Exam 1 - Respiratory packet Flashcards

1
Q

Two examples of OTC decongestants?

A

Pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine

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2
Q

How do OTC decongestants work?

A

sympathomimetics that work by inducing vasoconstriction

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3
Q

What are OTC antihistamines used for?

A

to relieve allergy symptoms

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4
Q

Primary side effect of first generation antihistamines (Benadryl)?

A

drowsiness and dryness

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5
Q

General defense mechanisms of respiratory system? (3)

A

Warming, humidification, filtration

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6
Q

How is normal nasal resistance during inhalation a defense mechanism?

A

Allows more time for warming and humidification

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7
Q

What does warming and expansion of air inhaled through the nose act as a defense mechanism?

A

Allows for better air distribution

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8
Q

What type of epithelium is in the nasal vestibule?

A

Stratified keratinizing squamous epithelium

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9
Q

What bacteria is commonly found in the nasal vestibule?

A

Staph aureus, especially in neonates

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10
Q

Why is wide-spread inflammation of the mucosal surface of nasal vestibule a problem?

A

Can compromise immune function

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11
Q

Where does most of the mucus seen in a runny nose originate from?

A

Anterior-inferior surface of inferior turbinate

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12
Q

What does mild inflammation of anterior aspect of inferior turbinate lead to?

A

excess serous mucus and nasal dripping

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13
Q

What does inflammation that involves the nasal cavity lead to?

A

Excess gel mucus, less dripping

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14
Q

How do you determine allergic rhinitis from non-allergic rhinitis?

A

Allergic = more likely to involve eyes and ears, ITCHY. Non-allergic = less likely to involve eyes and ears, NOT ITCHY

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15
Q

Common symptoms of allergic rhinitis?

A

nasal congestion, sneezing, itchy/runny nose, itchy/watery eyes, stuffy ears

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16
Q

What causes post-nasal drip?

A

excess mucus cannot be evacuated through anterior nares

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17
Q

If mucus involved in post-nasal drip is aspirated into upper airways, what can happen?

A

Trigger asthma attacks or exacerbate cases of COPD

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18
Q

What do particles foreign to nasal mucosa initiate?

A

increased production and flow of nasal secretions, sneeze reflex

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19
Q

What do particles foreign to bronchi mucosa trigger?

A

increased production and flow of bronchial secretions, cough reflex

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20
Q

What 2 things do sneeze and cough reflexes require?

A

Enough air velocity for a forceful sneeze/cough, and the secretions are thin enough to be “cleared” by increased velocity

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21
Q

Deviation of which septum causes slight concern?

A

Cartilagenous

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22
Q

Deviation of which septum causes bigger concern?

A

boney

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23
Q

What does deviation of boney septum imply?

A

developmental anomalies involving turbinates and paranasal sinuses

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24
Q

What are nasal polyps most often associated with?

A

Chronic allergies

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25
Q

What are nasal polyps?

A

sac-like growths of inflamed mucosa that most often arise from tissue covering the nasal cavity

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26
Q

When would nasal polyps be seen during examination?

A

If they are located on very anterior portion of cavity

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27
Q

What type of epithelium lines the nasal cavity and turbinates?

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells and mucous glands

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28
Q

What is the mucociliary escalator?

A

important defense mechanism - cilia “whip” in one direction, “grab” mucosal layer and any trapped particles and push it in the direction of the beat

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29
Q

What makes up the mucus layer of the nasal cavity?

A

viscous “gel” mucus from goblet cells

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30
Q

What makes up the serous layer of the nasal cavity?

A

serous mucus from mucous glands = “ciliary bath”

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31
Q

Why is Nitric oxide (NO) another important defense mechanism in respiratory system?

A

powerful anti-microbial agent

32
Q

What happens to NO if mucosa around turbinates swells?

A

can impede movement of NO out of sinuses

33
Q

How can you diminish the effectiveness of the muco-ciliary escalator? (7)

A
  1. dehydration of ciliary bath 2. over-hydration of ciliary bath 3. increased viscosity of mucus layer 4. sudden/severe temperature change 5. caffeine 6. anti-anxiety meds/tranquilizers 7. cigarettes/alcohol
34
Q

What do OTC expectorants/mucolytic agents do to help muco-ciliary escalator?

A

may help with mucus production

35
Q

What does pure mucus look like?

A

clear/white, translucent

36
Q

What does mucopurulent sputum look like?

A

Not translucent

37
Q

What does yellow or green sputum indicate?

A

large number of WBCs

38
Q

What does red or brown sputum indicate?

A

presence of RBCs

39
Q

What should you use for somato-sensory exams of CN I and V?

A

familiar, mildly aromatic substances such as coffee

40
Q

What is hyposmia/anosmia?

A

inability to recognize the presence of an odor

41
Q

What causes hyposmia/anosmia?

A

inflammatory swelling compresses the receptors and makes them dysfunctional

42
Q

What is dysosmia/parosmia?

A

Can notice presence of odor but have trouble identifying it?

43
Q

What causes dysosmia/parosmia?

A

damage to receptors and neuroepithelium

44
Q

What do most olfactory problems originate from?

A

disorders of nasopharynx and/or paranasal sinuses that affect the receptors

45
Q

What is phantosmia/olfactory hallucination?

A

reporting an odor when no odor is present

46
Q

What does phantosmia imply?

A

Disorder of the olfactory cortex

47
Q

Where is ciliated epithelium most abundant?

A

paranasal sinuses

48
Q

What causes “sinus pressure”?

A

blocked drainage

49
Q

How is mucus moved out of the nasal cavity?

A

ciliary action moves mucus to ostium -> infundibulum -> meatus of middle turbinate

50
Q

How can soft tissue swelling around the ostia/infundibulum prevent adequate drainage?

A

cilia of two surfaces come together, this impedes ciliary function

51
Q

Why does tissue in the posterior aspect of the nasal fossae “swell” from side to side in a cyclic manner?

A

To control air flow between the two sides of the fossa

52
Q

Which area of the nasal cavity is most sinus drainage involved in?

A

Middle meatus

53
Q

What can infections of the lacrimal gland, nasolacrimal sac, or nasolacrimal duct lead to?

A

discharge of pus from middle meatus

54
Q

Acute vs chronic sinusitis: painful?

A

acute = more painful chronic = more uncomfortable than painful

55
Q

Acute vs chronic sinusitis: discharge?

A

acute = thick yellow/green mucoid discharge, sometimes tinged with blood. Chronic = clear and thin (serous)

56
Q

Acute vs chronic sinusitis: fever?

A

acute = likely chronic = usually none

57
Q

Sinus exam procedure? (4)

A
  1. history 2. inspection of anterior nares 3. palapation of frontal and maxillary sinuses 4. transillumination of frontal and maxillary sinuses
58
Q

Good independent predictors of sinusitis in adult pts? (5)

A
  1. maxillary toothache 2. purulent secretions 3. poor response to decongestants 4. abnormal transillumination 5. history of purulent discharge
59
Q

Sinusitis red flags? (7)

A
  1. high fever 2. persistent fever 3. visual complaints 4. periorbital edema/erythema 5. changes in mental status 6. severe facial or dental pain 7. infraorbital hypesthesia/hypoesthesia
60
Q

Is use of the nasal specific technique permitted in all jurisdictions?

A

No

61
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

congenital partial or total obstruction of choana by soft tissue and/or bone

62
Q

Is the pharyngeal opening of the Eustachian tube normally open or closed?

A

Normally closed

63
Q

Why must the pharyngeal opening of the Eustachian tube open?

A

To allow air into the middle ear cavity

64
Q

What type of epithelium lines the middle ear cavity?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium that can resorb oxygen

65
Q

What type of epithelium surrounds the pharyngeal opening of the Eustachian tube?

A

ciliated epithelium

66
Q

What type of epithelium surounds the boney opening of the Eustachian tube?

A

ciliated epithelium

67
Q

Why are the goblet cells and viscous mucus clinically important in the boney opening of the Eustachian tube?

A

Can form “mucus plug”

68
Q

What does swelling of mucosa and tubal tonsils around the pharyngeal opening of the Eustachian tube lead to?

A

intermittent occlusion of the opening

69
Q

When does the pharyngeal opening of the Eustachian tube open?

A

during talking, chewing, swallowing, etc

70
Q

What does the opening of pharyngeal portion do?

A

Equilibrate pressure in middle ear with atmospheric pressure

71
Q

What does pressure equilibration allow the tympanic membrane to do?

A

remain in neutral position

72
Q

When is prolonged obstruction of the pharyngeal opening a concern?

A

In children

73
Q

What does obstruction of the Eustachian tube cause?

A

negative pressure in the middle ear -> retraction of the tympanic membrane

74
Q

What is mastoiditis?

A

inflammation of mastoid air cells

75
Q

What is Libman’s test?

A

used to assess pt pain tolerance - examiner uses thumbs to apply increasing amts of pressure to mastoid processes

76
Q

Why is bacterial infection of the middle ear a concern?

A

Can spread infection to other structures, potentially lethal complications