Exam 1 Study Guide - Gab’s Quizlet Flashcards

1
Q

Apothecary

A

Small pharmacies that bought bulk chemicals to make products

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2
Q

How were apothecaries usually managed?

A

By families

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3
Q

Health maintenance organizations (HMOs)

A

A type of health insurance plan that provides care through a network of providers for a prepaid fee

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4
Q

What did apothecaries do?

A

Give medical advice
Provide remedies for healing
Sold protective meds & chemicals

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5
Q

Prospective payment system (PPS)

A

Medicare reimbursement method

Pays a fixed amount for a specific service, rather than reimbursing based on the actual services provided

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6
Q

What are HMOs designed for?

A

Reduce the cost of medical care while still maintaining quality

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7
Q

What are payment amounts in PPS based on?

A

classification system for the service, such as diagnosis-related groups for inpatient hospital services

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8
Q

Coaching

A

A tool managers use to provide employees support, direction, and advice to help an individual or group to come to conclusions on their own and see ways to improve their performance

(Like coaching employees to be better at their jobs)

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9
Q

Pharmaceutical care (PC)

A

A practice in which the pharmacist takes responsibility for a patient’s drug related needs and is held accountable for this commitment

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10
Q

Variance

A

The difference between the actual realized amount and the budgeted amount

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11
Q

New employee orientation

A

Program provided by the hiring manager or staff to help a newly hired employee become familiar w/ the new position and info about the organization

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12
Q

Budget

A

Financial plan that is used to estimate the results of future operations

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13
Q

Leadership involves the ability to…

A

Guide, inspire, and direct others

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14
Q

What is the difference between managers and leaders?

A

Managers use resources and apply ethical principles when making decisions and solving problems

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15
Q

Medication therapy management (MTM)

A

A service that helps people better understand their medications and health conditions

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16
Q

MTM services

A

Review of all meds including: rx, OTC, vitamins, supplements

Written summary of the review

List of the actions to help pt track their progress

Education, counseling, and resources

Coordination of care

(We Really Can’t Let Everyone)

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17
Q

What setting can MTM services be provided in?

A

A variety of settings including:
- outpatient settings
- long term settings
- community dwelling adults

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18
Q

What patients can MTM services be useful for?

A

Chronic conditions
Take a single high risk med
At high risk for ADEs

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19
Q

MTM services can help patients _______ w/ their healthcare providers

A

Communicate better

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20
Q

Coverage plans and MTM services

A

Medicare drug coverage plans MUST offer MTM services to members who meed certain requirements

These services are usually free

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21
Q

Chronic medication management (CMM)

A

Strategy to help pts w/ chronic diseases manage their rx meds

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22
Q

What is the goal of chronic medication management programs?

A

Improve health outcomes and quality of life by helping patients take their meds as prescribed

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23
Q

SMART goals

A

Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely

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24
Q

What does setting a solid goal create?

A

A long term vision for a pharmacy

Helps motivate personnel to achieve the vision

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25
Q

SMART goal setting

A

Formal process in which you define targets for the pharmacy to achieve

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26
Q

How long can it take to accomplish short term goals?

A

1-2 months

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27
Q

How long can it take to accomplish long term goals?

A

Over the course of several months, a year, or several years

(Basically any goals that take more than 2 months to accomplish)

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28
Q

Critical goals

A

Goals essential for the pharmacy to continue operating successfully

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29
Q

What is an example of a critical goal

A

A specific % of meds processed w/ a generic equivalent or a lower cost therapeutically equivalent alternative

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30
Q

Solution oriented goals

A

Goals helping to provide a more desirable business condition or to take advantage of a business opportunity

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31
Q

Example of a solution oriented goal

A

Establishing a specific # of pharmacist administered immunizations for the pharmacy to provide

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32
Q

Nice to have goals

A

Goals that make improvements to enhance business

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33
Q

What do nice to have goals usually relate to?

A

Making activities faster or easier

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34
Q

Example of a nice to have goal

A

Creating a loyalty program for patrons of a pharmacy or pharmacy program designed to help asthma patients adhere to their med regimens

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35
Q

Types of goals reached with SMART goals

A

Short term
Long term
Critical
Solution oriented
Nice to have
Individual
Team

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36
Q

What can be considered an indispensable management skill?

A

Communication

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37
Q

What is the purpose of effective communication?

A

To deliver a message, influence, and bring about change

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38
Q

Communication is both ____ and ____

A

Verbal and nonverbal

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39
Q

What are the four elements of communication?

A

Sender
Receiver
Message
Environment

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40
Q

What is a revenue and expense report?

A

Defined by a time and provides a listing of revenues and expenses for the business unit

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41
Q

Management is the art of…

A

Maximizing productivity by using and developing people’s talents, while providing them self enrichment and opportunities for growth

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42
Q

Contingency planning

A

Development of strategies to address possible future:
- risks
- problems
- undesirable situations

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43
Q

What are exit strategies?

A

Plans for leaving a position, investment, program, or business

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44
Q

Exit strategies should leave both positions…

A

Well positioned for future achievements

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45
Q

Exit strategies may involve ____

A

Succession planning

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46
Q

In exit strategies, what should exiting individuals have?

A

Personal action plans

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47
Q

In exit strategies, what should exiting organizations have?

A

Plans that minimize disruption to operations and protect financial solvency

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48
Q

Resources that are managed

A

Time
Money
People
Materials
Info

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49
Q

Pharmacy care practice domains

A

Disease and medication therapy management

Pharmacy care services marketing

Risk management

Business management

Patient centered care delivery

(Don’t Push Really Bad Pills)

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50
Q

What is the role of a pharmacy manager?

A

Serve a multifaceted role

Involves both operating the pharmacy and managing people who work there

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51
Q

What is the role of a direct supervisor?

A

Overseeing personnel such as:
- techs
- students/interns
- non-licensed and registered personnel

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52
Q

Direct role

A

Reporting up to someone else, such as middle/senior management or pharmacy owner

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53
Q

Pharmacy managers may also interact w/ _____

A

Other senior management members

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54
Q

What is the role of administrator of pt products and services?

A

Ensuring the target products & services needed by the targeted pt, customer, or client groups are available and maintained

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55
Q

As an administrator, a pharmacy manager has to ____ and ___ people on the receiving end of these services

A

Interact and communicate

Ex. Wholesale distributors and suppliers

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56
Q

Role of colleagues to other pharmacists

A

Participating as a member of a group of pharmacist professional who may be consulted for:
- mentoring
- training
- education
- advice

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57
Q

What are the managerial sciences

A

Economics
Finance
Accounting
Marketing
HR management
Operations management

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58
Q

Economics can be considered the ____ and ____ of the production and distribution of goods and services

A

Description and analysis

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59
Q

What does economics assist with?

A

Determining optimal mix of capital and other resources to produce prescription goods and services

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60
Q

What does economics help us to understand?

A

Consumer purchase behavior

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61
Q

Finance

A

The study of investments and how people and business acquire, generate, and use money

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62
Q

What do finance studies aim to do?

A

Price assets based on their risk level and expected rate of return

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63
Q

Accounting

A

Utilization of data to calculate financial ratios to compare business performance w/ industry averages

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64
Q

Financial accounting

A

Summary, analysis, and reporting of financial transactions pertaining to a business

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65
Q

Management accounting

A

The use of accounting data for business decision making, devising, planning, and performance of the production

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66
Q

Marketing

A

The action or business of promoting and selling products or services and includes decisions around product/service pricing, placement, and promotion

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67
Q

What does marketing examine?

A

The concept of transactional exchanges between 2+ parties

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68
Q

Human resource management

A

The process of achieving organizational objectives through the management of people

Focuses on policies and systems in a business organization

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69
Q

How does HR management maximize human performance?

A

By balancing fair and equitable treatment to promote effective work environments

(HR is there to make sure you’re being treated right but only because they want you to do your job)

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70
Q

Operations management

A

Designing and controlling the process of production and redesigning business operations in the production of goods and services

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71
Q

What does operations management assist with?

A

Ensuring business operations are efficient in using as few resources as needed and are effective in terms of meeting customer needs

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72
Q

What does operations management preside over?

A

The conversion of inputs and outputs

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73
Q

Fayol’s 5 management functions

A
  1. Forecast and plan
  2. Organize
  3. Command
  4. Coordinate
  5. Control
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74
Q

Steps of the management cycle

A

Planning
Organizing
Leading
Controlling

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75
Q

Planning

A

Predetermining a course of action based upon an organization’s goals and objectives

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76
Q

Organizing

A

Arranging activities and resources necessary for the effective accomplishment of goals and/or objectives

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77
Q

Leading

A

Bringing about purposeful action by others to achieve the desired goals/objectives or outcomes

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78
Q

Controlling

A

Reviewing outcomes and processes

Then determining what happened and why

Then making appropriate changes or effectively seeking remedy

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79
Q

Levels of management

A

Self management
Interpersonal management
Organizational management

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80
Q

Self management

A

Managing time
Managing your own conflicts
Managing your emotions
Setting priorities

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81
Q

Interpersonal management

A

Includes:
- other pharmacists
- techs
- support staff
- store or health system supervisors
- patients
- families
- other caregivers
- supplier personnel
- other healthcare professionals

*and many others

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82
Q

Organizational management

A

Actions that affect groups of people

Ex. Policies or any decision that can impact a wide variety of stakeholders

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83
Q

Managing up

A

The process of working with your boss to obtain the best possible results

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84
Q

Managing up strategies

A

Clarify roles and expectations

Know boss’s work & communication styles

Provide boss w/ complete info

Be dependable & trustworthy

Assist boss in better managing his/her time

Be positive and appreciative

Disagree w/ tact and respect

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85
Q

360º feedback

A

Feedback tool for managers

Process allows feedback from all angles (employees, peers, boss)

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86
Q

Definitions of value

A

The regard that something is held to deserve

The importance, worth, or usefulness of something

The measure of the benefit provided by a good or service

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87
Q

Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act

A

A set of laws passed by the congress in 1938

Gave authority to the US FDA to oversee the safety of:
- food
- drugs
- medical devices
- cosmetics

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88
Q

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

A

1952 amendment to FFDCA that established 2 med categories: rx and OTC

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89
Q

What amendment defined which drugs require an rx and which can be used safely without medical supervision?

A

Durham-Humphrey Amendment

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90
Q

Patient protection and affordable care act

A

Established pilots for:

  • integrated care delivery
  • comprehensive med review for Medicare beneficiaries
  • grants specifically for MTM programs
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91
Q

What is now considered a key component in the provision of pharmacy care services?

A

MTM

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92
Q

Fayol’s 14 principles for organizational design and effective administration

A
  1. Specialization/division of labor
  2. Authority w/ corresponding responsibility
  3. Discipline
  4. Unity of command
  5. Unity of direction
  6. Subordination of individual interest to general interest
  7. Renumeration of staff
  8. Centralization
  9. Scalar chain/line of authority
  10. Order
  11. Equity
  12. Stability
  13. Initiative
  14. Esprit of corps
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93
Q

Directive/autocratic managerial style

A

Monitoring a team member closely and providing more explicit instructions and demands

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94
Q

Example of when to use direct/autocratic managerial style

A

A pharmacy team member taking a new responsibility (ie monitoring pharmacy)

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95
Q

Coaching/paternalistic managerial style

A

Working w/ a team member to resolve a concern or issue

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96
Q

Example of when to use coaching/paternalistic managerial style

A

Discussion w/ pharmacy team member who feels resentful because they were not selected for a new responsibility

Illuminate why the member was not selected for the task

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97
Q

Supportive/democratic managerial style

A

Encouraging a team member to identify and build upon them

(So as to gradually take on more tasks and risks)

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98
Q

Example of when to use supportive/democratic managerial style

A

Working w/ a pharmacy team member who has been given a new responsibility by providing individualized instruction and continuous feedback

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99
Q

Delegating/Laissez-fare managerial style

A

Providing a team member w/ the autonomy and trust w/ key responsibilities and decision making

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100
Q

Example of when to use delegating/laissez-faire managerial style

A

Providing responsibilities to the pharmacy team member who monitors pharmacy inventory

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101
Q

Common motivators for Generation Y (1978-1995)

A

Positive reinforcement
Autonomy
Positive attitude
Diversity
Technology

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102
Q

Communication considerations for Generation Y (1978-1995)

A

Create a fun, learning work environment

Ask them for feedback and provide them w/ constant feedback

Encourage them to take risks

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103
Q

Common motivators for Gen X (1966-1977)

A

Entrepreneurial spirit
Independent
Continuous feedback
Creative
Loyalty

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104
Q

Communication considerations for Gen X (1966-1977)

A

Use email

Provide regular feedback and share info regularly

Use informal communication styles

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105
Q

Common motivators for baby boomers (1947-1965)

A

Competition
Teamwork
Success driven
Hard workers
Dedicated to a cause

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106
Q

Communication considerations for baby boomers (1947-1965)

A

Recognize that how they are approached is important to them

Use an open, direct style

Answer their questions thoroughly

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107
Q

Common motivators for traditionalists (before 1946)

A

Private
Hard workers
Respect for authority
Trustworthy
Social order

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108
Q

Communication considerations for traditionalists

A

They are private, so don’t expect active sharing of their thoughts

Face to face or written communication preferred

Their time is important - have a purpose and don’t waste their time

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109
Q

What often influence whether the receiver is going to listen and therefore whether the message is received?

A

The tone of the message

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110
Q

What may affect whether or not you have to listen closer/harder when communicating w/ people?

A

If they have an accent or not

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111
Q

What involves hearing the message, asking questions regarding the message, and observing during the communication process?

A

Listening and questioning skills

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112
Q

What does a person’s body language often convey?

A

Approachability
Receptivity to viewpoints
Opinions

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113
Q

What does body language include?

A

Gestures
Facial expression
Eye contact
Body posture
Eye contact
Physical contact
Body posture
Body space
Proximity to other people

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114
Q

How does attainment inspire motivation?

A

Allows employees to work toward both short term and long term goals

This creates a record of achievement and growth

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115
Q

Attainment

A

Motivate employees by constantly introducing new tasks that build on one another

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116
Q

Belonging

A

Because individuals find the social aspects of their job to be the most meaningful, you can motivate them by making them feel as if they are part of a larger group

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117
Q

Power

A

Treat employees like in house experts and frequently ask them for advice

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118
Q

How does the aspect of power inspire motivation?

A

It will instantly plug employees into what makes them feel motivated because they will savor the chance to offer their opinions and see that you take them seriously

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119
Q

Independence

A

Provide clear goals and allow these employees to find the best way to produce results

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120
Q

Respect

A

Recognize employees contributions and acknowledge the value of their opinions

Give them time to express their perspectives and do not interrupt them while they are talking

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121
Q

Equity

A

Take care to be fair when making decisions about your staff’s:
- work schedules
- job titles
- scope of responsibilities
- pay
- benefits

To ensure there are no hints of inequities

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122
Q

Relative value theorem

A

Predicts that nay professional service must have potential for generating a high PV in the minds of potential buyers if it is to succeed in the workplace

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123
Q

What is the equation for relative values theorem?

A

P + S x PV = RV

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124
Q

Price (P)

A

Cost includes monetary and nonmonetary factors (eg time)

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125
Q

Service (S)

A

Things/features that distinguish a good/service and that which can be marketed

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126
Q

Perceived value (PV)

A

The actual cognitive perceptions of tradeoff

How well does the good/service meet emotional, mental, physical, cultural needs

How well does it project the image I want to project

How satisfactory has my experience been

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127
Q

Leadership definition

A

An act of instance of leading, guiding, or providing direction

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128
Q

Formal leadership

A

Formal power and authority bestowed through organization

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129
Q

Informal leadership

A

Create and articulate compelling visions of the future to achieve success, but do so without the power and authority granted to formal leaders

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130
Q

Professionalism

A

The standards, behaviors, and character of an individual engaged in tasks related to their work/profession

Includes honor, integrity, and respect

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131
Q

Catabolic leadership can be described as

A

Breakdown of complex molecules

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132
Q

Anabolic leadership can be described as

A

Build up or creation of molecules

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133
Q

Skills that leaders share

A

Clear, guiding vision
Passion
Integrity
Trust
Curiosity
Calculated risk taking

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134
Q

Top down leadership

A

Autocratic or hierarchal

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135
Q

Bottom up leadership

A

Participatory or servant

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136
Q

Leadership across those in an organization

A

Collaboration or democratic

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137
Q

Affiliative leadership style

A

Forging relationships, team building

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138
Q

Autocratic/hierarchal leadership style

A

Independent decision making

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139
Q

Democratic/collaboration leadership style

A

Facilitate input from members of organization

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140
Q

Laissez-faire leadership style

A

Provide resources, but little decision

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141
Q

Transformational leadership style

A

Use societal and spiritual values to bolster performance and motivation

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142
Q

Servant leadership style

A

Meet the needs of those they lead and help them grow

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143
Q

Kotter’s 8 steps to create transformative change

A

Establish
Build
Develop
Communicate
Remove
Generate
Consolidate
Create

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144
Q

Establish

A

Establish a sense of urgency

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145
Q

Build

A

Build the guiding coalition

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146
Q

Develop

A

Develop a vision and strategy

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147
Q

Communicate

A

Communicate the change vision

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148
Q

Remove

A

Remove barriers to empower broad-based action

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149
Q

Generate

A

Generate short term wins

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150
Q

Consolidate

A

Consolidate wins and produce more change

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151
Q

Create

A

Create a new organizational culture

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152
Q

Emotional intelligence

A

The ability/capacity to perceive, assess, and manage the emotions of oneself and others

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153
Q

What aspects are involved in emotional intelligence?

A

Self awareness
Self regulation
Self motivation
Relationship management
Empathy

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154
Q

Self awareness

A

Be aware of your emotions as they arise

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155
Q

Self regulation

A

Manage your impulses, soothe yourself, and respond appropriately

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156
Q

Self motivation

A
  • Delay gratification
  • Stay motivated and persistent in face of setbacks
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157
Q

Empathy

A

Understand other’s feelings, needs, wants, and concerned

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158
Q

Relationship management

A

Manage other’s emotions
Organize groups
Negotiate solutions

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159
Q

What are hallmarks of self-awareness?

A

Self confidence
Realistic self assessment
Self deprecating sense of humor

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160
Q

What are hallmarks of self regulation?

A

Trustworthiness and integrity
Comfort w/ ambiguity
Openness to change

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161
Q

Motivation

A

A passion to work for reasons that go beyond money or status

A propensity to pursue goals w/ energy and persistence

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162
Q

Hallmarks of motivation

A
  • Strong drive to achieve
  • Optimism, even in the face of failure
  • Organizational commitment
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163
Q

Hallmarks of empathy

A

Expertise in building & retaining talent

Cross cultural sensitivity

Service to clients and customers

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164
Q

Hallmarks of social skills

A
  • Effectiveness in leading change
  • Persuasiveness
  • Expertise in building and leading teams
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165
Q

What are some characteristics of a high performing team?

A

Mutual trust
Good communication
Effective leadership
External support
Internal support
Negotiating skills
Clear goals
Unified commitment

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166
Q

What are the 5 dysfunctions of a team?

A

Inattention to results
Avoidance of accountability
Lack of commitment
Fear of conflict
Absence of trust

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167
Q

Inattention to results

A

Status and ego

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168
Q

Avoidance of accountability

A

Low standards

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169
Q

Lack of commitment

A

Ambiguity

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170
Q

Fear of conflict

A

Artificial harmony

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171
Q

Absence of trust

A

Invulnerability

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172
Q

3 origins of authority

A

Traditional
Bureaucratic
Charismatic

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173
Q

Traditional authority

A

Customs and traditions

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174
Q

Bureaucratic authority

A

Based on rules or established laws

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175
Q

Charismatic authority

A

Based on power/persuasion and personal magnetism

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176
Q

What are the 5 sources of power?

A

Legitimate power
Reward power
Coercive power
Expert power
Referent power

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177
Q

Reward power

A

Based on ability to provide material/non-material inducements

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178
Q

Legitimate power

A

Based on followers’ perception that leader has the right to lead

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179
Q

Expert power

A

Based on individual’s knowledge and expertise

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180
Q

Referent power

A

Based on personal charm/appeal and followers’ desire to emulate

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181
Q

Coercive power

A

Based on ability to threaten & punish

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182
Q

Several common characteristic that true leaders have

A
  • Ability to articulate a compelling vision
  • Passion
  • Integrity
  • Encouragement
  • Curiosity, daring, taking calculated risks
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183
Q

Level 1 of collins hierarchy of executive behaviors

A

Individuals make contributions independently

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184
Q

Level 2 of collins hierarchy of executive behaviors

A

People who work well in team settings

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185
Q

Level 3 of collins hierarchy of executive behaviors

A

Competent managers

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186
Q

Level 4 of collins hierarchy of executive behaviors

A

Classic definition of a leader

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187
Q

Level 5 of collins hierarchy of executive behaviors

A

Executive leader driven by goals

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188
Q

What trait is shown by someone who acts assertively?

A

Competent

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189
Q

What trait is shown by someone who admits their mistakes?

A

Cooperative

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190
Q

What trait is shown by someone who challenges the status quo?

A

Credible

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191
Q

What trait is shown by someone who communicates well?

A

Decisive

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192
Q

What trait is shown by someone who delegates, entrusts, and empowers?

A

Diplomatic

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193
Q

What trait is shown by someone who demonstrates integrity?

A

Emotionally stable

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194
Q

What trait is shown by someone who encourages?

A

Innovative

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195
Q

What trait is shown by someone who listens?

A

Optimistic

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196
Q

What trait is shown by someone who makes others feel important?

A

Passionate

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197
Q

What trait is shown by someone who negotiates successfully?

A

Persuasive

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198
Q

What trait is shown by someone who provides good direction?

A

Responsible

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199
Q

What trait is shown by someone who resolves conflict?

A

System thinker

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200
Q

What trait is shown by someone who stays involved?

A

Visionary

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201
Q

Level 5 leaders

A

More focused on the organization or cause than self

Driven by goals, not recognition/fortune/power

Exhibit many possible leadership styles

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202
Q

What is critical to successful patient and workplace communication?

A

Respect

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203
Q

What does the sender and receiver model include?

A

A sender and receiver

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204
Q

Sender

A

Person who conveys the message using words and non-verbal cues

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205
Q

Receiver

A

Person who decodes the words and cues to interpret the messages

Then become the sender by giving feedback on the message

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206
Q

What does each individual bring to a situation?

A

Knowledge
Experience
Culture
Communication skills

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207
Q

What occurs when both the sender and the receiver interpret the meaning of the message in the same way?

A

Effective communication

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208
Q

Face to face communication incorporates 3 elements

A

Words
Tone of voice
Body language

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209
Q

What are the 3 Vs?

A

Verbal
Voice
Visual

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210
Q

What occurs when a person says one thing, but their body language, tone, or other nonverbal cues suggest something different?

A

Mixed messages

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211
Q

What can influence verbal message reception?

A

Voice rate
Volume
Intonation
Pitch

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212
Q

Nonverbal communication may account for more than ___% of the way messages are received

A

90%

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213
Q

Barriers to effective communication

A

Physical barriers
Status differentials
Time constraints
Word choices
Cultural and gender related differences

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214
Q

Why can active listening be difficult?

A

The difference in the amount of material people can understand vs the amount people can speak

You can understand more than someone can speak, so your mind has room to wander

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215
Q

What affects active listening?

A

Speaker
Settings
Styles
Subject

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216
Q

What are some techniques that show an employee that you are listening?

A

Let the employee know you hear the question — both the emotion and the content

Probe/ask questions to clarify info presented

Advise to provide comments

Paraphrase to describe what the person is saying

Provide empathetic response

Use nonverbal communication

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217
Q

Active voice

A

When the subject is performing the action

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218
Q

When is it useful to use an active voice?

A

When an action is being required

In letters, email policies/procedures, other communication forms

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219
Q

Passive voice

A

When the subject is acted upon

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220
Q

When is it useful to use a passive voice?

A

When you do not want to assign blame

Who may have specifically did something

Communicate bad news

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221
Q

Medium

A

Channel through which messages pass

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222
Q

What are examples of mediums?

A

Memos
Emails
One on one exchanges
Written

(MEOW)

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223
Q

Best practices for professional texts

A

Keep them short

Offer another level of service

Focus on building relationships first

Be personal

Limit frequency and ensure quality content

Do not reply w/ one word

Provide relevant content

Set boundaries

Offer short answer options

Impart value

Ensure that other individuals opt in

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224
Q

Four key rules for developing a presentation

A

Remember that you are telling a story or asking for something

Less is more

Style and formatting are key

Tell them what you care going to say and then tell them what you have to say

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225
Q

Nonverbal key elements

A

Posture
Facial expression
Eye contact
Gestures
Touch

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226
Q

What are some strengths of nonverbal communication?

A

Can convey emotions and attitudes more effectively than words alone

Can reinforce or contradict verbal communication

Can communicate messages when verbal communication is not possible/appropriate

Can enhance interpersonal relationships & rapport

Can be used to provide feedback to others

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227
Q

Weakness of nonverbal communication

A

Can be misinterpreted or misunderstood because it is often implicit and not explicit in style

Can be influenced by cultural or personal differences, leading to intercultural miscommunication

Can be used to deceive or manipulate others due to its often ambiguous nature

Can create discomfort or awkwardness in some situations

Can be unintentionally distracting and unprofessional

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228
Q

Strengths of verbal communication

A

Can convey complex ideas and emotions effectively through tones of voices, pitch, and urgency

When face to face, it allows immediate feedback and clarification

Tailored to the audience

Can enhance interpersonal relationships and bonding

Can be used to persuade or influence others

Central to culture building

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229
Q

Weakness of verbal communication

A

Can be misunderstood or misinterpreted

Tone, pitch, and volume of voice may unintentionally change the message being delivered

Can be influenced by linguistic differences even within one culture

Poor language proficiency and the presence of speech impediments

Ambient noise can easily obscure the message

Prone to misremembering

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230
Q

Strengths of visual communication

A

Quickly communicates complex information and relationships between ideas

Captures attention especially when good color combos are used

Easier to understand than words alone

Can evoke emotions and inspire actions

Enhances comprehensions

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231
Q

Weakness of visual communication

A

Can be challenging to interpret at times

May misrepresent or oversimplify complex concepts

Can be time consuming and costly to create

Not ideal for conveying sensitive or detailed messages

Can be distracting or overwhelming

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232
Q

Strengths of written communication

A

High accuracy
Clarity
Efficient

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233
Q

Weakness of written communication

A

Lack of emotion
Delay in communication
Misinterpretation

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234
Q

Barriers of communication

A

Gender
Emotional
Language
Status
Cultural
Organizational
Semantic
Inattention
Physical
Personal

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235
Q

Poor culture within the organization causes

A
  • Stringent rules
  • Over regulations
  • Status relationships
  • Complexity and inadequate facilities
  • Lack of opportunity for growth & improvement
  • Heavy on management
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236
Q

Internal and external environments when it comes to organizational barriers

A

Lack of appropriate workspace
Poor lighting
Staff shortages
Outdates equipment
Noise
Separation of employees

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237
Q

8 tips for active listening

A

Paraphrase
Ask questions
Use positive body language
Show empathy
Avoid judgement
Don’t give advice too quickly
Evaluate the conversation
Listening may be enough

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238
Q

Bracketing

A

Give up the perspective that our frame of reference is the correct one

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239
Q

Miscommunications in texting

A

Emoji misfire
Delayed responses
Abbreviation ambiguity
Autocorrect chaos
Incomplete information
Sarcastic interpretations
Acronym oops
Time zone issues
Too brief
Misread punctuation
Subject change
Misplaced emphasis
Ambiguous invitations
Multitasking distractions
Assumption of prior knowledge
Overuse of capital letters

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240
Q

What should you do when faces w/ an angry customer, patient, or caregiver?

A

Stay calm
Validate pt’s emotions
Ask pt questions
Apologize

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241
Q

What does staying calm entail?

A

Stop and breathe

Silence is okay while you gain your thoughts

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242
Q

How should you validate the patient’s emotions?

A

“I hear your frustration and understand you did not plan your day around having to stand here and wait for us to clarify”

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243
Q

When asking the pt questions, what should you do?

A

Use open ended questions
Become and investigator

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244
Q

What does apologizing entail?

A

It doesn’t mean you’re wrong or assigning blame

It’s about expressing regret that someone is upset

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245
Q

Thomas-Kilmann conflict mode instrument

A

Competing
Accommodating
Avoiding
Compromising
Collaborating

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246
Q

What are the elements of a collaborative conversation?

A

Identify the problem
Identify all possible solutions
Decide which solution is best
Determine how to implement the solution
Assess the outcome of a solution

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247
Q

Strategies managers can use to manage a group conflict

A

Establish protocols for conflict

Equip employees w/ tools and confidence to manage conflict

Screen for conflict competence during hiring and promotion

Refuse to hear arguments until parties in conflict have exhausted the ability to reach a consensus

Establish a conflict escalation protocol

Make process of conflict resolution transparent

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248
Q

Principled negotiation supports ____ and ____ relationships

A

Productive and long term

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249
Q

What does principle negotiation involve?

A

Identifying own interests

Seek to understand the interests of the other party

Work together to develop potential options

Evaluate possibilities

Reach agreement that benefits other parties

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250
Q

Problem solving process

A
  1. Define the problem
  2. Analyze the problem
  3. Develop possible solutions
  4. Analyze proposed solutions
  5. Select the best solution given the environment and parties involved
  6. Plan the next course of action
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251
Q

Conflict

A

Disagreement through which the parties involved perceive a threat to their needs, interests, concerns

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252
Q

Mutually beneficial compromises

A

Can be reached if conflict is viewed as an opportunities to recognize and appreciate the concerns of others rather than as a win or lose situation

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253
Q

Factors that may prompt conflict within a pharmacy setting

A

Heavier than normal workloads

Being understaffed

The introduction of new staff members and/or leaders

Scheduling disagreements

High noise or distraction levels

Introduction of new protocols or procedures

Inadequate understanding of job duties

Impression that pharmacist makes the money but techs do the work

After a med error has occurred

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254
Q

Feelings conversation

A

Related to emotions inherent in the conflict

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255
Q

Identify conversation

A

Internal conversation we have w/ ourselves about what a particular situation means to us personally

256
Q

Common ways to respond to conflict

A

Personal awareness
Competing mode
Accommodating mode
Avoiding mode
Compromising mode
Collaborating mode

257
Q

Personal awareness

A

Supporting effective resolution of conflict

258
Q

Competing mode

A

Win at all costs mentality

Assertive and uncooperative

259
Q

Accommodating mode

A

Unassertive and highly cooperative

Neglect own needs to help others

260
Q

What is the result of responding to conflict w/ accommodating mode?

A

Lose-win

261
Q

Avoiding mode

A

Unassertive and uncooperative

Simply do not deal with conflict

Don’t pursue their needs to others needs

262
Q

What is the result of responding to conflict using avoidance?

A

Lose-lose

263
Q

Compromising mode

A

Moderate assertiveness and cooperativeness

264
Q

What is the goal of using compromising mode?

A

Find a compromising situation that accommodates all disagreeing parties

265
Q

What is the result of using a compromising mode when responding to conflict?

A

Lose-lose

266
Q

Collaborating mode

A

Assertive and cooperative

Find solutions satisfying to all

267
Q

What is the result of using collaborative mode when resolving conflict?

A

Win-win

268
Q

What does BATNA stand for?

A

Best alternative to a negotiated agreement

269
Q

BATNA

A

The course of action a party will take if a negotiation and no agreement is reached

270
Q

Why is BATNA an important source of power?

A

An individual has greater power when others perceive them to have equal or better options to the deal being offered

The most powerful party in a negotiation is the one who can most easily walk away from an offer

271
Q

Authority

A

Formal or official power bestowed on individuals

272
Q

Greater authority gives one greater ____ in negotiating

A

Flexibility

273
Q

What is one rule of negotiating?

A

Individuals should partner w/ those that have the authority to make a deal

274
Q

Who might be perceived as powerful negotiators?

A

People w/ a positive and confident attitude

275
Q

4 standard responses to conflict and how individuals act

A

Opportunism
Avoidance
Accommodation
Collaboration

276
Q

When is negotiation necessary?

A

When 2+ people/entities have a difference of opinion

277
Q

Cooperation

A

Work together to find mutually beneficial solutions to conflicts

278
Q

Trust

A

Share info without feeling that it will be used against them opportunistically

279
Q

Trust is also needed for partners to make ___

A

Concessions

280
Q

What can happen without trust?

A

Neither partner will make the first move necessary to break an impasse

281
Q

Why is having imagination essential?

A

Many negotiations revolve around a multitude of issues and varying importance to the parties

282
Q

___ and ___ can help parties look beyond the one or two easily recognizable paths to a solution

A

Imagination and creativity

283
Q

Principled negotiation

A

Uses objective standards to address the concerns of the individuals or organizations involved to reach mutually acceptable standards

284
Q

2 types of standards involved in principled negotiation

A

Objective standards
Personal standards

285
Q

Objective standards

A

Criteria that both negotiating parties agree on and in which they have confidence

APPLIED TO EACH POTENTIAL SOLUTION

286
Q

Personal standards

A

Refer to each party’s best alternative to the negotiated agreement or fallback position if not pursuing the negotiation

287
Q

Communication behavior modes

A

Passive
Aggressive
Assertive

288
Q

Passive communication behavior mode

A

Seek to avoid conflict at all costs

289
Q

Aggressive communication behavior mode

A

Focus on winning despite all costs

290
Q

Assertive communication behavior mode

A

Lies between 2 extremes above and is center of principled negotiation

Involves giving and receiving respect

291
Q

Active listening involves remaining ____ while you digest another’s message or position and then responding in a way that conveys you have done so

A

Nonjudgemental

292
Q

Tough tactics

A

When one negotiating party attempts to manipulate the other and leads to resistance

293
Q

Agreement to tough tactics

A

If you feel criticism or a portion of it is valid in negotiation, simply agreement

294
Q

Disagreement to tough tactics

A

Disagreeing w/ criticism raised if you feel it’s illegitimate

295
Q

Inquiry to tough tactics

A

Asking questions that may evoke criticism to address unexpected criticism

296
Q

Fogging to tough tactics

A

Technique when unsure of the accuracy of a concern raised or of validity

297
Q

Postponing to tough tactics

A

When a negotiator is unsure about a term

298
Q

Broken record response to tough tactics

A

When a negotiator is not interested in altering their position

299
Q

Inadequate preparation

A

When negotiators do not do their homework and are not sufficiently versed in the issue at hand before engaging in principled negotiation

300
Q

Positional bargaining

A

Negotiation strategy whereby a party holds onto their position without regard for the other party or underlying concerns

301
Q

Stalemate

A

Situation in which neither side can prevail in a negotiating and parties disbands

302
Q

Doer personality

A

Action oriented
Likes to get things done
Energetic
Decisive

303
Q

What is the problem with having a doer personality?

A

Can frustrate teammates

Does not allow time to process events before getting comfortable w/ a plan of action

304
Q

Thinker personality

A

Considers current and future implications

Engages in conversations w/ teammates

Asks insightful questions

Ponders various options before formulating a plan

305
Q

What is the problem w/ having a thinker personality?

A

If time allows it’s appreciated, but in crisis mode, teammates can become impatient

Too slow responding to issues

306
Q

Communicatory personality

A

People oriented

Mastery of language skills to persuade and sell their ideas

Can be assertive at times

Wants visibility

Likes praise

307
Q

Why can having a communicator personality be bad?

A

May be perceived as abrasive

Talking at vs listening

308
Q

Analyzer personality

A

Highly analytical
Thoughtful
Detail oriented
Likes to concentrate on task
Likes consistency

309
Q

Why can having an analyzer personality be bad?

A

You may be seen as a finger pointer

310
Q

When conflict occurs, what 3 issues are at play?

A

What happened conversation
Feelings conversation
Identity conversation

311
Q

The “what happened” conversation

A

Assume your view/interpretation of the matter is right

Assuming what other intentions are

Assigning blame

312
Q

The feelings conversation

A

Displayed or not displayed
Unable to be a good listener
Judgement

313
Q

The identity conversation

A

Challenging a person’s sense of who they are

Question person’s competency

314
Q

Steps in principled negotiation

A
  1. Uncoupled parties from the problem
  2. Target underlying concerns
  3. Develop joint solutions
  4. Apply standards
315
Q

What do uncoupled parties from the problem focus on?

A

The issues rather than the people and personalities involved

316
Q

Target underlying concerns

A

Uncover the true issues leading to the lack of agreement

317
Q

Develop joint solutions

A

Work collaboratively to generate multiple options

318
Q

Apply standards

A

Use objective standards to:

  • ensure fairness
  • assess whether a proposed solution meets your personal expectations
319
Q

7 tips to resolve workplace conflict

A

Find common ground
Investigate the situation
Follow up
Document the incident
Establish roles
Agree on a solution
Brainstorm solution

320
Q

Find common ground

A

Highlight share goals/interests as a basis for constructive dialogue — acknowledging varied paths to the same end

321
Q

Investigate the situation

A
  • Engage w/ stakeholders
  • Identify unmet needs
  • Determine if medication is needed
  • Understand both viewpoints to pinpoint conflict origin
322
Q

Brainstorm solutions

A

Facilitate a brainstorming session

Encourage nonjudgemental idea sharing and collaborative pros/cons discussion

323
Q

Agree on a solution

A

Through negotiation

Aim for a resolution that is fair, realistic, and resonates w/ the previously identified common ground

324
Q

Establish roles

A

Clearly outline responsibilities to shift from blame to teamwork

Ensure everyone understands their contribution to the resolution

325
Q

Document the incident

A

Record details like:
- involved parties
- conflict nature
- resolution
- commitments for clarity and future reference

326
Q

Follow up

A

Maintain open communication

Ensuring adherence to agreements

Checking on employee well-being

Showcasing organizational commitment

327
Q

Organization

A

A group of individuals working to reach a common goal

Can be as small as a family or a global corporation

328
Q

Organizations have…

A

Visions
Mission
Values

329
Q

Visions

A

The organization’s long term goals and aspirations

330
Q

Mission

A

The organization’s purpose

331
Q

Values

A

The organization’s central priorities

332
Q

Organization values

A

Cores
Aspirational
Permission to play
Accidental

333
Q

Core values

A

Deeply ingrained principles and cultural cornerstones

334
Q

Aspirational values

A

What is needed for success in the future but currently lacking in the org

335
Q

Permission to play values

A

Reflect minimal behavioral and social standards required by an employee

336
Q

Accidental values

A

Arise spontaneously without being cultivated

337
Q

Systematic and scientific analysis of individuals, groups, and organizations

A

How groups of people work together

Understand, predict, and affect human behavior to improve the performance of individuals in groups

Ultimately to affect the functioning and success of the organizations in which individuals and groups work

338
Q

Why should pharmacists understand organizational behavior?

A

Understand, predict, and affect individual performance

Needs to improve the functioning of the pharmacy

339
Q

The vision can be seen as the organization’s ____

A

Broad statement

340
Q

What does the vision describe?

A

The tomorrow and the long term future

Who serves the organization

341
Q

How would you describe an organization’s mission?

A

The why and how

The core purpose of the organization

How the org fills its vision

Tells the world what the org does

Tells the world how the org does it every day

342
Q

Organizational behavior

A

Systematic and scientific analysis of individuals, groups, and organizations

343
Q

How is a profession different than an occupation?

A

Professions are deliberately granted autonomy, including the exclusive right to determine who can do the work and how it should be done

344
Q

Organizational structure

A
  1. Differentiation
  2. Formalization
  3. Centralization
  4. Division of labor
  5. Unity of command
  6. Span of control
  7. Departmentalization
345
Q

Differentiation

A

The degree to which units in an org are dissimilar

346
Q

What is the other name for differentiation?

A

Complexity

347
Q

How can differentiation occur?

A

Horizontally
Vertically
Spatially

348
Q

Narrow horizontal differentiation

A

Units are very SIMILAR to each other

SMALL numbers of units

349
Q

Wide horizontal differentiation

A

Units are very DIFFERENT from each other
LARGE numbers of units

350
Q

What can horizontal differentiation be based on?

A

Types of education, profession, and background of individuals

Types of goos and services provided

Types of business in the organization

351
Q

Example of horizontal differentiation

A

Multi-ownership of a variety of related industries

Health system w/ other types of facilities

352
Q

How is vertical differentiation classified?

A

Based on the depth of the organizational hierarchy

353
Q

How is vertical differentiation usually expressed?

A

In an organizational chart

354
Q

What are the 3 aspects of vertical differentiation?

A

Chain of command
Authority
Responsibility

355
Q

Chain of command

A

Pathways up and down an org chart — who reports to who

356
Q

Authority

A

Rights given to a certain position based on position in org chart

357
Q

If someone has authority, what can they do?

A

Give orders and expect that they can be carried

358
Q

Responsibility

A

Making sure that work is actually completed

359
Q

Responsibility requires ____

A

Authority

360
Q

Line positions in vertical differentiation

A

Positions commented by a solid line in an org chart

361
Q

What do line positions represent in vertical differentiation?

A

Direct reporting relationships important to the overall objectives of an organization

362
Q

Staff positions in vertical distribution

A

Positions connected by a dashed line in an org chart

363
Q

What are staff positions?

A

Positions that advise, supplement, and support “line” positions

364
Q

Spatial differentiation

A

Degree to which an organization’s units are spread out geographically

365
Q

Formalization

A

The degree to which jobs are standardized in an org

366
Q

Centralization

A

The degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in an org

367
Q

What is a potential problem of HIGH centralization?

A

Micromanagement

368
Q

What is a potential problem of low centralization?

A

Giving staff level employees added responsibility for goal achievement without the authority over others needed to accomplish the goals

369
Q

Division of level

A

The degree of work tasks are divided into specific parts

The degree to which specific personnel perform only specific work tasks

370
Q

What is the positive consequence of division of labor?

A

Perhaps more efficient

371
Q

What is the negative consequence of division of labor

A

Too narrow job focus and decreased job satisfaction

372
Q

Why does the unity of command principle exist?

A

Individuals should report to one (and only one) supervisor

373
Q

Span of control

A

The number of people a manager can effectively supervise

374
Q

Factors impacting span of control

A

Skill level of staff employees — need for training

Skill level of manager

Need for communication between administrator and staff

Geographic location

375
Q

Departmentalization

A

Grouping individuals to perform specific tasks

376
Q

Informal organization

A

Means of communicating and influence outside the formal organizational structure

377
Q

Job satisfaction

A

Emotional response or the comparison between our expectations and perceived reality of the position

378
Q

Organizational commitment

A

Emotional attachment

Accepting the organization’s goals and values

Putting forth efforts and wanting to maintain membership

379
Q

Job stress

A

Comes in the form of:
- role ambiguity
- role overload w/ dissatisfaction associated w/ job stress

380
Q

Job turnover

A

Cost of filling new positions w/ losing experienced individuals

How to maintain employees

Understanding the push away from a current position to a possible pull from another position

381
Q

Well-being

A

The overall physical, social, spiritual, financial, and other mindset of the individual

How to maintain employee well-being in the workplace

382
Q

Emotions

A

Intense feelings
Emotional labor
Emotional intelligence

383
Q

Trait theories

A

Focused on identifying personality traits that could distinguish leaders from non-leaders

384
Q

What are the 3 basic leadership styles in behavioral theory?

A

Autocratic
Democratic
Laissez-faire

385
Q

3 basic dimensions in situational or contingency based theory

A

Task & relationship orientation
Behavior
Follower readiness

386
Q

Leader-member exchange theory

A

Leaders establish special relationships w/ a small group of followers early on in the tenure of the leader

387
Q

What are the 4 key functions of managers?

A

Planning
Organizing
Leading
Controlling

388
Q

Strategic plan

A

A statement of the method for achieving an organization’s goals

389
Q

SWOT analysis

A

a method of analyzing the business to identify its strengths, opportunities, weaknesses, and the threats

390
Q

Where is SWOT analysis used?

A

Market planning

391
Q

Vision statement

A

An articulation of future goals or desired long term achievements

A description of the organization’s desired future direction

392
Q

Strategic positioning

A

Performing different activities from competitors or performing similar activities in different ways

393
Q

Objectives

A

Broad statements of direction that are externally focused

394
Q

Strategic planning purpose

A

Ensure that the org is doing the right things now and in the future

395
Q

Strategic planning process

A
  1. Strategic goals
  2. Determining policies and programs to achieve set goals
  3. Ensure policies and procedures are implemented
  4. Increases likelihood of survival in the future
396
Q

Planning process

A
  • Planning phase
  • Strategizing
  • Post planning phase
  • Communicating the plan
  • Implementing the plan
  • Monitoring the progress and assessing results
397
Q

Steps in the planning process

A
  1. Define or orient the planning to a singular purpose/desired result
  2. Assess the current situation
  3. Establish goals
  4. Identify strategies to reach those goals
  5. Establish objectives that support progress toward the goals
  6. Define responsibilities and timelines for each objective
  7. Write and communicate the plan
  8. Monitor progress toward meeting goals and objectives
398
Q

What is the purpose of strategic planning?

A

To ensure that the org is doing the right thing

Address what business the org is in or ought to be

Provide a framework for more detailed planning and day to day decisions

399
Q

Characteristics of strategic planning

A

Long term (5-20 years)

Includes all aspects of the org

External viewpoint (how the org interacts w/ or controls its environments)

400
Q

Purpose of operational planning

A

Ensure that the org is prepared

Ensure the org performs the immediate tasks and objectives to meet the goals and strategy of the org

Ensure that the org is doing the right thing

401
Q

Characteristics of operational planning

A

Short term (1-5 years)

Scope is specific to the immediate actions that need to be taken to move the org forward

Viewpoint is internal (day to day accomplishment of tasks)

402
Q

What is the purpose of business planning?

A

to determine feasibility of a specific business or program

make a decision about investing in and moving forward w/ a program

403
Q

Characteristics of business planning

A

short term (1-5 years)

can be used to make decisions to:
- start a new business
- expand a business
- terminate a business

404
Q

what is the purpose of resource planning?

A

ensure that the resources necessary to achieve goals and strategy of the organizations

comprehensive or focuses on a specific type of resource

405
Q

characteristics of resource planning

A

mid term (1-10 years)

scope is specific to the resource or resources defined in the plan

viewpoints are internal (the resource of the organization)

406
Q

what is the purpose of organizational planning?

A

ensure that an organization is organized appropriately to meet the challenges of the future

407
Q

What are the key elements of organizational planning?

A

Reporting relationships
Definition of responsibilities
Definition of authorities

408
Q

characteristics of organizational planning

A

mid term (1-10 years)

scope specific to the structural aspects of the organization including:
- division
- reporting relationships
- coordination
- control

viewpoint is internal (how the company organizes itself)

409
Q

what is the purpose of the contingency planning?

A

to provide feedback option or direction

if the original strategy of the organization fails or something unexpected occurred

410
Q

when would contingency planning occur?

A

for a specific anticipated situation

411
Q

what are the most common anticipated situations in contingency planning?

A

business related crisis (ex. labor strike)

changes in management personnel

412
Q

characteristics of contingency planning

A

short-long term (1-20 years)

scope is specific to the particular situation that may occur

viewpoint is both external and internal

413
Q

When would contingency planning occur?

A

For a specific anticipated situation

414
Q

What is the purpose of the emergency planning?

A

To address the emergencies that may be expected in the workplace

415
Q

Characteristics of emergency planning

A

Mid term (1-10 years)

Scope specific to the particular situation that may occur

Viewpoint is both external and internal

416
Q

Barriers to effective planning

A
  1. Failure to commit sufficient time to the planning effort
  2. Interpersonal issues such as struggles over power or politics and individual/group resistance to change
  3. Lack of planning skills
  4. Failure to plan far enough into the future
  5. Constantly changing environment
  6. Failure to implement owing to lack of time or lack of resources
  7. Failure to monitor progress
  8. Lack of support of top executive/board of directors
417
Q

Business plan

A

Formal document that contains background info about the intended opportunity and key participating members

418
Q

A business plan ____ and ____ supporting info concerning attaining goals

A

Describes and details

419
Q

Line of credit

A

A loan issued to a business that is usually used to satisfy cash flow problems at various times of the year

420
Q

Profit and loss statement

A

Defined by a period of time and provides a listing of revenues and expenses for the business unit

421
Q

Break-even point

A

The volume of activity where expenses are equal to benefits

422
Q

Target market

A

The specific individuals/groups within the market that are most likely to be potential customers for the goods or services of the business

422
Q

Where are mission statements found?

A

In a business plan or corporate documents/websites

423
Q

Return on investments

A

Net income (or loss) divided by the amount invested

424
Q

Limited liability corporation

A

Type of company the is a hybrid and provides the protected liability of a corporation, and yet the tax efficiencies and operational flexibility of a partnership

425
Q

Variable cost

A

Costs that change as activity level changes

425
Q

Payback time

A

The period to reach the break-even point

The time it takes for income to equal or exceed the initial investment and ongoing expenses in a program

426
Q

Fixed cost

A

An expenditure or expense that does not vary w/ the volume of activity, at least in the short term

427
Q

Competitive advantage

A

The aspects of a business that give it an edge over the competition

427
Q

Junior partnership

A

Equity is earned by the buyer over a period of time

427
Q

Positioning

A

The act of designing the company’s offering and image to occupy a distinct place in the mind of a target market

427
Q

Market

A

The population of consumers for which the service/product is applicable

428
Q

Competitor

A

A business competing for the same market dollars/customer base

429
Q

How can markets be classified?

A

Geographically
By specific characteristics
Combo of factors

430
Q

Market analysis

A

The part of a business plan that contains:
- the industry outlook
- info about target market
- potential market
- regulatory concerns
- other info

431
Q

Executive summary

A

The part of the business plan that is placed first

432
Q

(T/F): the executive summary is the most important section and is 1-2 pages in length

A

True

433
Q

What is the executive summary compared to in a medical journal

A

The abstract

434
Q

Expense

A

A past or current expenditure

434
Q

Payer

A

Individuals/entities that pay for services

In healthcare, payers are typically:
- 3rd party insurance
- manages care orgs
- government

435
Q

Financial statements

A

Document that provides info about financial status, including:
- balance sheet
- income statement
- statement of owner’s equity
- statement of cash flows

436
Q

Who can be stakeholders

A

The public
Stockholders
Employees
Board members

437
Q

Stakeholders

A

Anyone w/ an interest in a company, service, or product

438
Q

Market share

A

% of share of the market that the business serves or desired to serve

438
Q

Market segment

A

A subgroup of the total market

A group of customers/potential customers whose members have a common characteristic related to how and why they might use the good/service

439
Q

Forecasting

A

Estimating/projecting costs, revenues, or both

Estimating the trends in the economy/any other variable

440
Q

Components of a business plan

A
  • Cover page and title
  • Brief personalized letter to reader
  • Table of contents
  • Executive summary
  • Description of company/SVC/background
  • Marketing and sales plan
  • Operation and management plan
  • Funding request
  • Financial projections (3-5 years)
  • Appendices
441
Q

Business profile

A

Define and describe intended business and explain how you plan to achieve goals

442
Q

What should be included in a business profile?

A

Timelines to accomplish tasks and review the plan

Mission and vision statements

443
Q

Marketing analysis and plans

A

Provide an overview/analysis of the target market

Including identification of competitors and strategies for marketing and expending the business

444
Q

What should a marketing analysis and plan include?

A

SWOT analysis

445
Q

Operations and management

A

Describe the intended organizational structure and operations, including:
- assigned responsibilities and tasks
- workflow
- required resources and expenses

446
Q

What should you address in the operations and management section of a business plan?

A

Staffing/personnel plans

How prior experiences of you & your staff are applicable to the business

Any personnel gaps/needs

447
Q

Financials/economic assessment

A

Provide a complete assessment of the economic environment in which your business will operate

448
Q

What should a financial/economic assessment include?

A

A one year cash flow assessment that incorporates your capital requirements

Your assessment of what could go wrong and how you plan to handle problems

449
Q

Summary/conclusion

A

Highlights the critical points of the proposal

450
Q

How long should the summary/conclusions section of a business plan be?

A

Less than one page

451
Q

Appendices

A

Includes supporting documents and other materials that can support the proposal

452
Q

Considerations for selecting a location to open a pharmacy or other service

A

Access
Location
Zoning
Population
Visibility
Costs

453
Q

What are the 5 Cs of credit?

A

Character
Capacity
Capital
Collateral
Conditions

453
Q

Sources of funding

A
  • SBA loans
  • Angel investors and venture capitalists
  • Credit cards
  • Bank loans
  • Home equity loans
454
Q

Return on investments (ROI)

A

A performance measure used to evaluate the efficiency of an investment

455
Q

How do you calculate ROI?

A

The benefit (return) of an investment divided by cost of investment

456
Q

How are results of ROI usually expressed?

A

% or ratio

457
Q

ROI equation

A

(Gain from investment - cost of investment) / cost of investment

458
Q

Quid pro quo sexual harassment

A

According to the EEOC, this occurs when a job benefit is directly tied to an employee submitted to unwanted sexual advances

459
Q

How are submissions to the quid pro quo sexual harassment conduct made?

A

Either explicitly or implicitly as a term of the individual’s emploement via a position of power

460
Q

Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990 (OBRA 90)

A

Established pt counseling standards

Requires an offer to counsel be made to a pt on a prescribed med and maintenance of a pt’s profile

460
Q

What did OBRA 90 establish?

A

DUR programs

460
Q

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

A

Federal agency within the US dept of health and human services

Administers the medicARE program

Works in partnership w/ individual state governments to administer medicAID program

State’s children’s health insurance program

HIPAA standards

461
Q

Just cause

A

Legally acceptable/sufficient reasons a pharmacy manager can take employment such as:
- dismissal
- suspension (with or without pay)
- other disciplinary action
Based on an employee’s conduct at work

462
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

A

Established the privacy and security rules for covered entities such as:
- healthcare providers
- healthcare clearing houses
- health plans

463
Q

What did HIPAA establish?

A

The concept of PHI

464
Q

Protected health information (PHI)

A

Any info concerning the past/present/future physical or mental health of an individual

465
Q

When was HIPAA enacted?

A

1996

466
Q

Why was HIPAA enacted?

A

To improve access to healthcare through increased portability and continuity of health insurance

Specifically allowing workers to retain healthcare coverage when the changed or lost a job

467
Q

Reasonable accommodations

A

A modification of a job for someone w/ a disability to allow an otherwise qualified person to perform the job

468
Q

Covered entity

A

A person/org that provides healthcare or possesses healthcare records

469
Q

Minimum necessary (HIPAA)

A

Covered entity must make a reasonable effort to limit the exposure of PHI to the minimum necessary to accomplish the intended purpose of the use, disclosure, or request

470
Q

Privacy rule requires health plans/providers to develop/distribute a privacy note w/ the following:

A

How the covered entity may use/disclose PHI about an individual

The individual’s rights concerning the information and how the individual may exercise these rights

The covered entity’s legal duties w/ respect to the info

Who individuals can contact for further info about the covered entity’s privacy policies

470
Q

Expectations to the minimum necessary principle include disclosures

A

To healthcare providers for treatment purposes

To the individual who is the subject of the info

Made w/ the individuals permission

Required to comply w/ laws

471
Q

Permitted disclosures under HIPAA: 12 national priority purposes

A
  1. Required by law
  2. Public health activities
  3. Victims of abuse, neglect, or domestic violence
  4. Health oversight activities
  5. Judicial and administrative proceedings
  6. Law enforcement purposes
  7. Cadaveric eye, organ, or tissue donation
  8. Research
  9. Serious threat to health or safety
  10. Essential government functions
  11. Workers’s comp
471
Q

(T/F): the privacy rule does not require that every risk of an incidental use or disclosure of PHI be eliminated

A

True

472
Q

Incidental disclosures

A

Use/disclosure of PHI that occurs as a result of an otherwise permitted use/disclosure

473
Q

Non-routine disclosures

A

Any other type of disclosure to anyone without a direct treatment relationship that involves communication of PHI for any reason other than permitted and incidental

474
Q

What must be obtained for any non-routine disclosure?

A

A release form documenting permission of the pt

475
Q

A pt can request a listing of any non-routing disclosures for ___ years after an occurrence

A

6

476
Q

Who updated HIPAA rules?

A

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act that is part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009

477
Q

What are the updated HIPAA rules

A

Established a tiered penalty scheme for HIPAA violations up to $1.5M

Covered entity is responsible for HIPAA violations, even if it claims violation was unknown, unless corrected within 30 days of discovery

Provided state attorney general w/ authority to enforce HIPAA regulations

Changed liability for business associates

Breach notification rule

Marketing/3rd party communications regarding meds

Business associate agreements

478
Q

What are the 3 categories for which the specific requirements OBRA 90 says a pharmacy/pharmacist must do in order to receive medicaid reimbursement?

A

Prospective DUR
Pt counseling
Maintenance of pt records

479
Q

Why was the rx drug marketing act of 1987 enacted?

A

Ensure the safety of effectiveness of prescription drug products purchased by consumers

Avoid the unacceptable risk of counterfeit, adulterated, misbranded, subpotent, or expired drugs being sold to the public

Prohibition of reimportation of prescription drug samples

Ban on the resale of drugs by hospitals and other entities

480
Q

Haight act

A

Governs the internet as a means of drug distribution

An amendment to the controlled substances act

Enacted into law into 2008

481
Q

What does the Haight act do?

A

Adds the statement that “no controlled substance may be delivered, distributed, or dispensed by means of the internet without a valid rx”

Further specifies that, for an rx to be valid, a pt-practitioner relationship must exist and that the practitioner must conduct at least one in person medical exam

Includes language to practice of telemedicine

Established internet VIPPS certification

482
Q

Each ___ drafts its own laws governing the practice and duties of a governing pharmacy agency

A

State

483
Q

What does the BOP generally have the authority to do?

A

License pharmacy professionals and pharmacy facilities

Impose discipline on pharmacy professionals and pharmacies

484
Q

Civil liability

A

Malpractice and professional negligence

485
Q

Administrative liability

A

Determined by governing bodies such as state BOPs

486
Q

Medication error

A

Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm while the medication is in the control of the healthcare professional, patient, or consumer

487
Q

E-prescribing

A

Rxs sent electronically from prescriber to a pharmacy to be dispensed

488
Q

What is e-prescribing an example of?

A

Pharmacy informatics

489
Q

What can barriers of e-prescribing include?

A

Lack of broad back internet connections

Lack of established network connections

Unwillingness of clinicians to participate

Limitations in a system’s ability to retrieve pt data

Lack of standards in information exchange

490
Q

Automation

A

Any technology, machine, or device linked to a control system (eg computers) to manage machinery and process

491
Q

What can appropriate application allow an org to achieve?

A

Improved operating efficiencies, safety, quality, and customer service as well as the opportunity to reduce overall costs

492
Q

How can optimal pharmacy design and layout options be developed?

A

By performing a workflow analysis

493
Q

How can a workflow analysis be defined?

A

A systematic process by which tasks being performed in a particular work environment are broken down into individual steps and evaluated for variables such as:
- accuracy
- safety
- efficiency
- customer/pt satisfaction

494
Q

Practicing pharmacy includes:

A

Evaluating & filling prescriptions/med orders

Dispensing medications

Participating in medicine/device selection & monitoring

Collaborative drug therapy management agreements

Administering medications to patients

Performing medication reviews

495
Q

What are the 5 rights of medication admin?

A

Right patient
Right drug
Right dose
Right route
Right time

496
Q

Factors that contribute to med errors

A

Wrong time
Omission
Prescribing mistake
Unauthorized drug
Improper dose
Wrong dosage form
Wrong administration/technique
Deteriorated drug

497
Q

What do highly reliable orgs deploy for medication errors?

A

Independent redundancies

498
Q

Latent error examples

A

Poor handwriting
Incomplete information
Unclear labeling
High workload

499
Q

What is the core function of the pharmaceutical supply chain?

A

To provide efficient, safe, and reliable access to pharmaceutical drugs

500
Q

Drug supply chain security act (DSCSA)

A

Sets forth requirements for trading partners regarding the tracing of rx pharmaceutical products during distribution throughout the US

501
Q

the DSCA is title ___ of the drug quality and security act

A

2

502
Q

What do the interoperable, electronic tracing systems of the DSCA allow the FDA to do?

A

Protect US consumers by readily identifying compromised prescription pharmaceutical products and remove them from the supply chain

Including those that may be counterfeit, stolen, contaminated, dangerous, or harmful

503
Q

What does the DSCSA require the wholesale distributors and 3rd party logistics providers to obtain?

A

National licensure

Report licensure status to the FDA annually

504
Q

Goal of inventory management

A

To minimize the financial amount invested in inventory and hold procurement and carrying costs at the lowest possible amounts, all while balancing supply and demand

505
Q

What are the 3 methods used to manage inventory?

A

Visual method
Periodic method
Perpetual method

506
Q

Visual method to manage inventory

A

Requires designee to look at the number of units in inventory and compare them w/ a listing of how many should be carried

507
Q

Periodic method to manage inventory

A

Requires designee to count the stock in hand at predetermined intervals and compare it with minimum desired level

508
Q

Perpetual method

A

These systems are computerized inventory management systems and are the most efficient method to manage inventory

This allows inventory to be monitored at all times

509
Q

Can C2s be ordered electronically?

A

Yes

510
Q

What must be obtained in order for a pharmacy to fill an electronically ordered CII drug?

A

A DEA controlled substance ordering system digital service that is obtained once the pharmacy is registered w/ the US DEA

511
Q

What does purchasing involve?

A

Buying the right product
In the right quantity
At the right price
At the right time

Right product is determined in the demand forecasting process

512
Q

Cost of goods sold (COGS)

A

Inventory + associated costs

513
Q

In COGS, profits may increase by as much as ____ for every ____ decrease

A

15%
1%

514
Q

Demand management

A

Methodology used to generate, revise, and improve a demand forecast of the products and services that the org will provide to customers

514
Q

Inventory management

A

Methodology used to control inventory and stock

Includes controlling inventory levels and overseeing ordering and storage inventory

515
Q

What is the objective of inventory management?

A

To meet sales and customer service levels at optimal cost

516
Q

Procurement

A

The functions of buying products and services for a specific business purpose

517
Q

Sourcing

A

The methodology used to identify and manage the right product suppliers, considering vendor capabilities, pricing, and service level

518
Q

Purchasing

A

The process used to finalize order quantities, order, and receive the products

519
Q

What are the 4 general costs associated w/ inventory

A

Acquisition
Procurement
Carrying
Stock outs (shortage costs)

520
Q

Acquisition costs

A

The price the pharmacy pays for the product

521
Q

Procurement costs

A

Costs associated w/ purchasing the product

522
Q

What are the costs that can be associated w/ purchasing products?

A

Checking inventory
Placing/receiving orders
Stocking products
Paying invoices

523
Q

Carrying costs

A

Refer to the:
- shortage
- handling
- insurance
- cost of capital
- opportunity costs

Also includes costs associated with loss due to:
- theft
- deterioration
- damage

524
Q

What costs must be balanced?

A

Procurement and carrying costs

525
Q

Stock out costs

A

Cost of not having a product on the shelf when a pt needs/wants it

526
Q

Inventory turnover ratio (ITOR)

A

Most common ratio used to determine how well a pharmacy is managing its inventory

527
Q

What can you calculate ITOR for?

A

Entire pharmacies
Departments
Individual pharmacies

528
Q

What are 2 advantages of increasing ITOR

A

Reducing investment in inventory frees capital for other business activities

Increase in return on investment in inventory

528
Q

How is ITOR expressed

A

As a ratio

528
Q

Formula for ITOR

A

COGS / [(beginning inventory value + ending inventory value) / 2]

529
Q

3 types of stock to consider

A

Cycle stock/basic stock
Butter/safety stock
Anticipatory or speculative stock

530
Q

Buffer/safety stock

A

Additional inventory that is needed in case of a supply/demand fluctuation

531
Q

Cycle stock/basic stock

A

Regular inventory that is needed to fulfill orders

532
Q

Anticipatory/speculative stock

A

Inventory that is kept on hand because of expected future demand or expected price increase

533
Q

Stock depth

A

The point where it is reasonably certain that the item will be available on demand

534
Q

What is considered in stock depth?

A

Rate of sale
Time between stock checks
Time to receive order
Safety stock

535
Q

What is the formula for reorder point?

A

[(review time + lead time) x average demand] + safety stock

536
Q

What has the reorder point formula been used to develop?

A

An EOQ model which describes the level of inventory & qty at which combined costs of purchasing and carrying inventory are at a minimum

537
Q

What does terms of sales pertain to?

A

Discounts and dating

538
Q

Discounts

A

Describe the period of time allowed as an incentive for purchasing large quantities

539
Q

Noncumulative qty discounts

A

A qty of the same product being purchased on the same order

540
Q

Cumulative qty discounts

A

Discounts involving a variety of products in separate orders over a period of time

541
Q

Cash discounts

A

Small discounts offered for the prompt payment of invoices

542
Q

Serial discounts

A

Multiple discounts applied at the same time

543
Q

2/10 net 30

A

A trade credit extended to the buyer from the seller (usually wholesaler)

544
Q

Dating

A

Both the time before the specified amount of the discount may be taken and the time at which payment becomes due

545
Q

3 types of dating

A

Prepayment
Collect on delivery
Delayed dating

546
Q

Prepayment dating

A

Payment before ordering or delivery

547
Q

Collection delivery dating

A

Where there is no time before discount may be taken and payment is due

548
Q

Delayed dating

A

Invoice is due sometime in the future

549
Q

Pharmacy buying group

A

Defined as a pharmacy organization whose purpose is to seek better drug prices for its members based on their collective buying power

550
Q

Pharmacy buying group is also called

A

GPO
Group purchasing org

551
Q

Shrinkage

A

When items are lost, stolen, or misplaced

552
Q

Reverse distributor

A

Pharmacy wholesaler focusing on processing of returns/credits

553
Q

Why can slow turns hinder a performance w/ a good GM - ROI

A

Ties up the org’s money

554
Q

What is JIT purchasing?

A

“Just in time” purchasing the last unit of an item sells, the next unit arrives before it is needed

555
Q

Economic order qty - number of units/order

A

The ideal timing for purchase occurs at the point where total costs are minimized because procurement & carrying costs are =

556
Q

Planogram

A

Merchandising blueprint that designates:
- stick levels
- product positions
- number of product facings

557
Q

What did the FDA amendment act of 2007 give the FDA new authorities and responsibilities to do?

A

To enhance drug safety including the authority to require manufacturers to develop and implement a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) for certain meds w/ serious safety concerns to ensure that the risks of the drug do not outweigh the risks

558
Q

What are REMS?

A

Safety strategy intended to manage known or potential risks associated w/ the drug product and may include several different components

559
Q

What are 3 examples of REMS programs w/ protocol impacting pharmacists (name the drugs)

A

Oxycontin
Jynarque
Palynziq

560
Q

Specialty pharmaceuticals

A

Treat chronic, complex, and rare diseases

Have a minimum of 4/7 additional characteristics related to the distribution, care, delivery, and/or cost of the med

561
Q

Actual acquisition cost

A

The price that the pharmacy pays the drug wholesaler/manufacturer to obtain the drug product

562
Q

Average acquisition cost

A

An average of the prices paid by different pharmacies for drug products

563
Q

Average acquisition cost may be determined by…

A

Pharmacy survey

564
Q

Average manufacturer price

A

The average received by a manufacturer from wholesalers for drugs distributed to the retail pharmacies

565
Q

Average wholesaler price

A

A list price for what drug wholesalers charge pharmacies

An overestimate of what the wholesaler actually charges the pharmacy

566
Q

Wholesaler acquisition cost

A

A list price for what pharmaceutical manufacturers charge drug wholesalers

An overestimate of what manufacturers actually charge wholesalers

566
Q

Maximum allowable cost

A

The max cost the 3rd party will pay for a multi source drug

Typically an average of the generic price from several manufacturers

567
Q

Impact of drug shortages on healthcare system

A

Having to constantly find alternatives to drugs delays treatment

New processes and protocols must be created each time another med shortage is announced

ED staff & 1st responders working in the field must be trained and re-trained on which drugs to use in particular cases

Overall, shortages cause inconvenience and risk for pt’s frustration for emergency care providers

Increase cost of care

568
Q

Economic impact of drug shortages

A

Staff time to resolve issues

Difference in cost of desired drug for treatment

Disease progression

Adverse outcomes

569
Q

ASHP survey respondents note that drug shortages increase the pharmacy’s bottom line by ___

A

5-20%

570
Q

What % rate of pts received alternative meds w/ subsequent inadequate treatment due to drug shortages?

A

35%

571
Q

What % of HCPs made an error when substituting an alternative drug or drug form in strength for the med in short supply?

A

27%

572
Q

What % of pts received no treatment w/ a vital med due to drug shortages?

A

27%

573
Q

What is the outcome rate of pharmacy staff making an error when trying to compound a product or drug strength that was unavailable?

A

6%

574
Q

Factors contributing to local/regional drug shortages

A

Stockouts

HCPs

Over reliance on just in time inventory management

Unanticipated emergencies

575
Q

What % of new drug shortages happen because of unknown reasons?

A

18%

575
Q

What factors contribute to national drug shortages?

A

Customs delays for imported ingredients

Discontinuation due to profit margin

Domino effect as HCPs use an alternative to a drug in short supply, causing supplies of the alternative to dwindle

Drug diversion

Limited production capacity for older sterile injectables, long lead times, and manufacturing process complexities

Low demand/unexpected increase in demand

Manufacturing problems

Off label use pursuant to social media coverage

Panic ordering once a shortage develops

Technical difficulties, quality concerns, bacterial/chemical composition

Unanticipated disruptions

Unanticipated increased use/abuse of specific meds/med classes

Unknown reasons

576
Q

What % of drug shortages happen because of quality issues?

A

62%

577
Q

What % of new drug shortages happen because of an increase in demand?

A

12%

578
Q

What % of new drug shortages happen because of natural disasters?

A

5%

579
Q

What % of new drug shortages happen because of product discontinuation?

A

3%

580
Q

FDA report of drugs most likely affected by shortages

A
  1. Antineoplastics
  2. Corticosteroids
  3. Hormones
  4. Oral liquids
  5. Prefilled syringes (crash carts)
  6. Cardioplegia solutions
  7. ICU drugs
  8. Operating room drugs
  9. ADHD meds
  10. Parenteral nutrition products
    11.Antimicrobials, injectable opioids
581
Q

FDA definition of drug product shortage

A

A situation in which the total supply of all clinically interchangeable versions of an FDA regulated drug is inadequate to meet the current or projected demand at the patient level

A period of time when the demand/projected demand for the drug within the US exceeds the supply of the drug

582
Q

ASHP and University of Utah definition of drug product shortage

A

Supply issue that affects how the pharmacy prepares/dispenses a drug product or influences pt care when prescribers must use an alternative agent

583
Q

What was a regulatory effort to curb shortages?

A

The creation of title X of the 2012 FDA Safety and Innovation Act (FDASIA)

584
Q

Title X of FDASIA

A

Requires manufacturers of drugs that are life supporting, life sustaining, or intended for use in prevention or treatment of debilitating diseases or conditions to notify the FDA if they anticipate a supply chain disruption w/ timelines

585
Q

What does title X of FDASIA require?

A

Manufacturers to notify FDA ≥ 6 months in advance if discontinuation or interruption in supply, unless it’s impossible

586
Q

What does the title X of FDASIA direct the FDA to do?

A

Specifically determine if the medication is subject to a production quota under section 306 of the the controlled substance

Make the FDA take a number of steps if they can anticipate a drug shortage, such as inspections, fast tracks, and reopen lines

587
Q

Drug supply chain

A
  1. Producers of raw materials
  2. Manufacturers
  3. Regulators
  4. Wholesalers/distributors
  5. Prime vendors
  6. Group purchasing orgs
  7. Healthcare orgs
  8. Pt
588
Q

L-O-Q framework

A

Listen
Owning 1-2 the interaction
Quit taking it personally

589
Q

What is good about the L-O-Q framework, even if it is hard to do?

A

Replace negative thoughts & emotions w/ more productive thoughts & emotions

590
Q

LATTE method

A

Listen to customer

Acknowledge the complaint

Take action by solving the problem (if possible)

Thank them

Explain why problem occurred

591
Q

The LATTE method uses _____ w/ conflict

A

Emotional intelligence

592
Q

Action steps to take when a shortage occurs

A
  1. Identification
  2. Evaluation
  3. Clinical & operational assessment
  4. Impact analysis
  5. Finalization of shortage response plan
593
Q

Identification when a shortage occurs

A

Begins cascade of actions when a drug shortage occurs or seems imminent

594
Q

Evaluation when shortage occurs

A

Examines procedure and financial implications to assess the potential impact of pt care

595
Q

Clinical assessment when shortage occurs

A

Identifies the pt population likely to be affected & therapeutic alternatives

596
Q

Operational assessment when shortage occurs

A

Provides shortage details

Estimates current drug supply on site & at alternative sources

Evaluates past use

Estimates the supply of alternative therapy

597
Q

Impact analysis when shortage occurs

A

Evaluates factors relevant to the shortage determine the potential impact on pt care and costs

598
Q

Finalization of a shortage response plan

A

Used to double check all elements of the management plan

Followed by organization wide communication

599
Q

What are the pharmacy’s responsibilities in a drug shortage

A

Create a multidisciplinary drug shortage committee that routinely meets to discuss drug shortages

Develop, review, and approve written contingency plans

Vary if shortage is local or national

Determine if treatment can be paused or discontinued

Identify alternatives or treatment options

Communicate concerns to all clinical staff

Implement medication rationing

Track & report med errors

Take action to prevent errors from occurring

Track burden associated w/ staff time and alternative options

600
Q

Is “creating a multidisciplinary drug shortage committee that routinely meets to discuss drug shortages” clinical or administrative?

A

BOTH

601
Q

How should you go about making a drug shortage committee

A

Connect w/ various key stakeholders including pharmacy buyers, clinical pharmacy managers, and/or clinical informatics

Develop a standard review process for communicating and making decisions as a group

Set up a repository for documenting decisions and discussion

602
Q

How should you go about developing, reviewing, and approving written contingency plans?

A

Plans should cover purchasing, storage, preparation, dispensing, and possible alternatives

Such plans will make future shortages easier to handle

603
Q

How should you go about verifying if the shortage is a local or national issue?

A

Check ASHP & FDA websites

Differentiate between stockouts and shortages

Work w/ colleagues in other parts of the country if the problem is local

Avoid speculation

Develop an institution specific drug shortage list and update it regularly

604
Q

How do you go about determining if treatment can be paused/discontinued?

A

Prescribers take the lead here but should involve & inform the interdisciplinary team

605
Q

How do you go about identifying alternatives/treatment options?

A

The interdisciplinary team should collaborate to identify good alternatives & consider burden to pts, potential outcomes, and cost

606
Q

Is “developing, reviewing, and approving written contingency plans” clinical or administrative?

A

BOTH

607
Q

Is “verifying shortage is a local or national issue” administrative or clinical

A

Administrative

608
Q

Is “determining if treatment can be paused or discontinued” administrative or clinical?

A

Clinical

609
Q

Is “identifying alternatives or treatment options” administrative or clinical?

A

Clinical

610
Q

How do you go about communicating concerns to all clinical staff?

A

Group emails, newsletters, and group texts

Use easy to understand language & get info as early as possible

Describe the reasons for the shortage & management methods

Develop alerts and active clinical decision support that present ordering providers w/ alternative solutions

611
Q

Is “communicating concerns to all clinical staff” admin or clinical?

A

Admin

612
Q

How do you go about implementing med rationing?

A

Create policies that will describe how rationing will be implemented and who will triage pts by greatest need

613
Q

Is “implementing med rationing” admin or clinical?

A

Admin

614
Q

How do you go about tracking & reporting med errors?

A

Share findings of med errors to an internal multidisciplinary team including:
- pharmacy
- nursing
- ordering providers

Report med errors to external agencies such as ISMP, FDA, and BOP

615
Q

How do errors occur in a drug shortage?

A

Different strength of a drug is used

Infusion rate is adjusted

Clinicians or pts are unfamiliar w/ an alternative

616
Q

Is tracking & reporting med errors admin or clinical?

A

Admin

617
Q

How do you go about taking action to prevent errors from reoccurring?

A

Educate clinicians about alternative agents’ potential adverse rxn profiles

618
Q

Is “taking action to prevent errors from reoccurring” admin or clinical?

A

BOTH

619
Q

How do you go about tracking burden associated w/ staff time & alternative options?

A

Tracking all costs associated w/ outages and include them (eg time spent dealing w/ insurers)

620
Q

Is “tracking burdens associated w/ staff time & alternative options” admin or clinical?

A

Admin