Exam 1 Practice Flashcards

1
Q

Which is not a symptom of parkinsons Gait?
a. hypokinesia
b. freezing of gait
c. short, shuffled steps
d. hemiplegia

A

d. hemiplegia

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2
Q

Be able to identify facial landmarks

A
  1. outer canthus
  2. inner canthus
  3. alas
  4. philtrum
  5. tragus
  6. nasion
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3
Q

What is retrognathic jaw? (photo was shown on last one)

A

mandibular jaw is posterior to where is should be

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4
Q

which carcinoma comprises 90% of all cancers?

A

squamous cell

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5
Q

Which are considered verrucose?
a. basal cell
b. squamous cell
c. melanoma
d. both basal and melanoma

A

b. squamous cell

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6
Q

Which of the following is incorrect when discussing basal cells
a. seen after years of sun exposure
b. have cratered surface
c. seen intraorally
d. most common skin carcinoma

A

c. seen intraorally

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7
Q

signs and symptoms of oral cancer

A

parasthesia and lymphadenopathy

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8
Q

what is exophthalmos and what can it be a sign of

A

abnormal protruding of the eyes and it is a sign of hyperthyroidism

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9
Q

Are these statements true or false:
Infected lymph nodes are compressible.
Infected lymph nodes are mobile.

A

false, true?

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10
Q

Are these statements true or false:
most common cervical lymph node abnormality is lymphadenopathy.
thyroid gland is most often palpable

A

true, false

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11
Q

Are these statements true or false:
prodromal signs of aphthous is tingling and burning. prodromal signs of herpes is tingling and itching.

A

both true

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12
Q

Which is an incorrect symptom of TMD
a. insomnia
b. joint pain
c. neck ache
d. malocclusion

A

d. malocclusion (not a symptom, its a cause)

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13
Q

True or False: surgery is typically one of the first tx for TMD

A

false

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14
Q

What are the three types of aphthous

A

minor, major and herpetiform aphthous

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15
Q

What is looked for on a TMD exam

A

lateral tongue scalloping, tooth mobility, buccal mucosal ridging

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16
Q

what are symptoms of xerostomia

A

dysphagia, cervical caries, angular cheilitis

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17
Q

When wiped off by a 2x2 leaves an erythramatous base?

A

acute pseudomembranous candidiasis

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18
Q

Risk factors for candidiasis

A

-immunocompromised
-pregnancy
-poor oral hygiene
- smoking
- stress
-depression
- birth control pills
- diabetes
- dentures that dont fit
- xerostomia
- iron and b12 definceny

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19
Q

What would indicate that your patient is immunocompromised

A

hairy leukoplasia
not: leukodema

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20
Q

Your patient has ill-fitting dentures from xerostomia, and long-term antibiotics, which of the following conditions would explain this

A

candidiasis

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21
Q

5 year old presents with fever, malaise, and cold sores. what condition could he have

A

herpes gingivostomatitis

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22
Q

What is not true of periodontal pockets

A

Not true: depth is less than 3mm
all true: bleeding and inflammation often occurs, caused by bacterial plaque and clinical attachment loss

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23
Q

What are the six probing measurements

A
  • distofacial
  • facial
  • mesiofacial
  • distolingual
  • lingual
  • mesiolingual
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24
Q

Lichen planus is present on skin and mucous membranes. Lesions are not always painful

A

both true

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25
what is paralysis on one side of the body
hemiplegia
26
All are cancer precautions for head and neck therapy except? a. Xerostomia b. Mucosal Irritation c. Cervical Caries d. Immunocompromised
D. immunocompromised
27
What is the most common skin cell lesion? a. Basal Cell Carcinoma b. Squamous Cell Carcinoma c. Melanoma
A. basal cell carcinoma
28
What type of cancer has irregular borders, crusty surface, and persistent thick rough scaly patches that may bleed?
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
29
What does excess spacing between the eyes display?
Ocular Hypertelorism
30
TF: The most common type of lymphadenopathy is cervical/head and neck. The thyroid is most often palpable.
First statement is true. Second Statement is false.
31
What is the disease called that involves candida and most often occurs at the corners of the mouth?
angular cheilitis
32
TF: Surgery is the most common treatment of TMD (BONUS QUESTION)
false
33
Oral Cancer Stages
a. 40% of oral cancers are found in Stages I or II i. 80-90% survival rate b. 60% of oral cancers are found in Stages III or IV i. 33% survival rate after 3 years but a 67% recurrence rate in 2 years.
34
Are possible combinations of signs/symptoms of oral cancer a. Nonhealing Ulcer and Paresis b. Lymphadenopathy and Paresthesia c. Healing Ulcer and Lymphadenopathy d. Paresthesia and Healing Ulcer e. Bleeding f. Hardness g. Drooling
b. lymphadenopathy and paresthesia
35
All are types of disease that are atypical AND asymptomatic except? a. Linea Alba b. Leukoedema c. Fordyce’s Granules d. Palatal/Mandibular Tori
b. leukoedema
36
What type of disease can be rubbed off? a. Leukoedema b. Leukoplakia c. Candidiasis
c. candidiasis
37
Both herpes simplex and aphthous ulcers display ulcers which are painful
Herpes Simplex display Vesicles i. Herpes Simplex Virus = 2 weeks of healing ii. Aphthous Ulcers = 3 days of pain and 7 days of healing
38
signs/symptoms of Benign Migratory Glossitis
Geographic Tongue Normally Asymptomatic Becomes Symptomatic with Spicy/Acidic Foods
39
What is the disease that is caused by the Epstein-Barr Virus, associated with HIV infection or other immunosuppressive conditions, and display white rough patches?
hairy leukoplakia
40
All are signs/symptoms of Xerostomia except? a. Candidiasis b. Angular Cheilitis c. Dysphagia d. Dyspnea e. Burning tongue f. Root and Cervical Caries g. Stomatitis
d. dyspnea
41
Type of Candidiasis that display creamy white patches and easily wipes off leaving an erythematous base? a. Acute Pseudomembranous Candidiasis b. Atrophic Candidiasis c. Thrush
a. acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
42
What is the disease that display oral lesions with high fever, malaise, cervical lymphadenopathy, and dehydration?
Herpes Simplex
43
TF: Herpes Simplex Virus prodromal signs include tingling, itching, pain, and burning 6-24 hours before lesions appear. Aphthous Ulcers prodromal signs appear 1-2 days before lesions appear.
both are true
44
Aphthous Ulcers (Canker Sores) Clinical Forms
a. Minor – Shortest duration b. Major – Longest duration per episode, Onset after puberty, May cause scarring c. Herpetic Form – Greatest amount and Most recurs frequently, Onset in Adults
45
TF: When probing, depths exceed 3mm and display inflammation/bleeding. While probing, must walk the tip of probe along the entire length of the junctional epithelium.
both true
46
Periodontal probing measures 6 sites per tooth except? a. Distofacial, Facial, Mesiofacial b. Distolingual, Lingual, Mesiolingual c. Mesiodistal
c. mesiodistal
47
Which of the following is known as a supernumerary tooth?
mesiodens
48
Your patient has gross incoordination of muscle movements. What does he have?
ataxic gait
49
Freezing gait is common of what disease
parkinsons
50
Which of the following is not a risk factor for oral cancer?
xerostomia
51
Your patient has sulfur-colored lesions that are asymptomatic. What are these called?
Fordyce granules
52
Which term is used to describe a healthy lymph node?
Compressible
53
Which of the following is NOT a sign of routine cervical infection when palpating lymph nodes? choose 2 a. Firm b. Attached (fixed) c. Compressible d. Non-tender
a. firm b. attached (fixed)
54
Basal cell carcinoma is the most common cell type of oral cancers. Oral cancers are most often diagnosed in stages I-II
both statements are false
55
*Picture of wart/cauliflower like lesion* What term would you use to describe this lesion?
Verrucose
56
Which of the following would not be a risk factor for a skin lesion?
Uniform color
57
Hypertelorism could be caused by (choose 2): a. a syndrome b. a congenital defect c. ocular herpes
a. a syndrome b. a congenital defect
58
When giving an extra oral exam, you ask the patient to swallow. What are you palpating?
Thyroid gland
59
Which of the following does not have a quick onset?
Lichen planus
60
Which of the following is not a risk factor for candida?
Sun exposure
61
What has whickam striae?
Lichen planus
62
Which of the following disappears when stretched?
Leukoedema
63
What can you not expect to see in a pt with TMD? a. tooth mobility can you NOT expect to see in a pt with TMD? b. buccal mucosal ridging c. lateral tongue scalloping d. torus palatinus (torus mandibularis is more common w bruxism-> TMD) e. all of above
d. torus palatinus
64
Which is NOT a high risk area for oral cancer?*
buccal mucosa
65
a sloughing (shedding) of epithelium caused by disease, trauma or chemical burn (aspirin burn) is termed?
eschar
66
most common in african americans that disappears when stretched
leukoedema
67
What has painful erythematous erosions and ulcers?
lichen planus
68
Benign Migratory Glossitis is also known as?
geographic tongue
69
Which of the following could be a risk of Xerostomia a. caries b. candidiasis c. angular cheilitis d. burning tongue e. gingival stomatitis f. All of the above
f. all of the following
70
What is associated with herpes simplex? a. vesicle b. papule
a. vesicle
71
You should hold the probe with a modified pen grasp. The probe should be held parallel to the long axis of the tooth.
Both statements true
72
Probing depths range from 1-3mm. Periodontal pockets occurs as a result of apical migration of the junctional epithelium.
Both statements are true
73
ID the outer cantus
#1
74
What is 7 called? a. Submental b. Submandibular c. Tonsillar/Jugulodigastric d. Preauricular e. Postauricular f. Occipital g. Anterior Cervical Chain h. Supraclavicular i. Posterior Cervical Chain
g. Anterior Cervical Chain
75
ID
Verrucose
76
ID; “Patches, Red Area, and Variable Size/Shape”
Erythema
77
ID
Eschar
78
ID; “white, rough, and asymptomatic"
Nicotine stomatitis
79
ID
Lichen Planus
80
ID
Aphthous ulcer
81
ID
irritation fibroma - bulla
82
Separarte, not running together
Discrete
83
running together or blending, but they were orginally separate
Confluent
84
ID
Herpes simplex
85
ID
Linea alba
86