Exam 1 Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements best defines the term culture?

a) The learned patterns of behavior, beliefs, and values that can be attributed to a particular group of people
b) The classification of a group based upon certain distinctive characteristics
c) The status of belonging to a particular region by origin, birth, or naturalization
d) A group of people distinguished by genetically transmitted material

A

a) The learned patterns of behavior, beliefs, and values that can be attributed to a particular group of people

Rationale: Included among characteristics that distinguish cultural groups are manner of dress, values, artifacts, and health beliefs and practices. A group of people distinguished by genetically transmitted material describes the term race. The status of belonging to a particular region by origin, birth, or naturalization describes the term nationality. The classification of a group based upon certain distinctive characteristics describes the term ethnicity.

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1
Q

A 54-year-old woman on a fixed income has had an electrocardiogram (ECG) as part of her annual physical examination. Her physician notes an abnormal Q wave on an otherwise unremarkable ECG. What legislation supports this focus on disease prevention, health promotion, and management of chronic conditions?

a) Building a Safer Health System Act
b) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
c) Healthcare Research and Quality Improvement Bill
d) A New Health System for the 21st Century Bill

A

b) The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Rationale: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, also known as the ACA, supports access to quality, affordable health care, improved access to innovative and preventive health care programs and therapies, and expanded insurance coverage. “To Err Is Human: Building a Safer Health System” and “Crossing the Quality Chasm: A New Health System for the 21st Century” are IOM reports. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) partnered with the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) to launch the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey.

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1
Q

Which of the following would be included as a goal of case management?

a) Utilization of the nursing process
b) Prescriptive authority
c) Appropriateness of services
d) Attainment of fixed-price reimbursement

A

c) Appropriateness of services

Rationale: The goals of care management are quality, appropriateness, and timeliness of services as well as cost reduction. Case managers do not have prescriptive authority. Fixed-price reimbursement is a feature of managed care. Case managers do not use the nursing process.

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1
Q

According to Hood and Leddy (2007), which of the following are components of wellness?

a) Inability to obtain personal goals
b) Expression of disharmony
c) Feelings of well-being
d) Inability to adapt to changing situations

A

c) Feelings of well-being

Rationale: Hood and Leddy (2007) consider that wellness is a reported feeling of well-being and a feeling that “everything is together.” They also believe wellness is a person’s capacity to perform to the best of his or her ability. Wellness is also comprised of the ability to adjust and adapt to varying situations.

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1
Q

The school nurse informs the mother of a second-grade student that she found lice in her child’s hair. The mother explains to the nurse that she has another child to pick up and cannot stay to receive education related to the treatment of lice at this time. The mother reassures the nurse that she will “look up treatment options on the Internet and take care of the child.” What would be the best action of the school nurse in this situation?

a) Instruct the mother to treat the other child for lice in the same manner as the second grade child
b) Provide the mother with a list of credible Web sites related to the treatment of lice
c) Notify the social worker of suspected child neglect and make a referral to child protective services
d) Perform hand hygiene and notify the second-grade teacher to wash down the classroom

A

b) Provide the mother with a list of credible Web sites related to the treatment of lice

Rationale: Providing the mother with a list of previewed Web sites related to treating lice assist the mother to receive trustworthy, credible, and timely information related to treatment options. Although assessing and treating the other children in the home is indicated, it is more important to direct the mother to accurate information related to the treatment of lice. The nurse should perform routine hand hygiene, washing the classroom is not indicated. The presence of lice does not warrant a referral to the social worker or child protective services.

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2
Q

In which of the following situations is the nurse demonstrating the ethical principle of beneficence?

a) Providing truthful and accurate information to a patient about a procedure
b) Volunteering to provide vaccinations at the local health center
c) Ensuring adequate staffing to provide care to all patients
d) Refusing to give an ordered medication based on assessment findings

A

b) Volunteering to provide vaccinations at the local health center

Rationale: Beneficence is the duty to do good and the active promotion of benevolent acts. Fidelity refers to the duty to be faithful to one’s commitments. Veracity is the obligation to tell the truth. Nonmaleficence is the duty not to inflict, as well as to prevent and remove, harm; it is more binding than beneficence.

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2
Q

What percentage of people older than 65 years of age has one or more chronic disease?

a) 50
b) 80
c) 70
d) 60

A

b) 80

Rationale: Eighty percent of people older than 65 years of age have one or more chronic illness and many are limited in their activity

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3
Q

Which of the following nursing actions demonstrates that the nurse understands the nursing process?

a) Prioritizing patient goals, documenting all health records precisely, conducting the health history, and documenting the nursing diagnosis
b) Reviewing health record, documenting patient goals, identifying etiology of the nursing problem, and evaluating treatment outcome.
c) Assessing for allergies, administering analgesic, obtaining baseline vital signs, and documenting nursing diagnosis as acute pain
d) Obtaining vital signs, documenting nursing diagnosis as acute pain, administering analgesic, and evaluating comfort level

A

d) Obtaining vital signs, documenting nursing diagnosis as acute pain, administering analgesic, and evaluating comfort level

Rationale: Steps of the nursing process in order are: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation. Assessment is the systematic collection of data to determine the patient’s health status and any actual or potential health problems. Nursing diagnoses are actual or potential health problems that can be managed by independent nursing interventions. Planning is the development of goals and outcomes. Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions. Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

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4
Q

The nurse educator is planning a teaching session for nursing students related to treatment and management of gestational diabetes. The nurse educator arranges for a dietitian, pharmacist, and physician assistant to participate in the lesson plan. Which professional nurse competency is the nurse educator demonstrating?

a) Evidence-based practice
b) Patient-centered care
c) Interdisciplinary teamwork
d) Quality improvement measures

A

c) Interdisciplinary teamwork

Rationale: By integrating interdisciplinary core competencies into their respective curricula the nurse educator is demonstrating interdisciplinary teamwork. A case-study approach planning care around individual patient preferences is an example of patient-centered care. Conducting an evidence-based literature review related to gestational diabetes reflects evidence-based practice. Providing education related to measures/indicators or tools used to assess the level of care provided within a system of care to populations of patients with gestational diabetes exemplifies a quality improvement measure.

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4
Q

A nursing student observes the home care nurse provide education to a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF). The nurse teaches the patient how to read food labels and calculate sodium content. The nursing student recognizes that the home care nurse is aware of which of the following basic principles of patient education?

a) The home care nurse is providing hospital discharge instructions
b) The home care nurse has a physician order to teach a 2-g sodium diet
c) Patients are required to learn about their therapeutic nutritional regimen
d) Patient instruction related to self-care activities promotes patient independence

A

d) Patient instruction related to self-care activities promotes patient independence

Rationale: Teaching is a function of nursing to assist patients to alter lifestyle patterns that increase health risk. By teaching the client how to calculate sodium content of foods the nurse is facilitating independence in nutrition disease management. Patients have the right to decide whether or not to learn. Teaching is an independent function of nursing and does not require a physician’s order. Teaching related to food labels in the patient home is an appropriate environment for this client. The nurse can use actual foods from the patient’s kitchen.

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5
Q

A nurse working in the intensive care unit (ICU) refers to the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Ventilator Bundle prior to planning patient care. The nurse realizes nursing interventions outlined in the bundle will improve patients’ outcomes. Which of the following statement best describes how IHI-established nursing interventions should be included in each bundle?

a) Nursing interventions found within the IHI bundles were selected based on the ability to provide optimal time management for the nurse
b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles
c) Nurse case managers serving as patient advocates recommended nursing interventions to be included in the IHI bundles based on patient preference
d) Hospitals, physicians, and nurses worked collaboratively to design patient care activities included in IHI bundles

A

b) Best practice derived from valid and reliable research studies guided nursing interventions being added to the IHI bundles

Rationale: Bundles include evidence-based practices. Hospitals, physicians, and nurses work collaboratively to provide care directed by bundles. Nurses advocate on behalf of the patient. Effective time management is a key element in the provision of care, however; IHI-based bundles on evidence-based practice.

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6
Q

Which of the following examples of therapeutic communication techniques may occur during the planning stage and increases the patient’s perception of available options?

a) “Home health services are also available in our community if you feel an assisted living situation is uncomfortable.”
b) “You appear confused about assisted living facilities.”
c) “Let’s discuss specific concerns you have regarding assisted living facilities.”
d) “I hear you say that you are uncomfortable with the idea of going to an assisted living facility.”

A

a) “Home health services are also available in our community if you feel an assisted living situation is uncomfortable.”

Rationale: Suggesting is the presentation of alternative ideas such as home health services the patient’s consideration and increases the perception of other possible solutions relative to the problem. Clarification is asking the patient to explain what he or she means or attempting to help verbalize the patient’s vague ideas or unclear thoughts to enhance the nurse’s understanding. Focusing includes questions or statements to help the patient develop or expand an idea. Reflection directs back to the patient his feelings but does not increase the patient’s perception of available options.

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7
Q

The nurse caring for a HIV patient diagnosed with acute pneumonia demonstrates understanding of the nurse’s role in the current focus on management of chronic illness and disability in which of the following situations?

a) Reviewing the patient’s CD4 count
b) Making a referral to an HIV support group
c) Administering prescribed antibiotics
d) Teaching the patient to avoid crowds

A

d) Teaching the patient to avoid crowds

Rationale: Current focus on chronic disease conditions is focused on disease prevention. Teaching the patient to avoid crowds encourages the patient to take control of their health and reduce the risk of pneumonia exacerbations. Administering prescribed antibiotics is indicated in this situation; however, it does not promote independence in the patient. Making a referral to a HIV support group is indicated in this situation; however, the focus is on actions of the nurse not the patient. Reviewing the patient’s CD4 count is important but does not indicate the patient’s ability to control his or her health.

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7
Q

In which of the following actions is the nurse illustrating the step of the nursing process that determines if the patient understands the health teaching that is provided?

a) Setting short-term educational goals for the patient newly diagnosed with diabetes
b) Teaching injection sites to a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes
c) Watching a return demonstration of insulin administration from a newly diagnosed diabetic
d) Asking a new diabetic, “What are your questions about giving yourself an insulin injection?”

A

c) Watching a return demonstration of insulin administration from a newly diagnosed diabetic

Rationale: Evaluation includes observing the patient, asking questions, and then comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes. Observation of a return demonstration is a form of evaluation. Assessment includes determining the patient’s readiness regarding learning. Planning includes identification of teaching strategies, writing the teaching plan, and setting goals of the teaching strategies. Implementation is the step during which the teaching plan is put into action.

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8
Q

During an interview for an ambulatory clinic position, the nurse notices that family planning counseling is included in the job description. Being a devout Catholic, how should the nurse proceed with the interview?

a) Continue the interview and only provide patients with information related to abstinence
b) Continue the interview; other nurses at the center can provide family counseling
c) Excuse herself from the interview stating she is Catholic
d) Realize the ethical obligation to provide care to all faiths, and continue the interview process

A

c) Excuse herself from the interview stating she is Catholic

Rationale: One strategy a nurse can use to avoid ethical dilemmas is to inquire about the patient population of potential employers. In this situation, being Catholic and providing counseling regarding family planning create an ethical dilemma for the nurse. It is appropriate for the nurse to avoid the dilemma based on this conflict of personal values. The delegation of a specific job duty by the nurse is not appropriate in this situation. Continuing the interview indicates the nurse is willing to meet job duties as described. Avoiding ethical dilemmas in providing patient care is priority. The nurse’s strong Catholic faith may interfere with her ability to provide patients with unbiased and objective information related to family planning options.

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9
Q

The physician asks the nurse not to disclose the patient’s diagnosis of end-stage cancer with the patient until the patient’s family can be available to provide support. During the nurse’s shift, the patient asks the nurse, “What is wrong with me? Everyone is treating me like I am dying.” Which of the following replies by the nurse allows the nurse to maintain integrity while providing care for the patient?

a) “Test results indicate that you are in the end-stages of your disease process.”
b) “I will call the chaplain to talk to you about your concerns.”
c) “You are fine; I hear your family will be in town soon.”
d) “You feel like people are treating you like you are dying?”

A

d) “You feel like people are treating you like you are dying?”

Rationale: By using the therapeutic communication, technique of restating the nurse demonstrates listening and validates the patients concerns allowing the nurse to maintain integrity. Calling the chaplain defers care of the patient to the clergy. Telling patients they are fine does not provide accurate information to the patients. Lying to the patient jeopardizes the nurse’s integrity and ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient. Although information provided at the patient’s request protects the patient’s autonomy, it does not provide respect for others in this situation. Disclosure of sensitive information without compassion and caring may increase the impact and distress related to a poor diagnosis.

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10
Q

When providing discharge instructions, the nurse recognizes which of the following patients is most likely to comply with the therapeutic treatment regimen?

a) The pneumonia patient that requires 1 week of oral antibiotics
b) The newly diagnosed type 2 diabetic that requires nutritional counseling
c) The patient with a positive tuberculosis skin test requiring 9 months of isoniazid
d) The patient with kidney failure that requires hemodialysis

A

a) The pneumonia patient that requires 1 week of oral antibiotics

Rationale: Rates of adherence are generally low, especially when the regimens are complex or of long duration. One week of oral antibiotics has a higher likelihood of patient compliance. Nutritional education and compliance is long term and complex in nature; therefore, it has a high risk for noncompliance. The 9-month duration of isoniazid therapy places this in the high-risk category for noncompliance. Hemodialysis is long-term and complex in nature; therefore, it is high risk for noncompliance.

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11
Q

An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) specializing in adult-gerontology has accepted a new position in a different state. Which governing body does the APRN need to consult to verify prescriptive authority in the new state?

a) The new employers’ board of directors
b) The new states boards of nursing
c) The new states APRN Advisory Committee
d) The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)

A

b) The new states boards of nursing

Rationale: Individual states have their own distinct state boards of nursing (and sometimes state boards of medicine) regulations that govern APRN practice. Individual states do not have APRN advisory committees. The APRN Consensus Model promotes a new APRN regulatory model that addresses the essential elements of APRN licensure, accreditation, certification, and education (LACE). The NCSBN provides state boards of nursing an organization allowing them to act and counsel together on matters of common interest related to the public health, safety and welfare, including the development of licensing examinations in nursing. The board of directors guides nursing care within the rules for nursing practice established by the State Board of Nursing.

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13
Q

Consuming which of the following is a strategy to enhance health as part of health promotion?

a) A diet rich in vitamin C
b) A diet rich in vitamin A
c) A diet rich in proteins
d) A diet rich in grains

A
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13
Q

The nurse is attending a patient with chronic renal failure. The patient says that of late, he has lost his appetite and feels like everyday situations have become more stressful. He reports feeling disappointed and frustrated with his condition, and says that he has not been of any help to his family. What is the most important nursing intervention that the nurse needs to carry out at this point?

a) Offer nutritional counseling
b) Administer drug therapy to restore renal functions
c) Coordinate with resources for client support
d) Administer immunosuppressant

A

c) Coordinate with resources for client support

Rationale: Promotion of psychological comfort is one of the most important aspects of the care of the patient with chronic renal failure. Coordination of resources for client support is an appropriate nursing intervention in this situation. Nutritional counseling, involving the family in the plan of care, and providing psychosocial support to the patient are all relevant nursing interventions that form a part of the nursing management process for a patient with chronic renal failure. Nutritional counseling, administration of drug therapy to restore renal functions, and administration of immunosuppressant drugs are medical management tasks.

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14
Q

The physician orders a nasogastric (NG) tube for a young adult diagnosed with end-stage ovarian cancer suspected of having a bowel obstruction. The newly hired nurse explains the procedure and rational for NG tube placement. The patient refuses to consent to NG tube placement stating “I would rather keep vomiting than to have the tube in my nose.” Following the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics for Nurses what should the nurse do next?

a) Make a referral to Social Services related to body-image disturbance
b) Call the patient’s husband so he can consent to the procedure
c) Document the patient’s wishes and notify the physician
d) Delegate the NG tube placement to a more experienced nurse

A

c) Document the patient’s wishes and notify the physician

Rationale: The American Nurses Association Code of Ethics for Nurses directs the nurse to advocates for, and strives to, protect rights of the patient. There is no indication that this patient is not able to make informed decisions related to her care. Referral to the social worker is not an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient. The patient has the right to refuse the procedure. Experience of the nurse does not make a difference in this situation. The nurse needs to be an advocate for the patient. The patient’s husband cannot make this decision for his wife while she is competent to make decisions for herself.

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15
Q

According to Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs, which of the following is the highest level of need(s)?

a) Belongingness
b) Safety and security
c) Physiological needs
d) Self-actualization

A

d) Self-actualization

Rationale: Maslow’s hierarchy of need shows how a person moves from fulfillment of basic needs to higher level of needs. The ultimate goal is integrated human functioning and health. Self-actualization is the highest level need. Safety and security, physiological needs, and belongingness are below this level of need.

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16
Q

Which of the following is an example of a direct measurement technique for evaluation of the teaching-learning process?

a) Instruments that evaluate specific health status variables
b) Patient satisfaction surveys
c) Attitude surveys
d) Behavioral observation

A

d) Behavioral observation

Rationale: Direct measurement techniques include behavioral observation, checklists, and anecdotal notes to document the behavior. Patient satisfaction surveys, attitude surveys, and oral questioning, and instruments that evaluate specific health status variables are indirect measurements.

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17
Q

Place the following nursing actions in sequence in the nursing process.

a) Identifying learning needs and etiology
b) Identifying alterations that need to be made to the teaching plan
c) Putting the teaching plan into action
d) Establishing expected outcomes
e) Determining what the patient wants to learn

A

The steps of the teaching/nursing process are assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

Assessment in the teaching-learning process is directed toward the systematic collection of data about the person and family’s learning needs and readiness to learn.

A nursing diagnosis that relates specifically to a patient’s and family’s learning needs serves as a guide in the development of the teaching plan.

The expected outcomes, which identify the desired behavioral responses of the learner, are completed during the planning phase of the nursing process.

The implementation phase of the teaching-learning process, the patient, the family, and other members of the nursing and health care team carry out the activities outlined in the teaching plan.

The evaluation phase of the teaching-learning process is used to determine what was effective and what needs to be changed.

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18
Q

Which of the following is a traditional definition of nursing by American Nurses Association (ANA)?

a) Discussing what nurses would do for themselves if they had the necessary strength, will, or knowledge
b) Diagnosing and treating human responses to actual or potential health problems
c) Putting the patient in the best condition for nature to act upon him or her
d) Helping people to carry out activities contributing to health, recovery, or a peaceful death

A

b) Diagnosing and treating human responses to actual or potential health problems

Rationale: The ANA traditionally defined nursing as “the diagnosis and treatment of human responses to actual or potential health problems.” Florence Nightingale described the role of the nurse as putting “the patient in the best condition for nature to act upon him.” Virginia Henderson envisioned the role of a nurse as helping people (sick or healthy) to carry out the activities that contribute to their health, recovery, or a peaceful death as well as the activities that they would do for themselves if they had the necessary strength, will, or knowledge.

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20
Q

Which of the following patient statements indicates the patient’s experiential readiness to learn?

a) “Do you have a video about my disease? I don’t like to read.”
b) “Now that I am more comfortable, I am ready to learn about pain management techniques.”
c) “Can we take a minute to pray before learning about my treatment plan?”
d) “I understand that I have diabetes and will need to learn how to administer my daily insulin injections.”

A

a) “Do you have a video about my disease? I don’t like to read.”

Rationale: Experiential readiness refers to past experiences that influence a patient’s ability to learn. Emotional readiness refers to the patient’s acceptance of an existing illness or the threat of an illness and its influence on the ability to learn. Physical readiness refers to the patient’s ability to cope with physical problems and focus attention upon learning.

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20
Q

Based on the nurse’s knowledge of nonadherence to therapeutic regimens which of the following nurses needs to place extra emphasis on adherence to the treatment plan?

a) The nurse planning to teach teenagers about mononucleosis
b) The nurse planning to teach a group of children about healthy eating
c) The nurse planning to teach middle-aged adults about stress management
d) The nurse planning to teach adults age 65 about congestive heart failure (CHF) management

A

d) The nurse planning to teach adults age 65 about congestive heart failure (CHF) management

Rationale: Eighty percent of people older than 65 years of age have one or more chronic illness and many are limited in their activity. These chronic illnesses may be managed with numerous medications and complicated by periodic acute episodes, making adherence to a regimen difficult. Problems of teenagers, generally, are time limited and specific and require promoting adherence to treatment to return to health. In general, the compliance of children to a regimen depends on the compliance of their parents. Middle-aged adults, in general, have fewer health problems, thus promoting adherence to a regimen.

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22
Q

The acute care nurse practitioner planning care for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reviews treatment guidelines developed by the American Nurses’ Association (ANA). Which of the following ANA documents is the nurse accessing?

a) Social Policy Statement
b) Code of Ethics
c) Nursing’s Standards of Practice
d) Standards of Professional Performance

A

d) Standards of Professional Performance

Rationale: Reviewing and integrating evidence and research findings into practice is included in the Standards of Professional Performance. The ANA Code of Ethics establishes nursing responsibilities and care-maintaining ethical obligations. Nursing’s Standards of Practice describe basic competencies in delivering nursing care using the nursing process. The ANA Social Policy Statement defines nursing’s value and accountability to society.

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24
Q

The nursing student over hears a patient talking with the rehabilitation nurse stating, “I plan to recover to the best of my ability after having a stroke. I know I will always have some limitations; however, I will not let the limitations slow me down.” Which description of health is the patient exemplifying in this situation?

a) Hood and Leddy’s definition of health
b) The concept of health wellness-illness continuum
c) The World Health Organization’s definition of health
d) The wellness promotion strategy of risk reduction

A

b) The concept of health wellness-illness continuum

Rationale: The concept of a health-illness continuum allows for a greater range in describing a person’s health than the definition provided by the WHO. On the health–illness continuum, even people with a chronic illness or disability may attain a high level of wellness if they are successful in meeting their health potential within the limits of their chronic illness or disability. The WHO definition does not allow for any variations in the degrees of wellness and illness. Hood and Leddy discuss wellness as having four components. Risk reduction is a strategy of health promotion.

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25
Q

A certified nurse practitioner (CNP) working in the emergency department (ED) provides advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) to a patient experiencing asystole. Immediately following Intravenous (IV) access the CNP knows the first medication to be administered is epinephrine. When the patient remains in asystole the nurse knows to administer atropine. Which care planning tool is the nurse using to provide patient care?

a) Bundles
b) Care map
c) Algorithm
d) Nursing care plan

A

c) Algorithm

Rationale: Algorithms are used in acute situations to determine treatment based on patient information or response to treatment. Nursing care plans utilize the nursing process (assessment, analysis, planning, implementation, and evaluation) to direct nursing care. Care maps along with clinical guidelines, and multidisciplinary action plans (MAPs) facilitate coordination of care and education throughout hospitalization and after discharge. Bundles are set of three to five evidence-based practices used to improve patient outcomes.

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25
Q

Which of the following situations would be appropriate for ethic committee review? Select all that apply.

a) Patient refusal of a lifesaving blood transfusion related to religious preference
b) Restraining a patient, after all other viable options have been exhausted
c) Request to administer fertilization injections to an infertile couple
d) Institutional participation in gene chip technology directed at disease prevention
e) Placing a 21-year-old cystic fibrosis patient on the double lung transplant list

A

a) Patient refusal of a lifesaving blood transfusion related to religious preference, d) Institutional participation in gene chip technology directed at disease prevention, e) Placing a 21-year-old cystic fibrosis patient on the double lung transplant list

Rationale: Dilemmas that center on death and dying are prevalent in medical-surgical nursing practice. Allocation of organs to patients with an otherwise poor prognosis is an appropriate ethical issue for an ethics review committee. Advances in genetics and genetic testing provide controversial ethical dilemmas such as gene chip technology. Administering fertilization injections to infertile couples is an accepted medical intervention. The American Nurses Association (ANA) advocates for the placement of restraints “only when no other viable option is available.” The Joint Commission and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) have published standards on the use of restraints.

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27
Q

Which of the following is a formal systematic study of moral beliefs?

a) Fidelity
b) Veracity
c) Ethics
d) Morality

A

c) Ethics

Rationale: Ethics is the formal, systematic study of moral beliefs. Veracity is the obligation to tell the truth and not to lie or deceive others. Fidelity is promise keeping. Morality is the adherence to informal personal values.

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28
Q

Which of the following is at the center of the process of clinical reasoning and clinical judgment?

a) Basic problem solving
b) Research
c) Critical thinking
d) Use of opinions to evaluate situations

A

c) Critical thinking

Rationale: The center of the process of clinical reasoning and clinical judgment is critical thinking. Critical thinking goes beyond basic problem solving into a realm of inquisitive exploration. Critical thinkers validate the information presented to make sure that it is accurate (not just supposition or opinion).

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29
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the clinical nurse leader (CNL)? Select all that apply.

a) Works in the acute care setting
b) Provides nursing care in community health settings
c) Delegates task to other health care personnel
d) Oversees fragmented care delivery
e) Manages care at the point of care
f) Educated at the master’s level in nursing

A

a) Works in the acute care setting, b) Provides nursing care in community health settings, c) Delegates task to other health care personnel, e) Manages care at the point of care, f) Educated at the master’s level in nursing

Rationale: The clinical nurse leader (CNL) must have earned a minimal degree in nursing at the master’s level, can work in acute care as well as community-based settings, and provides point-of-care case management. It is within the scope of practice for the CNL to delegate tasks to health care personnel outside of nursing. The CNL is accountable for improving individual care outcomes and processes in a quality, cost-effective manner, therefore reducing the occurrence of fragmented patient care.

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31
Q

Which step of the nursing process entails analyzing data related to the patient’s health status?

a) Evaluation
b) Diagnosis
c) Assessment
d) Implementation

A

c) Assessment

Rationale: Analysis of data is included as part of the assessment. Diagnosis is the identification of patient problems. Implementation is the actualization of the plan of care through nursing interventions. Evaluation is the determination of the patient’s responses to the nursing interventions and the extent to which the outcomes have been achieved.

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32
Q

A nurse asks a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patient to breathe in slowly through the nose, taking in a normal breath. Then, she asks the patient to pucker his lips as if preparing to whistle. Finally, she asks him to exhale slowly and gently through the puckered lips. The nurse recognizes that teaching the patient pursed-lip breathing helps the patient relax and gain control of dyspnea, reducing the feelings of panic they experience. Which of the ANA tenets characteristic of all nursing practice is the nurse demonstrating? Select all that apply.

a) Interdisciplinary collaboration
b) Individualized nursing practice
c) Establishment of a professional work environment
d) Evidence-based nursing
e) Using the nursing process
f) Caring

A

Correct Response: b) Individualized nursing practice, e) Using the nursing process, f) Caring

Rationale: Teaching pursed-lip breathing to a patient with COPD is individualized based on the patient’s diagnosis. The nurse demonstrates caring by providing education to support desired patient outcomes. The nurse uses the nursing process of assessment and analysis to determine the need to teach the client pursed-lip breathing. The nurse’s actions do not indicate work place environment changes or interdisciplinary collaboration. Evidence-based nursing is not an ANA tenet characteristic of all nursing practice.

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33
Q

A 75-year-old woman had surgery for her hip fracture yesterday. She is under stress due to pain, sleep deprivation, and hospital surroundings. The nurse caring for her implements a proactive approach to pain management. Plans include frequent communication to establish an acceptable pain rating, conducting hourly pain assessments, and hourly evaluation of the patient’s pain control. In addition to improved patient outcomes, how else might the hospital benefit from the nurse’s actions?

a) Continued accreditation from The Joint Commission
b) Additional funding from the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI)
c) Improved Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN) survey scores
d) Improved Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey scores

A

d) Improved Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey scores

Rationale: HCAHPS survey measure patients’ satisfaction with the quality of the nursing care they receive, including their satisfaction with their communication with the nurses, the responsiveness of the hospital staff, the quietness of the environment, their pain management, communication about their medications, and their discharge information. Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) is a nonprofit organization whose mission is adapted from the IOM’s six aims for improvement. IHI is not a funding source for hospitals. Accreditation from The Joint Commission has a larger scope outside of pain management measures. QSEN prepares future nurses with the knowledge, skills, and attitudes (KSA) required to continuously improving the quality and safety of the health care system.

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34
Q

A patient with HIV is visiting the health care center for a regular checkup. His symptoms indicate multiorgan infections and he reports extreme weakness and says that he is depressed most of the time, as his friends and colleagues has distanced themselves from him. Which are the primary areas of concern for the nurse attending the patient? Select all that apply.

a) Instruct the patient to take frequent rest periods.
b) Refer patient to seek psychosocial counseling.
c) Provide patient education related to multiorgan infections.
d) Diagnose opportunistic infections.
e) Prescribe medications based on viral load.

A

a) Instruct the patient to take frequent rest periods., b) Refer patient to seek psychosocial counseling., c) Provide patient education related to multiorgan infections.

Rationale: Independent HIV nursing management involves managing the patient’s psychosocial and educational needs. Diagnosis of opportunistic infections and medication prescription based on viral load are areas of interdependent concerns in disease management.

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35
Q

A patient and his wife are in his hospital room. The wife says to the nurse, “I looked up one of the new drugs he is taking on the Internet, gabapentin. It said it is for seizures. My husband has never had a seizure.” A therapeutic response by the nurse would be which of the following?

a) “Why are you asking? Your husband’s physician has probably told him the reason.”
b) “I will get you a current drug handbook; you can look it up.”
c) “I cannot discuss the drugs which the physician has ordered. You need to call her to ask that question.”
d) “Gabapentin or Neurontin can also be used for leg pain associated with diabetes.”

A

d) “Gabapentin or Neurontin can also be used for leg pain associated with diabetes.”

Rationale: The therapeutic response for the nurse is to provide education related to the patient’s wife’s question. By providing education the nurse is facilitating informed decision making on part of the patient and his family. Teaching is an independent function of the nurse. It is certainly within the responsibility of the nurse to discuss the method of action of the patient’s medications with the wife. This is part of patient teaching and if the husband is aware, it is not a HIPAA violation.

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36
Q

While collecting assessment information for a patient in labor, the nurse learns that the patient’s surgical history includes an elective abortion prior to meeting her husband. The patient asks the nurse not to tell her husband about the previous abortion. Faced with the moral uncertainty, how should the nurse proceed?

a) Encourage the patient to share this information with her husband
b) Uphold the patient’s wishes, ensuring patient confidentiality
c) Do not include this information in the patient’s electronic health record
d) Consult with an experienced staff nurse on how to proceed

A

b) Uphold the patient’s wishes, ensuring patient confidentiality

Rationale: Information related to the patient’s past medical history is not significant in providing care to the patient in this situation. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) provides for the maintenance of patient confidentiality. There is no medical reason for the patient’s past medical history to be revealed at this time. The patient has the right to decide when and if her past medical history needs to be shared with her husband. Documentation of all past medical history in the electronic health record is appropriate. Consultation with a nurse not assigned to the patient violates patient confidentiality. The level of experience of the nurse is not pertinent.

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38
Q

A nurse working in an acute care setting volunteers to participate in a research study. The nurse understands that research findings add to the scientific base of nursing practice. Evidence-based practice (EBP) accomplishes which of the following? Select all that apply.

a) Decrease health care cost
b) Provides answers to ethical questions
c) Delineate the health-illness continuum
d) Improve patient outcomes
e) Establish best nursing practices
f) Validate nursing diagnosis

A

a) Decrease health care cost, d) Improve patient outcomes, e) Establish best nursing practices

Rationale: EBP are developed from valid and reliable research studies that improve patient outcomes, establish best nursing practice, and decrease health care cost through decreased readmission and shortened lengths of stay. EBP does not validate nursing diagnosis. The health-illness continuum is used to describe a person’s health status; EBP does not delineate the health-illness continuum. Information from EBP may be used to gather information to increase one’s knowledge related to ethical issues; however EBP would be only one aspect in the answering of ethical questions.

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39
Q

During a teaching session with a patient with a new walker the nurse provides frequent reinforcement to the patient to get up from a chair that has arms by holding the top of the chair arm with one hand. Once the patient is standing and stable, then she can grasp either the other side of the walker or both sides of the walker. The nurse knows that this educational strategy is most effective with which type of disability?

a) Input disability
b) Perceptual disability
c) Developmental disability
d) Output disability

A

a) Input disability

Rationale: Reinforcement is an appropriate educational strategy with clients experiencing input disabilities. It is important to allow ample time to learn and to provide reinforcement. Individuals with output disabilities benefit from review of information. Individuals with developmental disabilities benefit from repetition of simple explanations. Individuals with perceptual disabilities benefit from highlighting of significant information for easy reference.

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40
Q

An example of a behavior that facilitates health includes which of the following

a) A sedentary lifestyle
b) Recreational drug use
c) Noncompliance with a medication regimen
d) Self-monitoring for signs and symptoms of illness

A

d) Self-monitoring for signs and symptoms of illness

Rationale: Common examples of behaviors facilitating health include self-monitoring for signs and symptoms of illness, increased daily activities and exercise, and taking prescribed medications.

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41
Q

A patient recently diagnosed with pancreatic cancer asks the nurse not to share the diagnosis with her family members. After visiting the patient, the patient’s daughter approaches the nurse and states, “Mom just did not seem herself today. Are biopsy reports back and do they confirm pancreatic cancer?” What is the best response from the nurse to patient’s daughter?

a) It is unethical and illegal for me to give you the biopsy results; please ask your mother.
b) It is unethical and illegal for me to discuss your mother’s medical information with you.
c) It is unethical of me to discuss biopsy results with anyone but the patient involved.
d) It is illegal for me to discuss biopsy results with anyone but the patient involved.

A

b) It is unethical and illegal for me to discuss your mother’s medical information with you.

Rationale: Providing a firm response in explaining the need to protect patient information is one strategy to aid the nurse in ethical decision-making. The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) provides for patient confidentiality. Violations of a patient’s confidentiality could result in criminal or civil litigation. While it is unethical/illegal to discuss biopsy results with the daughter, statements by the nurse indicating biopsy results are back but cannot be shared indirectly provide the daughter with confidential information. Encouraging the daughter to ask her mother about the biopsy results indirectly provides the daughter with information that the mother knows the biopsy results.

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42
Q

Carla, a 42-year-old patient, displays symptoms that indicate a risk for developing hypertension. As the nurse, which of the following immediate measures would you recommend for her?

a) Drug therapy
b) Patient teaching
c) Routine screening and follow-up appointments

A

c) Routine screening and follow-up appointments

Rationale: Because Carla is at a risk for developing hypertension, routine screening is important for early detection. Follow-up appointments should be made if she has an initial elevation in blood pressure reading in the physician’s office. Lifestyle modifications for clients with newly diagnosed primary hypertension are recommended. If the patient is diagnosed with hypertension, drug therapy can be administered, in addition to providing patient teaching.

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43
Q

The use of patient restraints limits which of the following ethical principles?

a) Autonomy
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
d) Trust

A

a) Autonomy

Rationale: It is important to weigh carefully the risk of limiting a person’s autonomy and increasing the risk of injury by using restraints against the risk of not using restraints.

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43
Q

Which phase of the nursing process of patient teaching ends when the strategies have been completed and when the patient’s responses to the actions have been recorded?

a) Assessment
b) Implementation
c) Evaluation
d) Planning

A

b) Implementation

Rationale:
The implementation phase ends when the teaching strategies have been completed and when the patient’s responses to the actions have been recorded. Assessment in the teaching-learning process is directed toward the systematic collection of data about the person’s learning needs and readiness to learn, as well as the family’s learning needs. Planning has to do with specifying the expected outcomes and assigning priorities to the diagnoses. Evaluation determines how effectively the patient has responded to teaching and to what extent the goals have been achieved.

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45
Q

Which of the following would be an intellectual skill used in critical thinking by nurses?

a) Supporting evidence with facts
b) Priority setting with broad time constraints
c) Determining nurse-specific outcomes
d) Utilizing bias to achieve goals

A

a) Supporting evidence with facts

Rationale: Intellectual skills used in critical thinking include supporting evidence with facts, priority setting with timely decision making, and determination of patient-specific outcomes. Bias is not used to achieve goals.

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46
Q

Which of the following statements when made by the patient indicates understanding of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, recommendation for prostate screening frequency?

a) “I will make plans to see you every 6 months to keep an eye on my PSA levels.”
b) “I will schedule my prostate exam every 3–5 years after I am 50.”
c) “When I turn 50 I will need to have my PSA level checked every 5 years.”
d) “I will see you next year for my prostate exam.”

A

d) “I will see you next year for my prostate exam.”

Rationale: Prostate examinations should be done yearly. PSA levels are assessed every 1–2 years after age 50. Colonoscopy examinations are every 3–5 years

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47
Q

A nurse working in the emergency department (ED) reviews arterial blood gas (ABG) values for a patient diagnosed with heatstroke. Blood gas values are pH 7.48, pCO2 34, pO2 95, CO2 23, HCO2 22, and SO2 98%. Which of the following nursing interventions demonstrate the nurse’s understanding of the patient’s ABG’s and knowledge of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs when providing care for this patient?

a) The nurse completes a spiritual assessment and provides appropriate clergy support for the patient
b) The nurse immediately starts an intravenous line (IV) of dextrose 50% in a water solution (D50W)
c) Lab values are within normal limits and contacts the patient’s family to be with the patient while in the ED
d) The nurse prepares for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation for the patient

A

d) The nurse prepares for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation for the patient

Rationale: This patient is experiencing respiratory alkalosis related to heatstroke. The pH level is elevated in hyperventilation; the patient’s hyperventilation will “blow off” more CO2, leading to lower pCO2 levels. Decreased pCO2 is caused by hyperventilation. Decreased CO2 levels are seen in renal failure. Renal failure is a sign of heatstroke. With rapid breathing SO2 can be increased with deep or rapid breathing. Acute airway management is indicated to improve tissue oxygenation. Airway support meets the patient’s physiologic need for a clear airway. Spiritual support is a higher level (self-actualization) on Maslow’s hierarchy. Providing IV management for circulatory support is a basic physiologic need; however, airway management is priority.

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47
Q

Which of the following is an important function of accurate and thorough documentation?

a) Making judgment based on evidence
b) Involving purposeful and outcome-directed thinking
c) Providing a foundation for evaluation and quality improvement
d) Requiring knowledge, skill, and experience

A

c) Providing a foundation for evaluation and quality improvement

Rationale: Accurate and thorough documentation shows trends and patterns in patient status and provides a foundation for evaluation and quality improvement. In nursing, critical thinking makes judgment based on evidence. The nursing process requires knowledge, skill, and experience and involves purposeful and outcome-directed thinking.

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49
Q

The termination stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change occurs when which of the following happens?

a) The person has the ability to resist relapsing back to unhealthy behavior
b) The person is not thinking about making a change
c) The person constructs a plan to change behavior
d) The person takes steps to operationalize the plan of action

A

a) The person has the ability to resist relapsing back to unhealthy behavior

Rationale: The termination stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change occurs when a person has the ability to resist relapsing back to unhealthy behavior. Operationalizing a plan of action, constructing a plan to change behavior, and not thinking about making a change are not part of the termination stage

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50
Q

The nurse is planning a health education program for a group of high school students regarding the dangers of texting and driving. Which of the actions by the nurse illustrates the nurses understanding of health education as a primary nursing responsibility?

a) The nurse obtains the name of the school’s medical director and obtains a physician’s order to conduct the education program.
b) The nurse prepares a permission slip for all students to have signed by their parents allowing the student to participate in the educational program.
c) The nurse gathers evidenced-based information related to texting and driving and coordinates the education with the school nurse.
d) After consulting the literature and preparing the educational program, the nurse contacts the school’s medical director for approval of the planned educational program.

A

c) The nurse gathers evidenced-based information related to texting and driving and coordinates the education with the school nurse.

Rationale: Health education is an independent function of nursing practice and is included in all state nurse practice acts. Teaching, as a function of nursing, is included in all state nurse practice acts. As an independent nursing function a physician order or approval is not required. Health education is a primary responsibility of the nursing profession. Health education by the nurse focuses on: promoting, maintaining, and restoring health; preventing illness; and assisting people to adapt to the residual effects of illness. Prior parental consent is not required for education related to health/safety promotion.

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51
Q

A patient has been admitted to the health care center, diagnosed with cardiac dysfunction. The nurse notices that the patient’s ankles and feet have swollen. When the nurse uses critical thinking skills, which of the following nursing interventions does the nurse need to perform next?

a) Assess oxygen saturation level
b) Assess patient for dependent edema
c) Weigh patient daily at the same time
d) Organize activities to provide frequent rest periods

A

b) Assess patient for dependent edema

Rationale: Initial assessments of swollen ankles and feet are symptoms of dependent edema. Hence, the priority assessment method adopted by the nurse should be oriented towards gathering as much relevant information as possible related to edema. Taking the patient’s weight, organizing activities to provide frequent rest periods, and assessing oxygen saturation level are also nursing interventions to be used under appropriate circumstances.

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52
Q

Which of the following would be considered an expanded nursing role?

a) Certified nurse’s aide (CNA)
b) Respiratory therapist
c) Social worker
d) Nurse practitioner (NP)

A

d) Nurse practitioner (NP)

Rationale: The nurse practitioner (NP) is considered an expanded nursing role. Nurses who function in these roles provide direct care to patients through independent practice, in a practice within a health care agency, or by collaborating with a physician. A CNA, respiratory therapist, and social worker are not examples of an expanded nursing role.

53
Q

Which critical thinking skill involves identification of patient problems indicated by data?

a) Interpretation
b) Analysis
c) Explanation
d) Inference

A

b) Analysis

Rationale: Analysis is used to identify patient problems indicated by data. Interpretation is used to determine the significance of data that is gathered. Inference is used by the nurse to draw conclusions. Explanation is the justification of actions or interventions used to address patient problems and to help a patient move toward desired outcomes

54
Q

When a person who has successfully completed a smoking cessation program removes ashtrays from their home and takes a short walk after work instead of joining the usual group of co-workers at the local hangout which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change is the patient portraying?

a) Action
b) Maintenance
c) Contemplative
d) Termination

A

b) Maintenance

Rationale: A person is in the maintenance stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change when there is work to prevent relapse and to sustain the gains made from the actions taken. Removing the ashtrays and not keeping the usual after work routine assist the patient to maintain gains made from the smoking cessation program.

55
Q

Which of the following is an important role for a nurse in the health care delivery system?

a) Participation in treatment decisions regarding health restoration
b) Participation in the diagnosis and treatment of the disease
c) Balance of work with leisure activities
d) Participation in disease prevention and health promotion activities

A

d) Participation in disease prevention and health promotion activities

Rationale: Nurses work in various settings, such as adhering to facility policies and state nurse practice acts. A nurse participates in disease prevention and health promotion activities for patients, family members, and communities. In the health care delivery system, balancing work with leisure activities is not the function of a nurse. A nurse does not participate in the diagnosis and treatment of a disease. A nurse also does not participate in treatment decisions regarding health restoration.

56
Q

A patient has been reporting regularly to the healthcare unit to get his blood pressure monitored. The physician diagnoses him with essential hypertension after analyzing his readings over two or more sessions. As the nurse, which of the following options would you inform the patient about on priority? Select all that apply.

a) Educate him about the correct position to measure blood pressure, as the position may affect readings.
b) Inform him about the various methods that are available to assist with smoking cessation.
c) Ask him to follow a diet that is low in saturated fats and sodium and high in fiber.
d) Advise him to begin an exercise regimen based on the approval of the physician.
e) Advise him to purchase a self-monitoring cuff, or use an automatic cuff at a local pharmacy.

A

b) Inform him about the various methods that are available to assist with smoking cessation., c) Ask him to follow a diet that is low in saturated fats and sodium and high in fiber., d) Advise him to begin an exercise regimen based on the approval of the physician.

Rationale: Nurses play a vital role in the management of patients with hypertension. The nurse is an educator and provides the essential tools for the patient to manage hypertension to prevent complications. First and foremost, information must be provided to the patient about the importance of lifestyle changes, such as smoking cessation, exercise, diet, stress reduction, and alcohol moderation. Information about the importance and technique of blood pressure monitoring is important but takes place after the nurse informs the patient about lifestyle changes.

57
Q

Which communication technique is helpful in health teaching about relevant aspects of a patient’s well-being and self-care?

a) Reflection
b) Silence
c) Humor
d) Informing

A

d) Informing

Rationale: Informing is helpful in health teaching or patient education about relevant aspects of the patient’s well-being and self-care. Silence involves periods of no verbal communication among participants for therapeutic reasons. Reflection validates the nurse’s understanding of what the patient is saying and signifies empathy, interest, and respect for the patient. Humor promotes insight by bringing repressed material to consciousness, resolving paradoxes, tempering aggression, and revealing new options.

58
Q

A student nurse observes a nurse case manager coordinating discharge for a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which of the following statements made by the patient indicates to the student that the patient understands the role of case manager?

a) “The nurse case manager organized my daily nursing care during my hospitalization and arranged for the dietitian to teach me the importance of following a diet low in sodium.”
b) “The nurse case manager contacted my insurance company and has arranged for the home health nurse and physical therapist to visit me as soon as I get home.”
c) “The nurse case manager worked with my physician to coordinate my admission from his office to the hospital.”
d) “The nurse case manager arranged to have a wheelchair waiting to take me to my room. I was so short of breath I could not walk very far.”

A

b) “The nurse case manager contacted my insurance company and has arranged for the home health nurse and physical therapist to visit me as soon as I get home.”

Rationale: Coordination of care between nurses, other health care personnel, and insurance companies are roles of the nurse case manager. Nurse case managers coordinate patient care from the time of hospital admission to the time of discharge and often following discharge from an acute care setting. Care coordination provided by the nurse care manager is not episodic.

59
Q

The nurse needs to perform an admission assessment on a patient that does not speak the same language as the nurse. The patient’s wife is fluent in both the language of the nurse and the patient. When completing the physical assessment is critical in planning patient care, how should the nurse proceed?

a) Plan nursing care on the objective physical findings from the admission assessment
b) Complete the admission assessment, provide patient privacy, and document the language barrier
c) Ask the patient’s wife to assist with interpretation during the admission assessment
d) Obtain a translator to assist with interpretation during admission assessment

A

d) Obtain a translator to assist with interpretation during admission assessment

Rationale: Translation services should be provided for non-English-speaking patients. Asking the patient’s wife violates the patient’s confidentiality. Physical findings alone are not sufficient; the nurse must understand the patient’s interpretation of the physical findings to provide culturally competent nursing care. Completion of the admission assessment in privacy and documenting the language barrier does not address the need for interpretation of the patient’s history, perception, and description of assessment findings.

61
Q

A patient has been admitted in the emergency care unit with conditions of respiratory distress, coupled with pneumonia. The patient’s condition worsens and he is placed on mechanical ventilation. While visiting this patient in the hospital, his family observes the members of the healthcare team washing their hands when entering and leaving the room. By implementing recommended hand hygiene measures which of the following organizations is the healthcare team supporting?

a) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ)
b) The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
c) Institute of Medicine (IOM)
d) The Joint Commission

A

d) The Joint Commission

Rationale: One of The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs) prioritizes the reduction of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). The NCSBN priorities focus on matters related to the public health, safety, and welfare, including the development of licensing examinations in nursing. IOM emphasis relates to assuring that patient care is safe, effective, patient centered, timely, efficient, and equitable. The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) highlights patients’ satisfaction with care.

62
Q

Evelyn, a 27-year-old stockbroker, is a regular smoker and is diabetic. She has been diagnosed with hypertension. She says she finds it cumbersome and time consuming to visit the doctor regularly just to check her blood pressure. As the nurse, which of the following aspects of patient teaching would you recommend?

a) Discussing methods for stress reduction
b) Advising smoking cessation
c) Purchasing a self-monitoring cuff
d) Administering glycemic control

A

c) Purchasing a self-monitoring cuff

Rationale: Because this patient finds it time consuming to visit the doctor just for a blood pressure reading, as the nurse, you can suggest the use of an automatic cuff at a local pharmacy, or purchasing a self-monitoring cuff. Discussing methods for stress reduction, advising a smoking cessation and administering glycemic control would constitute patient education in managing hypertension.

64
Q

Which ethics theory focuses on ends or consequences of actions?

a) Deontological theory
b) Formalist theory
c) Utilitarian theory
d) Adaptation theory

A

c) Utilitarian theory

Rationale: Utilitarian theory is based on the concept of the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Formalist theory argues that moral standards exist independently of the ends or consequences. Deontological theory argues that moral standards exist independently of the ends or consequences. Adaptation theory is not an ethics theory.

65
Q

The nurse is preparing to organize a community prescription drop-off program. Anticipating the need for increased security, the nurse alerts the local police to drop-off locations and schedule. Which critical thinking traits from Alfaro-LeFevre (2009) is the nurse demonstrating?

a) Proactiveness
b) Open-mindedness
c) Fair-mindedness
d) Flexibility

A

a) Proactiveness

Rationale: Alfaro-LeFevre (2009) idntified critical thinkers as individuals with the following characteristics: active thinker, fair-minded, open-minded, persistent, empathic, flexible, good communicators, honest, organized, and proactive, insightful, and independent in thought. By planning ahead for the need for increased security related to the prescription drug drop-off, the nurse is being proactive.

66
Q

Which of the following would be incorporated as a teaching strategy for a hearing-impaired person?

a) Use large-print materials
b) Use slow, directed, and deliberate speech
c) Have the person perform a return demonstration
d) Arrange materials in a clockwise pattern

A

b) Use slow, directed, and deliberate speech

Rationale:
When teaching persons with a hearing impairment, the nurse should use slow, directed, and deliberate speech. Use of large-print materials, arrangement of materials in a clockwise position would be used for persons with a visual impairment. Demonstrating information and having the person perform a return demonstration would be appropriate for a person with a developmental disability.

67
Q

Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem especially in the elderly population, leading to which of the following outcomes?

a) Increased cost of treatment
b) Decreased morbidity
c) Decreased chronic illness
d) Increased compliance with medical regimen

A

a) Increased cost of treatment

Rationale: Nonadherence to therapeutic regimens is a significant problem for elderly people, leading to increased morbidity, mortality, and cost of treatment. There is an increasing rate of persons with chronic illness. Elderly people may also have problems that affect adherence to therapeutic regimens, such as the side effects of medications and financial constraints

68
Q

Which phase of the nursing process encompasses the establishment of expected outcomes?

a) Evaluation
b) Planning
c) Assessment
d) Implementation

A

b) Planning

Rationale: Planning encompasses specifying expected outcomes. Assessment is directed toward the systematic collection of data about the person’s learning needs and readiness to learn. In the implementation phase, the patient, the family, and the members of the nursing and health care team carry out activities outlined in the teaching plan

70
Q

Based on the nurse’s knowledge of the increased risk for bleeding in a patient undergoing chemotherapy or radiation, which of the following interventions does the nurse need to include in the patient’s plan of care? Select all that apply.

a) Instructing the patient to use an electric razor
b) Monitoring the platelet count
c) Instructing the patient to use a soft toothbrush
d) Instructing the patient to add low-dose aspirin to daily medication regimen
e) Increasing the patient’s injections for pain control
f) Monitoring for signs of abnormal bleeding

A

a) Instructing the patient to use an electric razor, b) Monitoring the platelet count, c) Instructing the patient to use a soft toothbrush, f) Monitoring for signs of abnormal bleeding

Rationale:Utilizing critical thinking skills the nurse knows to implement individualized interventions to reduce the patient’s risk of bleeding. Hence, the nurse must frequently assess platelet counts, monitor for signs of abnormal bleeding, and instruct the patient and family about ways to minimize bleeding, such as using a soft toothbrush and/or an electric razor. Medications, such as aspirin, that may interfere with clotting should be avoided and blood draws and injections should be kept to a minimum.

71
Q

Which of the follow situations would require the nurse to use critical thinking and decision-making skills in providing genetics-related nursing care?

a) Providing a single parent of a 4-year-old child education related to lead poisoning
b) Providing family counseling to a same sex couple that just adopted a 5-year-old with the attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
c) Providing fertility counseling to a young family with a 2-year-old child with cystic fibrosis
d) Providing a blended family with children of different ages education related to growth and development

A

c) Providing fertility counseling to a young family with a 2-year-old child with cystic fibrosis

Rationale: Cystic fibrosis is an autsomal recessive genetic disorder. Parents of a child diagnosed with cystic fibrosis have a 50% chance of having another child with cystic fibrosis. Once the nurse assesses the family history it is appropriate nursing action to for the nurse to make a referral for genetic testing or counseling. Although ADHD may have a genetic component, there is no genetic-related issue in this situation. Lead poisoning is not a genetic disorder. There is no indication that any of the children in the blended family have a genetic-related problem.

72
Q

A nurse with 20 years’ experience attends a hospital-required training session and learns a new method for assessing nasogastric (NG) tube placement. During the training the nurse educator provides the nurse with a bibliography of peer-reviewed articles related to NG tube placement. The nurse recognizes the change in procedure developed from which of the following methods?

a) Core measures
b) Evidence-based practice
c) Knowledge, skills, and attitude
d) Institute of Medicine (IOM) research

A

b) Evidence-based practice

Rationale: Evidence-based practices are derived from valid and reliable research studies, which also take into account the health care setting, patient preferences and values, and clinical judgment. Knowledge, skills, and attitude are key elements in the Quality and Safety Education for Nurses (QSEN). IOM reports assure that quality benchmarks are established. Core measures gauge how well hospitals provide patient care requiring a specific treatment.

73
Q

Which of the following is true regarding population demographics?

a) Decrease in homelessness
b) Decrease in life span
c) Increase in the culturally diverse population
d) Increase in birth rate

A

c) Increase in the culturally diverse population

Rationale: The population has become more culturally diverse as increasing numbers of people from different national backgrounds enter the country. The number of homeless people has significantly increased. There is a decrease in birth rates and an increase in life span.

74
Q

A nurse knows that the use of a learning contract increases motivation and increases the likelihood of patient compliance with the treatment regimen. Which of client’s goals best exemplifies a well-designed learning contract?

a) The client that wishes to begin an exercise program agrees to participate in a 10K run 6 months after starting the new exercise regimen
b) The patient who wishes to stop smoking agrees to cut back on one cigarette a day for the first week of treatment and then decrease smoking by two cigarettes the following week of treatment.
c) The weight loss client that immediately reduces caloric intake to 1000 calories a day and agrees to keep on this diet plan until a 20-pound weight loss has been achieved.
d) The patient seeking alcohol treatment agreeing to stop drinking all forms of alcohol immediately and plans to chew a stick of gum when they experience the urge to have a drink.

A

b) The patient who wishes to stop smoking agrees to cut back on one cigarette a day for the first week of treatment and then decrease smoking by two cigarettes the following week of treatment.

Rationale: A well-designed learning contract is realistic and positive. In a typical learning contract, a series of measurable goals is established, beginning with small, easily attainable objectives and progressing to more advanced goals. By reducing a specific amount of cigarettes each week the patient is more likely to meet the smaller attainable goals and remain motivated to stop smoking. Smaller measurable goals related to the reduction of alcohol intake are more realistic. Learning contracts need to be more specific and incremental. A better statement would be to lose 2 pounds the first week and gradually increase weight loss plans over time. The patient wishing to begin an exercise program would benefit from and more likely to remain motivated by smaller goals of walking for 20 minutes three times per week for the first week and gradually increasing exercise intensity, duration, and frequency.

75
Q

A program of weight loss and exercise is recommended for a client with type 2 diabetes. When teaching the client about lifestyle changes, what type of assessment would the nurse prioritize?

a) Individual cultural assessment
b) Braden scale assessment
c) Head-to-toe physical assessment
d) Body mass index assessment

A

a) Individual cultural assessment

Rationale: BMI assessment is an appropriate assessment for this client but does not address specific lifestyle changes. A physical assessment is appropriate for this patient; however, the information gathered does not focus on education directed at a change in lifestyle. Because people with different cultural backgrounds have different values and lifestyles, choices about health care vary. Before beginning health teaching, nurses must conduct an individual cultural assessment instead of relying only on generalized assumptions about a particular culture. A patient’s social and cultural patterns must be appropriately incorporated into the teaching-learning interaction The Braden scale is used to assess risk factors related to skin breakdown.

76
Q

The nurse is preparing the patient file for an 8-year-old child. The child’s mother informs that her daughter has difficulty breathing at night, and makes a whistling sound while sleeping. Due to Sara’s age, her mother continues to provide Sara’s health history to the nurse. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates that the nurse understands the importance of collecting a patient’s health history?

a) The nurse explains to Sara’s mother that the patient must be the primary informant while collecting the health history.
b) The nurse continues to collect information from Sara’s mother knowing the informant will not always be the patient.
c) Repeat the information back to Sara so that she can confirm that the information provided to the nurse by her mother is correct.
d) Allow Sara’s pediatrician to conduct the health history. The pediatrician can allow the child to participate in the assessment, as appropriate.

A

b) The nurse continues to collect information from Sara’s mother knowing the informant will not always be the patient.

Explanation:
The informant, or the person providing the health history, may not always be the patient. The nurse assesses the reliability of the mother and the usefulness of the information provided. It is within the scope of the nurse to collect the health history.

77
Q

Which method of physical examination refers to the translation of physical force into sound?

a) Manipulation
b) Auscultation
c) Palpation
d) Percussion

A

d) Percussion

Explanation:
Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. Palpation refers to examination by nonforceful touching. Auscultation refers to the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by movement of air or fluid. Manipulation refers to the use of the hands to determine motion of a body part.

78
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), passed in 1996, established national standards to protect individuals’ medical records and other personal health information; it applies to health plans, health care clearinghouses, and health care providers who conduct certain health care transactions electronically. Which of the following actions demonstrates an understanding of HIPAA? Select all that apply.

a) The nurse informs the patient that the therapist will have access to his EMR.
b) The nurse allows the patient to view his or her electronic medical record (EMR) at the bedside.
c) The hospital provides a copy of the medical record to the patient.
d) The patient requests a correction to the medical record on file.
e) The nurse shares her computer password with a peer to help her prepare a chart.
f) The nurse allows the patient’s son or daughter to view the medical record.

A

a) The nurse informs the patient that the therapist will have access to his EMR., b) The nurse allows the patient to view his or her electronic medical record (EMR) at the bedside., c) The hospital provides a copy of the medical record to the patient., d) The patient requests a correction to the medical record on file.

Explanation:
HIPAA includes the rights of patients to obtain and examine a copy of their health records, and to request corrections. HIPPA provides the patient the right to know why requested information is sought and how it will be used. The act requires appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy of personal health information, and sets limits and conditions on the uses and disclosures that may be made of such information. Sharing patient information with the patient’s son or daughter or sharing computer passwords is a violation of this privacy.

79
Q

A waist circumference of greater than which of the following is indicative of excess abdominal fat in men?

a) 40 inches
b) 25 inches
c) 35 inches
d) 30 inches

A

a) 40 inches

Explanation:
A waist circumference greater than 40 inches for men or 35 inches for women indicates excess abdominal fat. Those with a high waist circumference are at increased risk for diabetes, dyslipidemia, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and atrial fibrillation.

80
Q

Which of the following statements by the nurse reflects the nurse’s attempt to establish rapport and reduce patient anxiety?

a) “Bill, I have adjusted the room temperature to keep you comfortable during your assessment.”
b) “Mr. Jones, I need to stand at the computer to record your responses to the questions accurately during the assessment interview.”
c) “Bill, I know the physical assessment takes a long time to complete; I will allow you a 10-minute break following the respiratory assessment.”
d) “Good morning, Mr. Jones. The last time you were here you were planning a vacation. Tell me about your trip.”

A

d) “Good morning, Mr. Jones. The last time you were here you were planning a vacation. Tell me about your trip.”

Explanation:
During the introduction, the nurse should address the patient by his or her surname. The nurse should avoid tiring older patients by allowing rest periods during the physical examination; however, this is not the most important aspect of establishing a rapport with the patient. Ensuring that the patient is comfortable by keeping the room warm and free from drafts is important during the interview. However, facilitating rapport is done by taking a personal interest in the patient and allowing him or her to contribute to the assessment. Effective communication promotes respect and trust and reduces patient anxiety. The nurse should start by establishing rapport with the patient and family members. Inquiring about the patient’s family, jobs, or interest helps place the patient at ease and may build rapport. Rapport is facilitated by making eye contact. The nurse needs to position the computer to maintain eye-to-eye contact with the patient.

81
Q

Which of the following observations made by the nurse reflects the first fundamental technique used in physical examination?

a) “Hyperresonance is noted in the left lower lung.”
b) “Crackling is noted in right lower lung.”
c) “Patient appears older than stated age.”
d) “Abdomen is soft and nontender in all four quadrants.”

A

c) “Patient appears older than stated age.”

Explanation:
The first fundamental technique is inspection or observation. General inspection begins with the first contact with the patient. Percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. Light and deep palpation can be used on the abdomen. Auscultation is the skill of listening to sounds produced within the body created by the movement of air or fluid.

82
Q

Within which body mass index (BMI) range are patients considered to have increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status?

a) 18.5 to 20
b) 25 to 29
c) 30 to 39
d) 40 to 45

A

a) 18.5 to 20

Explanation:
People who have a BMI lower than 18.5 (or who are 80% or less of their desirable body weight for height) are at increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status. Additionally, higher mortality rates in hospitalized patients and community-dwelling elderly are associated with individuals who have low BMI. People who have a BMI of 25 to 29 are considered overweight. People who have a BMI of 30 to 39 are considered obese. People who have a BMI above 40 are considered morbidly obese.

83
Q

Which is the last area to be addressed when assessing the patient profile?

a) Body image
b) Occupation
c) Education
d) Environment

A

a) Body image

Explanation:
The patient is often less anxious when the interview progresses from information that is less personal to information that is more personal. Educational level, occupation, housing, religion, and language are relatively impersonal and readily revealed by the patient.

84
Q

The nurse working in a culturally diverse neighborhood knows that providing culturally sensitive materials during nutritional counseling will increase patient understanding of the nutritional information. What is the best way for the nurse to prepare materials for the patient to provide culturally appropriate teaching?

a) Use the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s MyPlate and allow the culturally diverse patient extra time to ask questions.
b) Instruct the patient to increase the intake of universally beneficial nutrients such as vitamin A, iron, or calcium.
c) Have the patient maintain a diet record to analyze culturally inappropriate foods in the patient’s diet.
d) Access a government-sponsored Web site that provides culturally appropriate food guides.

A

d) Access a government-sponsored Web site that provides culturally appropriate food guides.

Explanation:

Culturally sensitive materials are available for making appropriate dietary recommendations. Providing extra time for the patient will not increase the likelihood that the patient will adhere or understand nutritional counseling. Food records are used to determine individual eating patterns and do not take cultural preferences into consideration. Specific nutrients may need to be added on an individual and culturally acceptable basis, but only as a result of an in-depth nutritional assessment.

85
Q

A new patient walking in to the health care center displays symptoms of wheezing and recurrent flare-ups. During the interview, the patient says that she may be allergic to certain foods. Based on this information, what nutritional assessment method is appropriate?

a) A 3- to 7day food record
b) Body mass index (BMI) calculation
c) Nitrogen balance comparison
d) Biochemical assessment

A

a) A 3- to 7day food record

Explanation:
 Physical measurements (BMI, waist circumference) and biochemical, clinical, and dietary data are used in combination to determine a patient’s nutritional status, but information obtained through these assessments will not help determine the possibility of allergies to food. The food record is used most often in nutritional status studies. A 3- to 7-day food record can be used to associate allergic reactions with specific food intake.
86
Q

To calculate the ideal body weight for a woman, the nurse allows for which of the following?

a) 100 pounds for 5 feet of height
b) 106 pounds for 5 feet of height
c) 80 pounds for 5 feet of height
d) 6 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet

A

a) 100 pounds for 5 feet of height

Explanation:
To calculate a woman’s ideal body weight, the nurse allows 100 pounds for 5 feet of height and adds 5 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet. The nurse allows 106 pounds for 5 feet of height in calculating the ideal body weight for a man. The nurse adds 6 pounds for each additional inch over 5 feet in calculating the ideal body weight for a man. Eighty pounds for 5 feet of height is too little.

87
Q

A diagnostic finding that is unrelated to nutritional deficiency is which of the following?

a) High serum albumin
b) High lymphocyte count
c) Low prealbumin level
d) High 24-hour urine creatinine

A

a) High serum albumin

Explanation:
Low serum albumin and prealbumin levels are most often used as measures of protein deficiency in adults. A lower than normal 24-hour urine creatinine may indicate loss of lean body mass and protein malnutrition. The total lymphocyte count may be reduced in people who are acutely malnourished as a result of stress and low-caloric feeding.

88
Q

The emergency department (ED) nurse conducting an abdominal assessment demonstrates the proper abdominal assessment in which of the following scenarios?

a) Protects patient privacy while visually inspecting the abdomen, warms the stethoscope prior to listening for bowel sounds, using the fingertips lightly palpates the four abdominal quadrants, and taps the four abdominal quadrants.
b) Lightly taps the four abdominal quadrants, using the fingertips, palpates the four abdominal quadrants, warms the stethoscope prior to listening for bowel sounds, and protects patient privacy while visually inspecting the abdomen.
c) Using the surface of the palm, palpates the skin temperature of the abdomen, warms the stethoscope prior to listening for bowel sounds, protects patient privacy while visually inspecting the abdomen, and lightly percusses the abdomen.
d) Using the fingertips, palpates the four abdominal quadrants, protects patient privacy while visually inspecting the abdomen, warms the stethoscope prior to listening for bowel sounds, and lightly percusses the abdomen.

A

a) Protects patient privacy while visually inspecting the abdomen, warms the stethoscope prior to listening for bowel sounds, using the fingertips lightly palpates the four abdominal quadrants, and taps the four abdominal quadrants.

Explanation:
The proper sequence for the abdominal assessment is inspection, auscultation, palpation, and percussion. When the abdomen is examined, auscultation is performed before palpation and percussion to avoid altering bowel sounds.

89
Q

In which of the following situations is the nurse most likely to use the assessment technique, which translates the application of physical force into sound, when performing a physical examination on a patient?

a) The patient who presents with a respiratory rate of 22 and a productive cough and reports shortness of breath with stair climbing
b) The patient who reports increased cold sensitivity, dry skin, and thinning hair
c) The patient who reports numbness and tingling in three fingers on each hand when waking up in the morning
d) The patient who presents with a mild pruritic rash on trunk and oral temperature of 101.1ºF

A

a) The patient who presents with a respiratory rate of 22 and a productive cough and reports shortness of breath with stair climbing

Explanation:
The assessment technique of percussion is most beneficial in patients suspected of disease processes in the chest and abdomen. The technique of percussion translates the application of physical force into sound. It is a skill requiring practice that yields much information about disease processes in the chest and abdomen. A patient with a rash and fever is likely to be experiencing a disease process of the integumentary system; the nurse is most likely to rely on the assessment technique of inspection in this situation. Percussion is not the primary assessment technique in a musculoskeletal assessment. The symptoms of dry skin and thinning hair could be indicative of thyroid disease

90
Q

When obtaining a patient profile for a patient newly diagnosed with diabetes, which of the following assessments are essential components of the genetics aspects of the health assessment? Select all that apply.

a) Assess the patient’s children for signs/symptoms of diabetes.
b) Offer appropriate genetics information and resources.
c) Tell the patient to restrict dietary intake of carbohydrates.
d) Request information spanning two generations.
e) Obtain history of known diseases or disorders from both maternal and paternal family members.
f) Ask the patient to list three complications of diabetes.

A

a) Assess the patient’s children for signs/symptoms of diabetes., b) Offer appropriate genetics information and resources., e) Obtain history of known diseases or disorders from both maternal and paternal family members., f) Ask the patient to list three complications of diabetes.

Explanation:
Listing three complications of diabetes allows the nurse to assess the patient’s understanding of the disease process. Offering appropriate genetics information and resources is indicated in this situation. Referral for risk assessment when a hereditary disease or disorder is present so the family can discuss inheritance risk with other family members is appropriate. Information should be obtained about both maternal and paternal sides of family for three generations. Nutritional counseling is dependent on an individualized nutritional assessment.

91
Q

Investigation of lifestyle should also include questions about complementary and alternative therapies. How many types of complementary and alternative therapies are estimated?

a) 2,000
b) 1,800
c) 2,200
d) 1,600

A

b) 1, 800

Explanation:
It is estimated that there are more than 1,800 types of complementary and alternative therapies, including special diets, prayer, visualization or guided imagery, massage, meditation, herbal products, and many others. Marijuana is used to manage symptoms, especially pain, in a number of chronic conditions.

92
Q

The nurse is preparing the patient file for a female patient with HIV who does not exhibit any chronic signs or symptoms. Her infection is in the second, or asymptotic, stage at present. The nurse knows it is the professional and clinical responsibility of the nurse to discuss issues of sexuality with the patient as part of the patient profile. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates that the nurse understands what the best method is to obtain information related to sexuality?

a) Establish a rapport with the patient; this will allow her to discuss her sexuality when she is ready.
b) Provide appropriate questions on the written admission assessment form at time of admission.
c) State near the end of the interview, “Some patients with HIV are worried about future sexual relationships.”
d) Document the patient’s HIV status in the electronic medical record (EMR) and refer her to the social worker to collect her sexual history.

A

c) State near the end of the interview, “Some patients with HIV are worried about future sexual relationships.”

Explanation:
Collecting written information is important; however obtaining the verbal sexual history provides an opportunity to discuss sexual matters openly and gives the patient permission to express sexual concerns to an informed professional. Interviewers are frequently uncomfortable with such questions and ignore this area of the patient profile or conduct a very cursory interview about this subject. The nurse needs to assure the sexuality assessment is addressed. It is within the scope of nursing to obtain the sexual history. Sexual assessment can be approached at the end of the interview, at the time interpersonal or lifestyle factors are assessed. Direct questions are usually less threatening when prefaced with introductory statements.

93
Q

A positive nitrogen balance indicates which of the following conditions?

a) Tissue growth
b) Burn injury
c) Starvation
d) Fever

A

a) Tissue growth

Explanation:
A positive nitrogen balance exists when nitrogen intake exceeds nitrogen output and indicates tissue growth. A negative nitrogen balance exists with fever, starvation, and burn injury.

94
Q

Which of the following is considered the “fifth vital sign”?

a) Pain
b) Strength
c) Speech
d) Posture

A

a) Pain

Explanation:
The “fifth vital sign” is considered pain. Speech, strength, and posture are important assessment parameters, but none of these is considered the fifth vital sign.

95
Q

The nurse observes that a patient’s medical report indicates that the patient has Cushing’s syndrome. During inspection, the nurse notes that his BMI is 31, his waist circumference is 40 inches, and there are localized fat pads around the neck and upper part of the back. Which of the following must the nurse keep in mind while planning the patient’s care?

a) The nurse recognizes that the patient’s obesity may be specifically related to his endocrine disorder. The nurse performs a thorough nutritional assessment.
b) Knowing that the patient is obese, the nurse plans to provide dietary education to reduce his daily caloric intake using the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s MyPlate pyramid.
c) The nurse knows that a waist circumference of 40 places the patient at risk. The nurse instructs the patient to remember all food intakes over the next 24-hour period.
d) A BMI of 31 indicates obesity and the nurse instructs the patient to keep a record of food actually consumed over the next 3 to 7 days.

A

a) The nurse recognizes that the patient’s obesity may be specifically related to his endocrine disorder. The nurse performs a thorough nutritional assessment.

Explanation:
Food records, 24-hour diet recall, and dietary education directed at weight loss do not account for the patient’s medical condition as a factor in the patient’s weight or nutritional status, although each method helps estimate whether or not food intake is adequate and appropriate. Certain signs and symptoms that suggest possible nutritional deficiency, such as muscle wasting, poor skin integrity, loss of subcutaneous tissue, and obesity, are easy to note because they are specific; these symptoms should be studied further.

96
Q

Hyperresonance is audible when which area is percussed?

a) Air-filled stomach
b) Liver
c) Thigh
d) Overinflated lung tissue

A

d) Overinflated lung tissue

Explanation:
Hyperresonance is audible when overinflated lung tissue is percussed, such as in a person with emphysema. Percussion over the liver produces a dull sound. Percussion of the thigh produces a flat sound. Tympany is the drumlike sound produced by percussing the air-filled stomach.

97
Q

Which of the following statements made by the nurse indicates that the nurse is performing a holistic health history versus a traditional health or medical history?

a) “How has the stroke affected your ability to perform your daily activities?”
b) “What has your daily blood pressure and pulse rate reading been?”
c) “Tell me about your family’s history with heart disease.”
d) “Have you been taking your blood pressure medication exactly as prescribed?”

A

a) “How has the stroke affected your ability to perform your daily activities?”

Explanation:
An emphasis on functional assessment is viewed as being more holistic than the traditional health or medical history. A patient’s functional status is the ability of the patient to function normally and perform his or her usual physical, mental, and social activities. Questions related to blood pressure readings, family history, and medication regimen indicate a traditional or medical model versus a holistic health assessment.

98
Q

An individual is considered obese when his or her BMI is which of the following?

a) Less than 24
b) 30 to 39
c) 25 to 29
d) Greater than 40

A

b) 30 to 39

Explanation:
Those persons with a BMI of 30 to 39 are considered obese. Persons with a BMI of less than 24 are at risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status. Persons with a BMI of 25 to 29 are considered overweight. Those with a BMI of greater than 40 are considered morbidly obese.

99
Q

A student nurse walks into a patient’s room and observes the patient chanting and holding his rosary. The patient pauses and asks the student nurse to join hands while he prays. What is the best action for the student nurse to take?

a) Join hands with the patient and remain at the bedside until the patient finishes the prayer.
b) Carefully explain to the patient that she is of a different faith and excuse herself from the room.
c) Join hands with the patient and lead a prayer of behalf of the patient.
d) Call the chaplain on duty to come pray with the patient.

A

a) Join hands with the patient and remain at the bedside until the patient finishes the prayer.

Explanation:
It is important that the spiritual beliefs of people and families be acknowledged, valued, and respected for the comfort and guidance they provide. Leaving the room based on the nurse’s spiritual beliefs does not convey respect for the patient. It is within the scope of the nurse to support the patient’s request for prayer and conveys respect for the patient’s spirituality. The patient needs to remain in control of the prayer, speaking it as he or she is accustomed to doing it

100
Q

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) visits the health care center with breathing difficulties. It is observed that during coughing bouts, the patient sits up in a tripod position to breathe. During inspection, the nurse notes that the patient has developed a barrel-shaped chest. Which part of the patient profile relates to the patient’s view of himself or herself and the impact of COPD?

a) Stress and coping response
b) Chief complaint
c) Biographical information
d) Self-concept

A

d) Self-concept

Explanation:
Self-concept, a person’s view of himself or herself, is an image that develops over many years. Self-concept can be threatened very easily by changes in physical function or appearance related to the impact of certain medical conditions such as COPD. Biographical information includes the person’s name, address, age, gender, marital status, occupation, and ethnic origins. The chief complaint is the issue that caused the patient to seek the care of the health care provider but does not address the patient’s view of himself or herself. Past coping patterns and perceptions of current stresses and anticipated outcomes are explored to identify the person’s overall ability to handle stress.

101
Q

The primary source of microorganisms for catheter-related infections include the skin and which of the following?

a) Catheter tubing
b) Catheter hub
c) IV tubing
d) IV fluid bag

A

b) Catheter hub

Explanation:
The primary sources of microorganisms for catheter-related infections are the skin and the catheter hub. The catheter site is covered with an occlusive gauze dressing that is usually changed every other day.

102
Q

The nurse is attempting to unclog a patient’s feeding tube. Attempts with warm water agitation and milking the tube have been unsuccessful. The nurse uses evidence-based practice principles when she then uses which of the following to unclog the tube?

a) Digestive enzymes and sodium bicarbonate
b) Alka Seltzer mixed with water
c) Cola mixed with cranberry juice
d) Meat tenderizer diluted with saline

A

a) Digestive enzymes and sodium bicarbonate

Explanation:
The nurse should attempt to unclog the tube with digestive enzymes activated with sodium bicarbonate. Although historically both cranberry juice and cola have sometimes been used to unclog feeding tubes, evidence has shown that their acidic nature worsens the clog by causing precipitation of proteins. Meat tenderize diluted with saline is not applicable.

103
Q

The nurse is confirming placement of a patient’s nasogastric (NG) tube using a combination of visual and pH assessment of the aspirate. The nurse determines that the NG tube remains properly placed when the pH of the aspirate is which of the following?

a) Unmeasurable
b) Alkaline
c) Neutral
d) Acidic

A

d) Acidic

Explanation:
The pH of gastric aspirate is acidic (1 to 5)

104
Q

Semi-Fowler’s position is maintained for at least which time frame following completion of an intermittent tube feeding?

a) 30 minutes
b) 2 hours
c) 1 hour
d) 90 minutes

A

c) 1 hour

Explanation:
The semi-Fowler’s position is necessary for an NG feeding with the patient’s head elevated at least 30 to 45 degrees to reduce the risk for reflux and pulmonary aspiration. This position is maintained for at least 1 hour after completion of an intermittent tube feeding and is maintained at all times for patients receiving continuous tube feedings.

105
Q

The nurse prepares to give a bolus tube feeding to the patient and determines that the residual gastric content is 150 mL. The priority nursing action is to do which of the following?

a) Withhold the tube feeding indefinitely.
b) Give the tube feeding.
c) Notify the physician.
d) Reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour

A

d) Reassess the residual gastric content in 1 hour.

Explanation:
If the gastric residual exceeds 100 mL for 2 hours in a row, the physician should be notified. One observation of a residual gastric content over 100 mL does not have to be reported to the physician. If the observation occurs two times in succession, the physician should be notified. If the amount of gastric residual exceeds 100 mL, the tube feeding should be withheld at that time, but not indefinitely.

106
Q

Rebound hypoglycemia is a complication of parenteral nutrition caused by which of the following?

a) Cap missing from the port
b) Fluid infusing rapidly
c) Glucose intolerance
d) Feedings stopped too abruptly

A

d) Feedings stopped too abruptly

Explanation:
Rebound hypoglycemia occurs when the feedings are stopped too abruptly. Hyperglycemia is caused by glucose intolerance. Fluid overload is caused by fluids infusing too rapidly. An air embolism can occur from a cap missing on a port.

107
Q

The nurse is collaborating with the physician and dietician to determine the best type of tube feeding for a patient at risk for diarrhea due to hypertonic feeding solutions. Which of the following feedings should the nurse suggest?

a) Intermittent feeding
b) Continuous feedings
c) Cyclic feeding
d) Bolus feeding

A

b) Continuous feedings

Explanation:
Continuous feedings should be administered to a patient who is at risk of diarrhea due to hypertonic feeding solutions. Bolus or intermittent feedings cause sudden distention of the small intestine, while cyclic feedings are not advised.

108
Q

A patient has just had a nasogastric (NG) tube inserted and the nurse is waiting for verification of placement of the tube prior to starting tube feedings. Which is the best method of verification the nurse should use for determining new NG tube placement?

a) Observing gastric aspirate
b) Gastric aspirate pH testing
c) X-ray confirmation
d) Air auscultation

A

c) X-ray confirmation

Explanation:
Radiologic identification of tube placement in the stomach is the most reliable method. Gastric fluid may be grassy green, brown, clear, or odorless, whereas an aspirate from the lungs may be off-white or tan. Hence, checking aspirate is not the best method of determining NG tube placement in the stomach. Gastric pH values are typically lower or more acidic than that of the intestinal or respiratory tract, but not always. Air auscultation is not a reliable method for determining NG tube placement in the stomach when used alone.

109
Q

The nurse is creating the care plan of a patient with a central line receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). How often should the nurse include changing the catheter dressing in her plan?

a) Every 96 hours
b) Every 72 hours
c) Every 24 hours
d) Every 48 hours

A

d) Every 48 hours

Explanation:
The nurse should include changing the central line dressing every 48 hours in the plan of care

110
Q

The nurse caring for a patient who is receiving feedings through a nasogastric (NG) tube is assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of pulmonary complications. The nurse determines that the patient may be experiencing pulmonary complications when which of the following is noted?

a) Blood pressure of 110/72
b) Temperature of 97ºF
c) Respiratory rate of 30
d) Pulse 88

A

c) Respiratory rate of 30

Explanation:
The nurse determines that the patient may be having pulmonary complications when the respiratory rate is 30, indicating tachypnea. Other signs/symptoms of pulmonary complications include coughing during food or medication administration, difficulty clearing the airway, and fever

111
Q

For what are medium-length nasoenteric tubes used?

a) Aspiration
b) Feeding
c) Decompression
d) Emptying

A

b) Feeding

Explanation:
Placement of the tube must be verified prior to any feeding. A gastric sump and nasoenteric tube are used for gastrointestinal decompression. Nasoenteric tubes are used for feeding. Gastric sump tubes are used to decompress the stomach and keep it empty

112
Q

The nurse is administering a tube feeding to a patient via intermittent gravity drip method. The nurse should administer the feeding over at least which period of time?

a) 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 80 minutes
d) 60 minutes

A

b) 30 minutes

Explanation:
Tube feedings administered via intermittent gravity drip should be administered over 30 minutes or longer.

113
Q

The nurse on an evidence-based practice council is making recommendations to ensure patency of nontunneled central venous lines. The nurse recommends that daily saline and diluted heparin flushes be used in which of the following situations?

a) Before drawing blood
b) With continuous infusions
c) When the line is discontinued
d) Daily when not in use

A

d) Daily when not in use

Explanation:
Daily instillation of normal saline and dilute heparin flush when a nontunneled central catheter is not in use will maintain the line’s patency. Continuous infusion maintains the patency of the line. Normal saline and heparin flushes should be used after each time blood is drawn in order to prevent clotting of blood within the line. Normal saline and heparin flush are not needed when a line is being discontinued.

114
Q

The nurse is monitoring a patient with nasoenteric intubation. The nurse contacts the physician when which of the following is noted?

a) Moist mucous membranes
b) Blood pressure 118/72
c) Heart rate of 100
d) Urinary output 20 mL/hr

A

d) Urinary output 20 mL/hr

Explanation:
The nurse should notify the physician when the patient has a urinary output of 20 mL/hr as this is a decreased urinary rate. Decreased urinary output, lethargy, lightheadedness, hypotension, and increased heart rate are signs and symptoms of fluid volume deficit. A heart rate of 100, BP of 118/72, and moist mucous membranes are findings that are within acceptable ranges/limits and do not indicate a fluid volume deficit.

115
Q

Which of the following is a nasoenteric feeding tube?

a) Dobbhoff
b) Salem
c) Levin
d) Sengstaken-Blakemore

A

a) Dobbhoff

Explanation:
The Dobbhoff tube is a nasoentreric feeding tube. Nasogastric tubes include Levin, a gastric sump (Salem), and Sengstaken-Blakemore tubes

116
Q

The nurse is teaching an unlicensed caregiver about bathing patients who are receiving tube feedings. Which of the following is the most significant complication related to continuous tube feedings?

a) The interruption of GI integrity
b) An interruption in fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis
c) A disturbance in the sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism
d) The potential for aspiration

A

d) The potential for aspiration

Explanation:
Because the normal swallowing mechanism is bypassed, consideration of the danger of aspiration must be foremost in the mind of the nurse caring for the patient receiving continuous tube feedings. Tube feedings preserve GI integrity by intraluminal delivery of nutrients. Tube feedings preserve the normal sequence of intestinal and hepatic metabolism. Tube feedings maintain fat metabolism and lipoprotein synthesis.

117
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving parenteral (PN) nutrition. The nurse notes on the care plan that the catheter will need to be removed 6 weeks after insertion and notes that the patient’s venous access device is which of the following?

a) Implanted port
b) Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
c) Nontunneled central catheter
d) Tunneled central catheter

A

c) Nontunneled central catheter

Explanation:
Nontunneled central catheters are used for short-term (less than 6 weeks) IV therapy in acute care settings. The subclavian vein is the most common vessel used because the subclavian area provides a stable insertion site to which the catheter can be anchored; it allows the patient freedom of movement and provides easy access to the dressing site. PICC lines may be used for intermediate terms (3 to 12 months). Tunneled central catheters are for long-term use and may remain in place for many years. Implanted ports are devices also used for long-term home IV therapy (e.g., Port-A-Cath, Mediport, Hickman Port, P.A.S. Port).

118
Q

Tube feedings are given to a patient after an oral surgery. The nurse manages tube feedings to minimize the risk of aspiration. Which of the following measures should the nurse include in the care plan to reduce the risk of aspiration?

a) Administer 15 to 30 mL of water before and after medications and feedings.
b) Place patient in semi-Fowler’s position during, and 60 minutes after, an intermittent feeding.
c) Avoid cessation of feedings.
d) Change tube feeding container and tubing.

A

b) Place patient in semi-Fowler’s position during, and 60 minutes after, an intermittent feeding.

Explanation:
To minimize the risk of aspiration, it is important to place the patient in a semi-Fowler’s position during, and 60 minutes after, an intermittent feeding because proper positioning prevents regurgitation. Checking tube placement and gastric residual prior to feedings is another important measure because it prevents improper infusion and vomiting. If aspiration is suspected, feeding should be stopped as cessation prevents further problems and allows for treatment of the immediate problem. Changing tube feeding container and tubing, monitoring weight daily, and administering 15 to 30 mL of water before and after medications and feedings are measures to maintain tube function.

119
Q

The patient is on a continuous tube feeding. How often should the tube placement be checked?

a) Every hour
b) Every 12 hours
c) Every shift
d) Every 24 hours

A

c) Every shift

Explanation:
Each nurse caring for the patient is responsible for verifying that the tube is located in the proper area for continuous feeding. Checking for placement each hour is unnecessary unless the patient is extremely restless or there is basis for rechecking the tube based on other patient activities. Checking for placement every 12 or 24 hours does not meet the standard of care due the patient receiving continuous tube feedings.

120
Q

The nurse caring for a patient receiving continuous parenteral nutrition (PN) through a Hickman catheter notices that the patient’s solution has run out. No PN solution is currently available from the pharmacy. What should the nurse do?

a) Stop the infusion and flush the line
b) Hang normal saline with potassium
c) Hang 5% dextrose and water
d) Hang 10% dextrose and water

A

d) Hang 10% dextrose and water

Explanation:
If the PN solution runs out and no PN is available, the nurse should hang 10% dextrose and water until the PN becomes available

121
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is at receiving continuous enteral tube feedings who is at low risk for aspiration. The nurse assesses the gastric residual volume to be 350 mL. Which of the following is the correct action by the nurse?

a) Flush the feeding tube.
b) Lower the head of the bed.
c) Increase the feeding rate.
d) Monitor the feeding closely.

A

d) Monitor the feeding closely.

Explanation:
High residual volumes (>200 mL) should alert the nurse to monitor the patient more closely. Increasing the feeding rate will increase the residual volume. Lowering the head of the bed increases the patient’s risk for aspiration.

122
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer all of a patient’s medications via feeding tube. The nurse consults the pharmacist and/or physician when the nurse notes on the patient’s medication administration record which of the following types of oral medication?

a) Enteric-coated tablets
b) Soft gelatin capsules filled with liquid
c) Simple compressed tablets
d) Buccal or sublingual tablets

A

a) Enteric-coated tablets

Explanation:
Enteric-coated tablets are meant to be digested in the intestinal tract and may be destroyed by stomach acids. A change in the form of medication is necessary for patients with tube feedings. Simple compressed tablets may be crushed and dissolved in water for patients receiving oral medications by feeding tube. Buccal or sublingual tablets are absorbed by mucous membranes and may be given as intended to the patient undergoing tube feedings. The nurse may make an opening in the capsule and squeeze out contents for administration by feeding tube.

123
Q

The nurse is conducting discharge education for a patient who is to go home with parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse sees that the patient understands the education when the patient indicates which of the following is a sign and/or symptom of metabolic complications?

a) Elevated blood pressure
b) Decreased pulse rate
c) Loose, watery stools
d) Increased urination

A

c) Loose, watery stools

Explanation:
When the patient indicates that loose watery stools are a sign/symptom of metabolic complications, the nurse evaluates that the patient understands the teaching of metabolic complications. Signs and symptoms of metabolic complications from PN include neuropathies, mentation changes, diarrhea, nausea, skin changes, and decreased urine output.

124
Q

Hickman and Groshong are examples of which type of central venous access device?

a) Peripherally inserted central catheters (PICC)
b) Tunneled central catheters
c) Implanted ports
d) Nontunneled central catheter

A

b) Tunneled central catheters

Explanation:
Hickman and Groshong catheters are examples of tunneled central catheters. MediPort is an implanted port. A percutaneous subclavian Arrow is an example of a nontunneled central catheter. A PICC line is used for intermediate-term IV therapy for the hospital, long-term care, or the home setting.

125
Q

Which of the following is caused by improper catheter placement and inadvertent puncture of the pleura?

a) Fluid overload
b) Sepsis
c) Pneumothorax
d) Air embolism

A

c) Pneumothorax

Explanation:
A pneumothorax is caused by improper catheter placement and inadvertent puncture of the pleura. Air embolism can occur from a missing cap on a port. Sepsis can be caused by the separation of dressings. Fluid overload is caused by fluids infusing too rapidly.

126
Q

The nurse is preparing to instiall medication into a client”s NG tube. Which actions should the nurse take before instillling the medication? Select all that applies

  1. Check the residual volume
  2. Aspirate the stomach contents
  3. Turn off suction to the NG tube
  4. Remove the tube and place it in the other nose
  5. Test the stomach for a pH of less than 3.5
A

1, 2, 3, 5

By aspirating stomach contents the residual volume can be determined and the pH checked. pH <3.5 verifies gastric placement. suction should be turned off befor the tubing is disconnected to check for residual volume; in addition, suction should remain off for 30-60 mintes following med admin to allow for med absorption.

127
Q

The nurse is preparing to administere medication through a NG tube that is connected to suction. To administer the med, the nurse should take what action?

  1. Position the client supine to assist in medication absorption
  2. Aspirate the NG tube after med admin to maintain patency
  3. Clamp the NG tube for 30-60 minutes following admin of med
  4. Change the cuction setting to low intermittent suction for 30 minu after med admin
A

3

If a clent has a NG tube connected to suction, the nurse should wait 30-60 minutes before reconnecting the tube to the suction apparatus to allow adequate time for medication absorption. The client should not be palced in the supine position b/c of the risk for aspiration. Aspirating the NG tube will remove the med just adminstered. Low intermittent suction also will remove the med just administered.

128
Q

The nurse is assesing for corret placement of a NG tube. The nurse aspirates the stomach contents and checks the gastric pH. The nurse verifies correct placement if which pH value is noted?

  1. 3.5
  2. 7.0
  3. 7.35
  4. 7.5
A

1

If the NG tube is in the somatch, the pH of the contents will be acidic.Gastric aspirates have acidic pH values and should be 3.5 or lower.

129
Q

Rn is preparing to isnsert a NG tube in an adult client. To determine the accurate measurement of the length of the tube to be inserted, the nurse should take which action?

  1. Mark the tube at 10 inches
  2. Mark the tube at 32 inches
  3. Place the tube at the tip of th enose and measure by extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process
  4. Place the tube at the tip of the nose and measure by extendin the tube to the earlobe adn down to the top of the sternum
A

3

Measuring the length of a NG tube needed is done by placing the tube at the tip of the client’s nose and extending the tube to the earlobe and then down to the xiphoid process. The average length for anadult is about 22-26 inches. The remaining options identify incorrect procedures for measuing the length of the tube.

130
Q

The nurse checks for resdiual before adminstering a bolus tube feding to a client with NG tube and obtains a residual amount of 150 ml. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

  1. Hold the feeding
  2. Reinstill the amount and continue with adminstering the feeding
  3. Elevate the client’s head at least 45 degrees and adminster the feding
  4. DIscard the residual amount and proceed to adminster the feeding
A

1

Unless specifcally indicated, residual amounts more than 100 ml require holding the feeding. In addition the feeding is not discarded unless its contents are abnormal in color or characteristics

131
Q

The nurse i inserting a NG tube in an adult client. During the procedure, the client begins to cough and has difficulty breathing What is the most appropriate nursing action?

  1. Quickly insert the tube
  2. Notify the HCP immediately
  3. Remove the tube and reinsert when the respiratory distress subsides
  4. Pull back on the tube and wait until respiratory distress subsides
A

4

During the insertion of a NG tube, if the client experieces difficulty breathing or any respiratory distress, withdraw the tube slightly, stop the tube advancement, and wait until the distress subsides. It is not necessary to notify the NCP immediately or remove the tube completely. Quickly inserting the tube is not an appropriate action because, in this situation, it may be likely that the tube has entered the bronchus.

132
Q

The nurse hears a client calling out for help, hurries down the hallway to the client’s room, and finds the client lying on the floor. The nurse performs an assessment, assists the client back to bed, notifes the HCP of the incident, and completes an incident report. Which statement shouold the nurse document on the incident report?

  1. The client fell out of bed
  2. The client climbed over the side rails
  3. The client was found lying on the floor
  4. The client became restless and tried to get out of bed
A

3

The incident report should contain the client’s name, age, and diagnosis. The report should contain a factual description of the incident, any injuries experienced by those involved, and the outcome of the siuation. The correct option is the only one that describes the facts as observed by the nurse. Options 1,2,4, are interpreations of the situation and are not factual information as observed by the nurse

133
Q

A hospitalized pt tells the nurse that a living will is being prepared and that the lawyer will be bringing the will to the hospital today for witness signatures. The client asks the nurse for assistance in obtaining a witness to the will. Which is the most appropriate response to the pt?

  1. I will sign as a witness to your signature
  2. You will need to find a witness on your own
  3. Whoever is avaiable at the time will sign as a witness for you
  4. I will call the nursing supervisor to seek assistance regarding your request
A

4

Living wills, also know =n as natural death acts in some states, are required to be in writing and signed by the pt. The pt’s signature must be witnessed by specified individuals or notorized. Laws and gudielines regarding living wills vary from state to state, and it is the responsibility of the nurse to know the laws. Many states prohibit any employee, including the nurse of a facility where the client is recieving care, from being a witness. Optino 2 is nontherapeutic and not a helpful resounrces. The nurse should seek the assistance of a nursing supervisor

134
Q

The nurse has made an error in a narrative documentation of an assessment finding on a pt and obtains the pt’s record to correct the error. The nrse should take which action to correct the error?

  1. Documenting a late entry into the pt’s record
  2. Tring to erase the error for space to write in the correct data
  3. Using whiteout to delete the error to writie in the correct data
  4. Drawing one line through the error, initialing and dating, and then documenting the correct information
A

4

135
Q

An 87-yr old woman is brought to the emergency room department for treatment of a fractured arm. On physical assessment, the nurse notes old and new echymotic areas on the pt’s chest, legs, and asks the pt how the bruises were sustained. The pt, although reluctant, tells the nurse in confidence that her son frequently hits her if supper is not prepared on time when he arrives home from work. Which is the most appropriate nursing resonse?

  1. Oh really. I will discuss this situation with your son
  2. Let’s talk about the ways you can manage your time to prevent this from happening
  3. Do you have any friends that can help you out until you resolve these important issues with your son
  4. As a nurse, I am legally bound to report abuse, I will stay with you while you give the report and help find a safe place for your to stay
    5.
A

4

The nurse must report situations related to child or elder abuse, gunshot wounds and other criminal acts, and certain infectious diseases. Confidential issues are not to be discussed with nonmedical personnel or the client’s family or friends w/o the pt’s permission. Pt should be assured that info is kept confidential unless it places the nurse under a legal obligation. Options 1, 2, 3 do not address the legal implications of the situation and do not ensure a safe environement for the pt.

136
Q

The nurse calls the HCP regarding a new med Rx b/c the dosage prescribed is higher than the recommended dosage. The nurse is unable to locate the HCP, and the med is due to be administered. Which action should the nurse take?

  1. Contact the nursing supervisor
  2. Administer the dose prescribed
  3. Hold themed until the HCP can be contacted
  4. Adminster the recommended dose until the HCP can be located
A

1

137
Q

A nursing grad is attending an agency orientation regarding the nursing medoel of practice implmented in the health care facility. The nurse is told that then nursing model is a team nursing approach. The nurse understands that planning care delivery will be based on which characteristic of this type of nursing model of practice?

  1. A task apprach method is used to provide care to clients
  2. Managed care concepts and tools are used in providing client care
  3. A single RN is responsible for providing care to a group of pts
  4. A RN leads nursing personnel in providing care to a group of pts
A

4

In team nursing, nursing personnel are led by a RN leader in providng care to a group of pts. Option 1 identifies functional nursing. Option 2 identifies a component of case management. Option 3 identifies primary nursing