligament

272
Q

what is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space

A

serous fluid

273
Q

what is the name given to the fluid of the subarachnoid space

A

cerebrospinal fluid

274
Q

what ligaments may be present in the subarachnoid space

A

dentate ligament

275
Q

what contents are the subarachnoid space are changed below the level C6

A

the arterial Vasa Corona consists of one anterior spinal artery, two posterior spinal arteries, and 3 communicating arteries

276
Q

what is the name given to the lateral extension of Pia Mater along the spinal cord

A

dentate ligament

277
Q

what is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

278
Q

in horizontal view what direction of the spinal cord tends to be the largest

A

transverse

279
Q

what are the spinal cord enlargement locations in the name given to each

A

C3 through T1 - the cervical enlargement, T9 through T12 - the lumbar enlargement

280
Q

where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord

A

C6

281
Q

in which plane will the diameter of the spinal cord decrease from C2 down to T1

A

midsagittal or anterior posterior plane

282
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the lumbar enlargement

A

L1 through S3 spinal nerves

283
Q

what is the generic cord level of the origin - vertebral level combination for the lumbar enlargement

A

L1, L2 cord levels in T9 vertebra; L-3, L4 cord levels in T10 vertebra; L5 S1 cord levels in t11 vertebra; S2, S3 cord levels in T12 vertebra

284
Q

what is the caudal end of the spinal cord called

A

conus medullaris

285
Q

what spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris

A

typically S4, S5, and Co 1

286
Q

in which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed

A

L1

287
Q

what is the name given to the nerve Roots below L1

A

cauda equina

288
Q

what is the continuation of Pia Mater below the conus medullaris called

A

filum terminale internum

289
Q

what is the location and name given to the area where all meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column

A

typically S2, the Dural cul-de-sac

290
Q

neural tissue has been identified and what part of the filum terminale

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

291
Q

what is the fate of the neural tissue identified a long of the filum terminale internum

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

292
Q

what does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminale externum appear to innervate

A

lower Limbs and the external anal sphincter

293
Q

the last arterial Vasa Corona creates what feature on angiogram

A

cruciate anastomosis

294
Q

what is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2

A

filum terminale externum

295
Q

what is the name given to the caudal attachment of the meninges

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

296
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened

A

tethered cord syndrome

297
Q

what is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord caused by a tethered cord

298
Q

at the intervertebral foramen what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the cervical spine

A

in the cervical spine, spinal nerves exit above the segment they are numbered after. C3 nerve exits above C3 or between C2 and C3

299
Q

at the intervertebral foramen, what is the relationship between spinal nerve number and vertebral number along the thoracic and lumbar spine and the sacrum

A

in the thoracic and lumbar spine and for the sacrum, spinal nerves exit below the segment they are numbered after. T6 nerve exits below T6 or between T6 and t7

300
Q

what is the relationship between rib number and vertebral numbers at the Costocentral joint

A

rib number always equates to same vertebral number at the costocentral joint, rib 3 articulates with T3 segment and also with the t2 segment only ribs 1, 11 and 12 typically join with a single segment

301
Q

what is the relationship between spinal nerves, rib number, and vertebral number in a thoracic intervertebral foramen

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the vertebral couple, the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple

302
Q

what osseous modification is observed to the front of the anterior arch of C1

A

the anterior tubercle

303
Q

what is observed on the back of the anterior arch of C1

A

the fovea dentist

304
Q

what attaches behind the anterior arch of C1

A

the lateral Mass

305
Q

what is the name of the rounded elevation on the medial aspect of the lateral mass of C1

A

tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament

306
Q

what is identified in the midline at the back of the posterior arch of C1

A

the posterior tubercle

307
Q

what Superior surface modification of the posterior arch of C1 is present near the lateral Mass

A

groove or sulcus for the vertebral artery

308
Q

what Superior surface modification is present near the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1

A

the arcuate rim

309
Q

what attaches to the arcuate rim of the posterior arch of Atlas into the superior articular process of the lateral mass of Atlas

A

a complete ponticulus posticus

310
Q

based on the amount of bony Union between the superior articular process and the arcuate rim of C1 what structure will form

A

an incomplete ponticulus posticus or a complete ponticulus posticus

311
Q

what names are given to the opening formed by the ponticulus posticus

A

arcuate foramen or retro articular canal

312
Q

what is observed on the undersurface of the posterior arch of C1

A

the inferior vertebral notch

313
Q

what is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C1

A

the costal element

314
Q

what is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C1

A

the true transverse process

315
Q

what is the distal most part of the transverse process of C1

A

the posterior tubercle

316
Q

what unique vertebral body modification is characteristic of C2

A

the dens or odontoid process

317
Q

what surfaces are present on the odontoid process of C2

A

facet for fovea dentis, Groove for transverse atlantal ligament, attachment sites for the alar ligaments, attachment site for the apical Dental ligament

318
Q

which feature is identified on the anterior surface of the odontoid process of C2

A

facet for fovea dentis

319
Q

what feature is identified on the posterior surface of the odontoid process of C2

A

Groove for transverse atlantal ligament

320
Q

what feature is identified on the superolateral margins of the odontoid process of C2

A

attachment sites for the alar ligament

321
Q

what feature is identified on the tip of the odontoid process of C2

A

attachment site for the apical Dental ligament

322
Q

what feature is identified on the anterior surface of the vertebral body of C2

A

the longus colli muscle attachment

323
Q

what feature is identified on the anterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2

A

the anterior lip

324
Q

what feature is identified on the posterior surface of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2

A

the posterior lip

325
Q

what features are present at the lateral margins of the inferior epiphyseal rim of C2

A

right and left lateral grooves

326
Q

what feature is arise from the posterolateral margins of the vertebral body of C2

A

the pedicles

327
Q

what lies on the upper surface of the pedicle of C2

A

the superior articular process

328
Q

what is the location of the superior vertebral Notch of C2

A

on the lamina pedicle Junction

329
Q

which feature is identified on the lower surface of the pedicle of C2

A

the inferior vertebral notch

330
Q

what is the name given to the anterior part of the transverse process of C2

A

the costal element

331
Q

what is the name given to the posterior part of the transverse process of C2

A

the true transverse process

332
Q

what is the distal most part of the transverse process of C2

A

the posterior tubercle

333
Q

What is the characteristic of parents of the C2 spinous process in humans

A

it is bifid

334
Q

what are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

anterior Groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

335
Q

what are the names of the lateral modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus, lateral lip

336
Q

, what are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

337
Q

what attaches to the posterolateral margin and in the center of a typical cervical vertebral body

A

the pedicle

338
Q

what bony feature is attached to the posterior end of the pedicle

A

the articular pillar

339
Q

what is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar

A

the groove or sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

340
Q

what bony feature is attached to the posterior part of the articular pillar

A

the lamina

341
Q

what ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical

A

ligamentum flavum

342
Q

ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature

A

para - articular processes

343
Q

list in order the osseous parts of the typical cervical vertebra transverse process beginning at the vertebral body

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

344
Q

what is the name given to the superior margin of the cost of transverse bar

A

sulcus for the ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

345
Q

what is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process

A

the Carotid tubercle

346
Q

what surfaces are present on the superior epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body of C7

A

anterior Groove, posterior groove, right and left uncinate processes

347
Q

what is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of C7

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the typical cervical

348
Q

what are the osseous parts of the transverse process of C7

A

costal element, anterior tubercle, costotransverse bar, posterior tubercle, true transverse process

349
Q

what are the features of the spinous process of C7

A

long, horizontal, non bifid

350
Q

what is the outline of the vertebral body of T1 from Superior View

A

somewhat rectangular with curved anterior margins

351
Q

what is the appearance of the superior surface of the vertebral body of T1

A

it is somewhat cup-shaped with elevations at the posterior and lateral margin

352
Q

what is the appearance of the inferior surface of the vertebral body of T1

A

typically flat, lacking anterior and posterior lips characteristic of the cervical

353
Q

what surfaces are present on the upper and lower margins of the T1 vertebral body

A

the right and left Superior costal facet and right and left inferior costal Demi facet

354
Q

what is the direction of the transverse process at T1

A

the transverse process projects nearly straight out laterally

355
Q

what is present on the transverse tubercle of T1

A

the transverse costal facet

356
Q

what is the angulation of the spinous process of T1

A

the undersurface of the T1 spinous processes will be nearly horizontal

357
Q

what features will allow discrimination between T2 through T4 and T5 through T8 segmental groups

A

the vertebral body, transverse process, articular process and spinous process

358
Q

on cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the t2 through T4 group

A

the vertebral body will have bilaterally convex sides

359
Q

on cranial view, what is the outline of the vertebral body for the T5 through T8 group

A

the left side of the vertebral body will be flattened, the right side convex

360
Q

what is the name given to the left side appearance of the vertebral body of T5 through T8

A

the aortic impression

361
Q

what part of the vertebral body is most influenced by the aorta at T5 through T8

A

the left side Superior and inferior epiphyseal rims

362
Q

what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical thoracic

A

the right and left Superior and the right and left inferior costal demifacets

363
Q

what is the appearance and position of the lamina in a typical thoracic

A

the lamina is short, Broad and thick and lies next to the spinous process

364
Q

what is present at the tip of the transverse process of a typical thoracic

A

the transverse tubercle

365
Q

what is the distance between the transverse tubercles and the typical thoracic region

A

from T to each transverse diameter becomes shorter as the transverse processes angle more posterior

366
Q

what is present on the transverse tubercle of a typical thoracic

A

the transverse costal facet

367
Q

how did the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the t2 through T4 region

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is greater than the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

368
Q

how did the transverse diameters of the articular processes compare in the T5 through T8

A

the superior articular process transverse diameter is the same as or equal to the inferior articular process transverse diameter for a given segment

369
Q

what name is given to the region between the superior and inferior articular processes in the typical thoracics

A

the pars interarticularis

370
Q

what is the pars interarticularis

A

the region between the superior and inferior articular processes

371
Q

what part of a vertebra arises laterally from the pars interarticularis

A

the transverse process

372
Q

what part of the vertebra arises medially from the pars interarticularis

A

the lamina

373
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process of a typical thoracic

A

they slant backward and downward

374
Q

what is the angulation of the spinous process of T2 through T4

A

the undersurface of T2 through T4 spinous processes will angle up to 40 degrees from the horizontal plane

375
Q

what is the angulation of the spinous process of T5 through T8

A

the undersurface of T5 through T8 spinous processes will angle up to 60 degrees from the horizontal plane

376
Q

which vertebrae will have a spinous process emulation of up to 40 degrees

A

T2 through T4

377
Q

which vertebra will have a spinous process angulation up to 60 degrees

A

T5 through T8

378
Q

what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T9

A

right and left Superior costal demifacets, right and left inferior costal demifacets

379
Q

which synovial joint surfaces may be absent from the vertebral body of T9

A

inferior costal demifacets

380
Q

what is present on the transverse tubercle of T9

A

the transverse costal facet

381
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process of T9

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

382
Q

what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T10

A

the right and left Superior costal facet

383
Q

which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T10

A

inferior costal demifacet

384
Q

what is the position and direction of the pedicle from the vertebral body at T10

A

the particle arises from the upper third of the vertebral body and projects posterior and slightly

385
Q

what feature is very commonly observed on the lamina of T10

A

para - articular processes

386
Q

what part of the transverse process may be absent on T10

A

the transverse costal facet

387
Q

what is the orientation of a spinous process of T10

A

posterior and slightly inferior, it will shorten and become more horizontal

388
Q

what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of t11

A

the right and left Superior costal facet

389
Q

which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T 11

A

inferior costal demifacet

390
Q

what part of the transverse process is absent on t11

A

the transverse costal facet

391
Q

what is the position of the spinous process of t11

A

posterior and horizontal along the undersurface

392
Q

what synovial joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of T12

A

the right and left Superior costal facet

393
Q

which synovial joint surface is absent from the vertebral body of T12

A

inferior costal demifacet

394
Q

what is present of a transverse process region of T12

A

3 tubercles of variable size

395
Q

which typical on T12 represents the transverse process

A

the lateral tubercle

396
Q

which tubercle on T12 represents the mammillary process of the lumbars

A

the superior tubercle

397
Q

which typical on T12 represents the accessory process of the lumbars

A

the inferior tubercle

398
Q

what joint surface of the typical thoracic transverse process is absent on T12

A

the transverse costal facet

399
Q

what is the curvature of the inferior articular facets of T12

A

they are slightly convex

400
Q

what is the orientation of the spinous process of T12

A

posterior and horizontal

401
Q

what is a generic shape of the typical lumbar vertebral body from the cranial View

A

Reniform or kidney-shaped

402
Q

what is the name of the elevation near the origin of the lumbar transverse process

A

accessory process

403
Q

what is the name of the lamina pedicle Junction of a typical lumbar vertebra

A

pars interarticularis

404
Q

what is characteristic of the L1 through Alpha articular processes

A

the transverse diameter Superior articular processes of an L1 through out for Segment will be greater than the transverse diameter of the inferior articular processes of that same segment

405
Q

what is the name given to the projection on lumbar Superior articular processes

A

mammillary process

406
Q

what characteristic of the L1 throughout for pedicle may be used to differentiate it from the L5 segment be specific and complete as the differences on the segment from each group

A

on cranial view, the lateral surface of the pedicle is a parent on the AL one through L4 segment. At L5 the transverse process originates from the vertebral body, pedicle and lamina pedicle region

407
Q

what is the generic Direction and length of the fifth lumbar transverse process

A

it is directed straight lateral and is the shortest of all lumbar transverse processes

408
Q

what is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult sacrum

A

five segments

409
Q

what forms the median sacral crest

A

fused spinous processes and their spinous tubercles

410
Q

what forms the intermediate sacral crest

A

fused articular processes and their facets

411
Q

what features may be identified along the intermediate sacral crest

A

the mammillary process of S1 and the sacral cornu of S5

412
Q

what does the sacral cornu represent

A

the inferior articular process and facet of S5

413
Q

what is the name of the inferior opening of the sacral spinal canal

A

the sacral hiatus

414
Q

what forms the lateral sacral crest

A

the fused transverse processes and transverse tubercles from S1 to S5

415
Q

what is the sacral tuberosity

A

the enlarged transverse tubercle of S2

416
Q

what feature is associated with the transverse tubercle of S5

A

the inferior and lateral sacral angle

417
Q

from the anterior view of the intervertebral discs of sacrum will be replaced by what feature

A

transverse ridges

418
Q

what feature is identified on the lateral surface of S1 through S3

A

auricular surface

419
Q

what feature does the anterior surface of the superior epiphyseal rim of S1 form

A

the sacral promontory

420
Q

what is the name given to the region of bone extending laterally from the s-1 vertebral body looking from the base View

A

sacral ala

421
Q

what forms the sacral ala

A

the costal element and true transverse process

422
Q

what is the typical number of segments that unite to form the adult coccyx

A

four segments

423
Q

what bony features are present on the coccyx

A

all segments are represented by a vertebral body. In addition Co one has a coccygeal cornu and transverse process

424
Q

what is the homologue of the superior articular process and facet in co1

A

coccygeal Cornu

425
Q

what feature is present at the top of the manubrium sterni

A

jugular notch

426
Q

what is the name given to the articular site at the superolateral margin of the manubrium sterni

A

clavicular notch

427
Q

what names are given to the articular sites for the joint with the first and second rib

A

costal Notch one for the first rib costal cartilage, costal Notch two for the second rib costal cartilage

428
Q

how many sternabrae for the Corpus Sterni

A

4 sternabrae

429
Q

what surface feature on the Corpus store and I identifies the location of the old synchondroses

A

transverse lines

430
Q

what articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the Corpus Sterni

A

costal notches two through seven

431
Q

what are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib

A

the head, neck, and tubercle

432
Q

what names are given to the articular surfaces on the head of a typical rib based on location

A

Superior articular surface or facet and inferior articular surface or facet

433
Q

what feature of the head of a rib separates the superior from inferior articular surface or facet

A

the inter articular crest

434
Q

what features may be identified on the neck of a typical rib

A

the crest of the rib

435
Q

which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the head of the rib

A

the articular surface of the tubercle

436
Q

which feature of the tubercle of a typical rib is closer to the shaft of the rib

A

the non articular surface of the tubercle

437
Q

what features may be identified on the body of a typical rib

A

the costal angle and costal Groove

438
Q

what is present on the head of the first rib

A

a single articular surface

439
Q

is there a Crest on the neck of the first rib

A

not a well-developed one like on the typical rib

440
Q

which groove on the body of the first rib is close to the vertebral end

A

the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve

441
Q

which groove on the body of the first rib is close to the sternal end

A

the groove for the subclavian vein

442
Q

is either the costal angle or costal Groove apparent on the first rib

A

no

443
Q

what features may be identified on the head of rib two

A

to articular surfaces and the inter articular crest

444
Q

what feature may be identified on the neck of rib two

A

the crest of the rib

445
Q

what features may be identified on the body of rib two

A

the tuberosity for the serratus anterior, the costal angle, and the costal Groove

446
Q

what distinguishes the vertebral end of rib 11 from typical ribs

A

the single articular surface, absence of a well-developed Crest on the neck and the tubercle may be absent or if present consists only of a non articular surface

447
Q

what features may be present on the body of the 11th rib

A

the costal angle and costal Groove are underdeveloped

448
Q

what helps to distinguish the vertebral end of the 12 rib from other ribs

A

the head has a single articular surface, the crest of the neck is probably developed, the tubercle is absent

449
Q

what is the condition of the body of rib 12

A

it is the shortest of all ribs and the costal angle and costal Groove are

450
Q

what is the term used to identify the study of joints

A

arthrology

451
Q

what term is used to identify the study of ligaments

A

syndesmology

452
Q

what are the three histological classifications of joints

A

fibrous, cartilaginou, and synovial fluid

453
Q

what were the three Latin classifications of joints based on movement potential

A

synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis

454
Q

what are the characteristics of the amphiarthrosis synchondrosis

A

they are primarily cartilage joints, temporary and Longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

455
Q

which classification of cartilage joint is secondary, permanent, composed of fibrous cartilage, and occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification

A

amphiarthrosis symphysis

456
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial joints

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid

457
Q

what examples of synovial plane joints occur along the vertebral column

A

most of zygapophyses of the vertebral column

458
Q

what is an example of synovial pivot joints along the vertebral column

A

median atlantoaxial joint

459
Q

what is the shared morphological characteristic of diarthrosis trochoid joints

A

an osseous pivot point and an Osteo ligamentous ring

460
Q

what example of synovial saddle joint is identified along the spine

A

The Joint of luschka of typical cervical is a modified Sellar joint

461
Q

what example of the Darth roses condylar joint is identified along the spine

A

the Atlanta occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrosis condylar joint

462
Q

what example of the diarthrosis ellipsoidal joint is identified along the spine

A

the Atlanta occipital joint may be classified as a diarthrotic ellipsoidal joint

463
Q

which synovial joint classifications are now often interchanged in textbooks

A

ellipsoidal and condylar synovial joints

Spinal Anatomy (4 decks)

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