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physiology lecture > exam 1- cell physiology and neurophysiology > Flashcards

exam 1- cell physiology and neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

why do we develop illness or disease?

A

our body loses STABILITY via insults such as chemicals, toxins, bacteria, viruses, physical damages

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2
Q

what is physiology

A

the study of how living organisms work (the function, the why/how). it is an integrated science

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3
Q

closed loop mechanism components

A

variable, sensor, integrating center, effector

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4
Q

variable

A

the factor that is being regulated. this can be body temp, for example. if it changes beyond the set point, or what is considered to be “normal,” your body will sense that. hence the next step being the sensor

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5
Q

sensor

A

(sensory neuron). this is the receptor. the sensor senses changes in the variable

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6
Q

afferent pathway

A

“INto INtegrating center” the afferent pathway goes from the sensor to the integrating center (control center)

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7
Q

integrating center

A

aka the control center, central nervous system. the control center can make a decision to adjust your bodily function to bring the variable back to the set point. this decision becomes a COMMAND, hence command center

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8
Q

efferent pathway

A

“Efferent Exiting” the efferent pathway goes from the control center to the effector

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9
Q

effector

A

the workers. they will do everything necessary in response to the command regarding the variable. this is where the changes are made

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10
Q

homeostasis

A

dynamic internal consistency

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11
Q

negative feedback

A

negative feedback is employed to reinforce the parameters. if the variable gets too high, it will go back down (neg. feedback) to reinstate the balance within the parameter. If it gets too low, it will rise. neg feedback creates a response that moves the variable in the opposite direction

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12
Q

is homeostatic negative feedback an open or closed loop?

A

closed, it keeps a variable toward the set point

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13
Q

set point

A

the averaged mean over a long period

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14
Q

dynamic consistency

A

know that the set point can be changed to the body’s needs. ex: fever

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15
Q

what happens when negative feedback fails?

A

disease/pathological condition

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16
Q

key component of non homeostatic feedback

A

amplification! if one baby in a room of 10 starts crying, they will all start crying. this is positive feedback

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17
Q

what kind of loop does positive feedback have?

A

closed loop. activates systems rapidly and requires an exit to stop. here, the integrating center is simply saying “we need more” -there is no set point in mind here. we got a problem and we gotta solve it quick!

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18
Q

examples of positive feedback

A

blood clotting, uterine contraction during childbirth

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19
Q

blood clotting example of positive feedback

A

what happens first? there’s a break in your blood vessel wall. this is where the cycle of positive feedback begins. the body needs to maintain blood pressure and blood volume. this is maintained through negative feedback (it has a set point reference). Here, the wound needs to be closed. but how? clotting. clotting needs to be a rapid process, so this action is positive feedback. after the break in the vessel happens, clotting occurs with the help of platelets. the circular cycle continues until the platelets have enough team members to get the clotting done. the recruiting process will continue until then. clotting proceeds, then the cycle may end when finished clotting.

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20
Q

what detects changes of a biological parameter such as skin temperature?

A

sensor

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21
Q

what directly activates effectors?

A

efferent pathway

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22
Q

what’s an example of altered set point of the homeostatic negative feedback?

A

fever

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23
Q

what describes a bodily function that is controlled by negative feedback?

A

in a response to polyuria, you drink more water

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24
Q

what describes a bodily function that is controlled by positive feedback?

A

bleeding from a cut activates the platelets until a plug is formed

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25
Q

T/F
if anatomy is about how the brain looks, physiology is about how the brain functions

A

true

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26
Q

T/F
hypothesis is a proven conclusion

A

false

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27
Q

T/F
the sensor detecting changes in a physiological parameter relays the information to the integrating center via the efferent pathway

A

false

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28
Q

T/F
positive feedback is an open loop homeostatic mechanism that amplifies the input signal

A

false

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29
Q

T/F
blood clotting is an example of a closed loop positive feedback that the body responds to bleeding

A

true

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30
Q

T/F
negative feedback is an open loop feedback mechanism that is used to maintain the internal stability

A

false

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31
Q

what’s a stem cell

A

an undeclared cell. it can duplicate and change into many different cells

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32
Q

zygote

A

can make everything. zygote can turn to totipotent cell

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33
Q

totipotent cell

A

can turn into an embryo/placenta

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34
Q

pluripotent

A

can develop into any cell type of the body, but not embryo

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35
Q

pluripotent turns to multipotent, which can then turn into a limited number of cells with the same lineage

A
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36
Q

ectoderm line

A

ectoderm cells: nuerons, glial cells, epidermis, retina/lens, pigment cells

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37
Q

mesoderm line

A

mesoderm cells. connective tissue, skeletal muscles, smooth muscles, urogenital system, adipose tissue, blood cells

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38
Q

endoderm line

A

endoderm cells. pulmonary alveoli, thyroid gland, pancreatic cells

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39
Q

4 basic types of cells

A

nerve cell, muscle cell, epithelial cell, connective cell

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40
Q

nerve cell

A

brain, spinal cord, nerves

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41
Q

muscle cell

A

cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, skeletal muscle

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42
Q

epithelial tissue

A

lining of GI tract organs and other hollow organs, skin surface (epidermis)

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43
Q

connective tissue

A

fat and other soft padding tissue, bone, tendon

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44
Q

connective tissue matrix amount

A

extensive. it is the glue because it secretes extensive amount of matrix

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45
Q

epithelial matrix type

A

basement membrane

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46
Q

muscle cell unique feature

A

able to generate electrical signals, force, and movement

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47
Q

nerve cell unique feature

A

able to generate electrical signals

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48
Q

a cell

A

the smallest unit. basic unit of the body. 100 trillions of cells work together

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49
Q

a tissue

A

a group of the same cells

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50
Q

an organ

A

consists of multiple tissues that work together to perform a specific function

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51
Q

an organ system

A

consists of multiple organs that work together for a specific job

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52
Q

ten organ systems of our body

A

immune, digestive, cardiovascular, integumentary, respiratory, endocrine, reproductive, excretory, musculoskeletal, nervous

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53
Q

hyperplasia

A

increased reproduction rate of cells causes larger size in organ/tissue

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54
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase and growth of muscle cells

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55
Q

metaplasia

A

cells change form

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56
Q

dysplasia

A

abnormal cell type in a tissue (hearts and stars and circles)

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57
Q

nucleus

A

the site of DNA replication and transcription

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58
Q

nucleoli

A

dense structures which contain genes for forming the RNA associated with ribosomes

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59
Q

chromatin

A

threadlike material composed of DNA plus histone proteins

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60
Q

the nucleus is the site of

A

DNA duplication (for cell division), transcription (DNA to primary RNA), and RNA processing (primary RNA to mRNA)

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61
Q

what does helicase do

A

unwinds the DNA double helix. this is part of DNA replication in the nucleus

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62
Q

what does DNA polymerase do

A

makes a new strand utilizing template. this is part of DNA replication in the nucleus

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63
Q

transcription

A

nucleus is the place. RNA polymerase is needed. substitution from T in DNA sequence to U in RNA sequence

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64
Q

exons

A

coding sequence

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65
Q

introns

A

noncoding sequence

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66
Q

ribosome

A

site of translation. consists of 2 subunits: small (function: decoding mRNA codons), and large (function: formation of peptide bonds)

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67
Q

summary of gene expression

A

transcription occurs in the nucleus (DNA -> primary RNA -> mRNA)
translation occurs in the ribosome (mRNA -> protein)

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68
Q

where do free ribosomes function

A

the cytosol

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69
Q

what do membrane bound ribosomes do

A

synthesize proteins that are bound for organelles in the rough ER, golgi apparatus, lysosome, or plasma membrane

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70
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

with ribosomes. membrane proteins and secretory proteins

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71
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

without ribosomes. lipid/steroid synthesis and calcium storage

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72
Q

golgi apparatus

A

site of modification, packaging, and trafficking of secretory protein or membrane proteins

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73
Q

mitochondria

A

site of ATP synthesis and cellular respiration

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74
Q

lysosome

A

garbage disposal for your cell. contains digestive enzymes. digests damaged cell organelles

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75
Q

peroxisome

A

detox center for your cell. produces hydrogen peroxide

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76
Q

cytoskeleton

A

for movement of organelles as well as shape/movement of a cell

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77
Q

microfilament

A

fine, thread-like protein fibers made of actin. gliding, contraction, cytokinesis

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78
Q

intermediate filament

A

provide tensile strength for the cell: keratin

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79
Q

microtubule

A

cylindrical tubes of tubulin. determines the cell shape and movement of cell organelles and vesicles

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80
Q

plasma membrane

A

site of cell boundary and transcellular movement of solutes and solvents

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81
Q

ICF

A

intracellular fluid. 2/3 of body’s water

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82
Q

ISF

A

interstitial fluid

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83
Q

ECF

A

extracellular fluid. 1/3 of body’s fluids. composed of interstitial fluid and plasma

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84
Q

major components of the plasma membrane

A

phospholipid bilayer and proteins

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85
Q

what do lipids do

A

repel water but pass small hydrophobic molecules like gases and steoids

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86
Q

is the head of a phospholipid hydrophobic or hydrophilic

A

hydrophilic

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87
Q

is the tail of a phospholipid hydrophobic or hydrophilic

A

hydrophobic

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88
Q

what do unsaturated fatty acid tails do

A

increase the membrane fluidity. this is what causes the bent bobby pin tail

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89
Q

integral membrane proteins

A

proteins that are embedded in the lipid bilayer. transmembrane proteins for channels, carriers, receptors. shoe lace that is going through the lace holes

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90
Q

peripheral proteins

A

proteins that are not embedded in the lipid bilayer. shoelace part that is tied, not bound to the lace holes

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91
Q

the embryonic stem cells that can differentiate into any cell type of the body but cannot make a placenta is an example of __________ cells

A

pluripotent

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92
Q

which cell secretes an extensive extracellular matrix?

A

connective cells

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93
Q

transcription occurs in the __________ whereas translation occurs in the ________

A

nucleus, ribosome

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94
Q

damaged cell organelles are digested in the _______ whereas modification of toxins occurs in the ________

A

lysosome, peroxisome

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95
Q

actin is a _________ whereas keratin is an _________

A

microfilament, intermediate filament

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96
Q

the plasma membrane is consisted of

A

phospholipid, proteins, cholesterol, carbohydrate

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97
Q

T/F
hematopoietic stem cells are pluripotent

A

false

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98
Q

T/F
connective tissue cell type secretes a large amount of extracellular matrix

A

true

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99
Q

T/F
upon DNA replication, there are one old DNA double strands and one new DNA double strands

A

false

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100
Q

T/F
transcription is the cellular process of making single-stranded RNA using a non-coding strand of DNA as a template

A

true

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101
Q

T/F
Translation occurs only in ribosomes that are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum

A

false

102
Q

T/F
mitochondria is abundantly present in red blood cells which must deliver oxygen to other cells

A

false

103
Q

T/F
damaged cellular organelles are digested/broken into recyclable components in peroxisome

A

false

104
Q

T/F
Most of the body’s water is found in the plasma

A

false

105
Q

T/F
the plasma membrane is made of the phospholipid bilayer, proteins, cholesterol, and carbohydrates

A

true

106
Q

T/F
the plasma membrane with a high percentage of polyunsaturated fatty acids would have a higher fluidity and thus easily pass gases

A

true

107
Q

extracellular fluid is made up of

A

interstitial fluid and plasma

108
Q

osmolarity

A

the total solute concentration

109
Q

Na+ concentration is higher in the extracellular fluid or intracellular fluid?

A

extracellular. 142 mmol/l

110
Q

K+ concentration is higher in the extracellular fluid or the intracellular fluid?

A

intracellular. 155 mmol/l

111
Q

Cl- concentration is higher in the extracellular fluid or the intracellular fluid?

A

extracellular. 115 mmol/l

112
Q

protein is negligible where?

A

interstitial fluid

113
Q

where does osmolarity remain in ICF?

A

300 mOsM

114
Q

1 liter solution of 2 moles of NaCl has a total osmolarity of ______ OsM

A

4

115
Q

what does the plasma membrane separate?

A

intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid

116
Q

passive transport of hydrophobic molecules by diffusion

A

small hydrophobic molecules. gases (oxygen, carbon dioxide). down the concentration gradient (high to low)

117
Q

passive transport of hydrophilic (charged) ions

A

pass through integral proteins that form a channel. down the concentration gradient (high to low). Na+, K+, Ca++

118
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

no energy required

119
Q

large polar substances require carriers (revolving doors) to be attached to the bilayer as a gate

A

this is moved by facilitated diffusion down the concentration gradient

120
Q

what is a carrier?

A

integral protein

121
Q

characteristics of carrier-mediated transport

A

specificity, competition, saturation

122
Q

specificity

A

only people in dress code can go through the revolving door

123
Q

competition

A

everyone in a dress code competes for a spot in the revolving door

124
Q

active movement

A

requires a carrier molecule and energy. against concentration gradient (low to high)

125
Q

primary active transporters

A

can do it themselves. gave themselves an enzyme ATPase which gives them the energy to push against conc. gradient

126
Q

primary active transporters can do what

A

pump Na+ and K+ in opposite directions

127
Q

osmosis

A

water moving in and out of the cell

128
Q

tonicity

A

cell maintains volume (doesn’t change)

129
Q

in order for osmosis to occur…

A

there must be a difference in solute concentration and the membrane must be selectively permeable to water

130
Q

movement of solvent/water

A

passive movement by diffusion, no energy required

131
Q

in the absence of the solute concentration gradient, water will _________ across the membrane

A

not move

132
Q

in the presence of the solute concentration gradient, water will ________ across the membrane

A

move from the low solute concentration to the high solute concentration

133
Q

how is osmolarity and tonicity related

A

water movement across the cell membrane would change the volume of the cell

134
Q

hypotonic

A

less than 300 mOsm. a lower osmolarity than the inside of a cell. water will move into the cell. cell swells

135
Q

isotonic

A

300 mOsm. the same osmolarity as the inside of the cell. no water movement, cell remains intact.

136
Q

hypertonic

A

greater than 300 mOsm. a higher osmolality than the inside of a cell. water moves out of a cell. cell shrinks

137
Q

exoctosis

A

intracellular -> extracellular

138
Q

endycytosis

A

extracellular -> intracellular

139
Q

passive transport includes

A

simple diffusion, ion channel, facilitated diffusion

140
Q

what transports require energy

A

active and vesicle-mediated

141
Q

passive diffusion

A

no energy required. simple diffusion through lipid layer or ion channels. facilitated diffusion through carriers

142
Q

active transport

A

energy required. primary and secondary active transporters through carriers

143
Q

movement of solvents/water

A

osmosis

144
Q

our cell is surrounded by interstitial fluid with the osmolarity of _______

A

300 mOsm

145
Q

diffusion of ions through a specific ion channel depends on

A

concentration gradient

146
Q

a red blood cell would _____ in the solution of 200 mOsm because water would move ________ the red blood cell

A

burst, into

147
Q

T/F
Na+ ion is at equilibrium at the same concentration across the cell membrane

A

false

148
Q

T/F
osmolarity of the plasma remains at 300 mOsm

A

true

149
Q

T/F
osmolarities between 1m glucose and 1m NaCl solutions are the same

A

false

150
Q

T/F
diffusion is a passive movement of a molecule that occurs down its concentration gradient at the expense of energy expenditure

A

false

151
Q

T/F
exocytosis is an active transport that requires energy

A

true

152
Q

resting membrane potential

A

the inside of the cell compared to the outside of the cell at rest (-90 to -65 mV)

153
Q

depolarization

A

the membrane potential becomes less negative, inside the cell becomes more positive

154
Q

repolarization

A

return to the RMP

155
Q

hyperpolarization

A

the membrane potential becomes more negative, inside the cell becomes more negative

156
Q

how does de/re/hyper polarization happen?

A

change in permeability. ions go through ion channels

157
Q

characteristics of ion channels

A

selectivity (sodium channels only allows sodium), gating (closed v open, inactivated or desensitized).

158
Q

passive ion channels

A

leaky channels, always open. K+ leaking down its concentration gradient

159
Q

voltage gated channels

A

open/close when a membrane potential change is detected. open + inactivate when membrane depolarizes. close when membrane repolarizes

160
Q

chemically-gated ion channels

A

open when a ligand (neurotransmitter) binds to it

161
Q

when does depolarization occur

A

when membrane permeability to Na+ (and/or Ca++) increases.
when more permeable to sodium

162
Q

which 2 cell types generate action potentials

A

nervous cells and muscle cells

163
Q

what do dendrites receive

A

incoming signals (graded potentials)

164
Q

what does the amplitude of graded potentials depend on?

A

the strength of the stimulus

165
Q

excitatory

A

depolarize

166
Q

inhibitory

A

repolarize/hyperpolarize

167
Q

temporal summation

A

2 excitatory potentials will summate if they arrive in the axon hillock within a short period of time

168
Q

spatial summation

A

3 presynaptic potentials can summate to generate excitatory postsynaptic potential

169
Q

EPSP

A

excitatory postsynaptic potential. depolarization

170
Q

IPSP

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potential. repolarization or hyperpolarization

171
Q

if there is an inhibitory signal….

A

spatial summation: inhibitory and excitatory signals may “cancel” and not get an AP

172
Q

divergence

A

the “family tree” neuron. the AP that neuron 1 generates impacts the properties of following neurons

173
Q

convergence

A

reverse family tree. multiple neurons down to one signal

174
Q

summation is about

A

graded potentials in a cell

175
Q

pathways are about

A

levels of signals and their amplifications

176
Q

which cell types have action potentials?

A

neurons and muscle cells

177
Q

during the upstroke of a neuronal action potential, the membrane permeability to _____ increases

A

Na+

178
Q

which type of ion channel is important for the initial depolarization of the neuronal AP?

A

voltage gated Na+ channel

179
Q

which does not decrease in strength as it moves away from the stimulus?

A

action potentials

180
Q

a graded potential that causes a depolarization is

A

excitatory

181
Q

the potential where an action potential is generated is called

A

threshold

182
Q

the opening of which channel type would likely cause an inhibitory postsynaptic potential?

A

gated K+

183
Q

absolute refractory period

A

membrane is incapable of producing another AP. vg Na+ channels are open or inactivated

184
Q

relative refractory period

A

axon membrane can produce another AP but requires a stronger stimulus

185
Q

nodes of ranvier

A

the spaces between myelin. contains vg na+ and k+ channels

186
Q

saltatory conduction

A

salta/brinca= jump. jumping from node to node, fast rate of conduction

187
Q

electrical synapse

A

gap junctions allow direct ionic current flow between cells. smooth and cardiac muscles, glial cells

188
Q

chemical synapse

A

uses neurotransmitters released from presynaptic neuron that bind to receptor proteins on postsynaptic cell

189
Q

ionotropic receptors

A

chemically gated ion channels. rapid, short acting

190
Q

metabotropic receptors

A

g-protein coupled receptors. generate graded potentials. slow acting and long term effects

191
Q

acetylcholine (Ach)

A

both exitatory and inhibitory

192
Q

nicotinic Ach receptors

A

ionotropic, excitatory. found in: autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle fibers

193
Q

muscarinic Ach receptors

A

metabotropic, found in the plasma membrane of smooth and cardiac muscle cells

194
Q

epinephrine

A

monoamine NT, peripheral nerves and adrenal medulla

195
Q

norepinephrine

A

monoamine NT, central nervous system and peripheral nerves

196
Q

serotonin

A

monoamine NT, CNS

197
Q

dopamine

A

monoamine NT, CNS

198
Q

glutamate and NMDA

A

amino acid NT, CNS, excitatory

199
Q

glycine and GABA

A

amino acid NT, CNS, inhibitory

200
Q

polypeptides

A

CCK (satiety), neuropeptide Y (appetite), substance P (pain), endorphins (analgesic). metabotropic receptors

201
Q

gap junctions form

A

electrical synapse

202
Q

organization of the nervous system

A

afferent pathway -> central nervous system -> efferent pathway

203
Q

peripheral nervous system glial cells

A

schwann cells, satellite cells

204
Q

central nervous system glial cells

A

astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells

205
Q

schwann cells

A

wrap around axons to form myelination. (each myelination cloud is a schwann cell)

206
Q

satellite cells

A

basic function: support
support neuron cell bodies with ganglia

207
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

similar to schwann, form a myelin sheath around axons of CNS, except one oli can contribute to several myelination segments on dif axons

208
Q

microglia

A

phagocytes that help get rid of foreign substances in the CNS

209
Q

astrocytes

A

basic function: support
helps maintain a normal environment around neurons. maintains blood brain barrier. keeps blood out of cerebral spinal fluid

210
Q

ependymal cells

A

line the cavities of the brain and spinal cord, make cerebrospinal fluid

211
Q

chemoreceptors

A

chemical stimuli in env

212
Q

photoreceptors

A

eye. rods and cones

213
Q

thermoreceptors

A

temperature

214
Q

mechanoreceptors

A

touch and pressure

215
Q

nociceptors

A

pain

216
Q

proprioceptors

A

body position

217
Q

grey matter is comprised of

A

cell bodies, dendrites, synapses

218
Q

white matter is comprised of

A

axons connecting different parts of grey matter

219
Q

forebrain

A

thalamus, cortex, limbic system

220
Q

thalamus

A

relay station channeling sensory information

221
Q

cortex

A

control sensory processing, motor control, thought, memory

222
Q

limbic system

A

basic emotions, drives, behaviors

223
Q

hypothalamus

A

master controller of the endocrine system

224
Q

amygdala

A

sensations of pleasure/fear

225
Q

midbrain

A

reticular formation. filters sensory input, filters thoughts to avoid sensory overload.

226
Q

hindbrain

A

cerebellum, medulla oblongata

227
Q

cerebellum

A

coordinates movements, stores some motor memory

228
Q

medulla oblongata

A

controls autonomic functions (respirations, cardiac, vomiting, swallowing)

229
Q

sensory motor neurons

A

go into the central nervous system. part of the peripheral system

230
Q

efferent motor pathways

A

exit the central nervous system. part of the peripheral system. 2 pathways: somatic (voluntary) and autonomic (involuntary)

231
Q

somatic nervous system

A

carries signals from the CNS to the skeletal muscles (which serve as the effector) to control movement

232
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

regulates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

233
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

fight or flight

234
Q

parasympathetic nervous system

A

rest & digest

235
Q

sympathetic nervous system effects what

A

dilates pupils, speeds heart rate, speeds breathing, inhibits digestion, produces sweaty palms

236
Q

parasympathetic nervous system effects what

A

contracts pupils, slows heart rate, slows breathing, stimulates digestion, dries palms

237
Q

vagus nerve

A

effector organs: heart, lungs, most visceral organs

238
Q

sympathetic pathway:

A

CNS -> Ach leaves as neurotransmitter -> binds to nicotinic receptor -> autonomic ganglion -> norepinephrine as neurotransmitter -> binds to adrenergic receptor on the target tissue

239
Q

parasympathetic pathway:

A

CNS -> Ach leaves as neurotransmitter -> binds to nicotinic receptor -> autonomic ganglion -> Ach leaves as neurotransmitter -> binds to muscarinic receptor on the target tissue

240
Q

adrenal sympathetic pathway:

A

CNS -> Ach releases into adrenal medulla -> epinephrine gets released as neurotransmitter into blood stream -> goes everywhere

241
Q

what does the sympathetic preganglionic neuron release

A

Ach

242
Q

what does the parasympathetic preganglionic neuron release

A

Ach

243
Q

what does Ach from the sympathetic pathway bind to

A

nicotinic receptor (ionotropic)

244
Q

what does Ach from the parasympathetic pathway bind to

A

nicotinic receptor (ionotropic)

245
Q

sympathetic postganglionic neuron releases

A

norepinephrine

246
Q

parasympathetic postganglionic neuron releases

A

Ach

247
Q

sympathetic norepinephrine binds to

A

adrenergic receptors (metabotropic)

248
Q

parasympathetic Ach binds to

A

muscarinic receptors (metabotropic)

249
Q

epinephrine is secreted from __________

A

the adrenal medulla

250
Q

which type of Ach receptor is on the postganglionic neurons of parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves?

A

nicotinic

251
Q

a receptor that is on skeletal muscle cells

A

nicotinic

physiology lecture (4 decks)

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