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Human Nutrition > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

During digestion, what is each macronutrient broken down into

carbs, fat, protein

A

carbs –> simple sugars
protein –> amino acids
fats —> glycerol + fatty acid

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2
Q

5 examples of chemical digestion

A
  1. amylase
  2. lipase
  3. HCl
  4. Bile
  5. Protease
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3
Q

4 stages of digestion

A
  1. ingestion
  2. digestion
  3. absorption
  4. excretion
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4
Q

Purpose of mechanical digestion

A

increase surface area to allow for increased enzymatic activity

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5
Q

Anatomy of the GI tract

A
  1. mouth
  2. esophagus
  3. stomach
  4. duodenum (SI)
  5. jujenum (SI)
  6. illieum (SI)
  7. cecum (LI)
  8. Ascending colon (LI)
  9. Transverse colon (LI)
  10. Descending colon (LI)
  11. Rectum (LI)
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6
Q

Peristalsis

A

coordinated muscular contractions that propel food through the GI tract

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7
Q

Segmentation

A

uncoordinated muscular contractions that mix digestible materials for further breakdown

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8
Q

Chemical digestion in the mouth

A
  1. amylase

2. lipase

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9
Q

What are the 3 pancreatic secretions and their function

A
  1. amylase - carb digestion
  2. lipase - fat digestion
  3. Bicarbonate - stabalize pH
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10
Q

Where is bile secreted and what is its purpose

A

Liver

emulsifies fat

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11
Q

Rugae

A

folded walls in the stomach, can expand to increase stomach volume

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12
Q

Main site of chemical digestion

A

small intestine

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13
Q

parietal cells

A

found in stomach secrete HCl + intrinsic factor (B12 absorbtion)

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14
Q

Chief cells

A

found in stomach, secrete pepsinogen and lipase

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15
Q

Pepsinogen vs pepsin

A

Pepsinogen is inactive, becomes active Pepsin when HCl is present. Functions to breakdown protein.

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16
Q

Purpose of the Hepatic Portal System

A

water soluble nutrients in the SI bypass the circulatory system and go right to the liver. Fat soluble nutrients enter the lymph system.

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17
Q

Define metabolism

A

the sum of all of the physical and chemical reactions within an organism that are responsible for building up and breaking down molecules

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18
Q

Define energy metabolism

A

the sum of all the chemical reactions involved in the storage and breaking down of fuels to produce ATP

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19
Q

coenzymes

A

organic molecules necessary to the function of enzymes

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20
Q

2 ways glucose is stored when it reaches the liver

A
  1. glycogen

2. converted to fatty acid and stored as triglycerides in adipose tissue

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21
Q

What are 2 other molecules processed by the liver for energy

A
  1. fructose

2. galactose

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22
Q

Inputs and outputs of glycolysis

A

Input : glucose

Output: 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2 ATP

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23
Q

Wheres does glycolysis occur

A

cytosol

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24
Q

Explain the Cori Cycle

A

IN MUSCLES
glucose —-> 2 pyruvate —> 2 lactate + 2 ATP

2 lactate is transported to the liver

IN LIVER
2 lactate —–> 2 pyruvate —–> 2 glucose
costs 6 ATP to accomplish this

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25
Q

How much ATP is produces by anaerobic fermentation

A

2 ATP

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26
Q

What other function does anaerobic respiration serve other than ATP production

A

Regenerates NAD+ for use in glycolysis

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27
Q

Input and output of pyruvate oxidation

A

Input: 2 pyruvate

Output: NADH, CO2, 2 acetyl-coA

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28
Q

How many ATP are produced per round of the citric acid cycle

A

1 ATP

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29
Q

How many ATP are produced in the citric acid cycle per glucose molecule

A

2 ATP

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30
Q

How many NADH are produced per round of the citric acid cycle

A

3 NADH

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31
Q

How many NADH are produced per glucose molecule

A

6 NADH

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32
Q

How many FADH2 are produced per round of the citric acid cycle

A

1 FADH2

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33
Q

How many FADH2 are produced per glucose molecule

A

2 FADH2

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34
Q

3 requirements for the ETC

A
  1. copper (enzymes)
  2. iron (cytochromes)
  3. oxygen
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35
Q

2 sources of stored fatty acids for energy

A
  1. triglycerides in serum lipoprotein (free circulation)

2. triglycerides stored in adipose tissue

36
Q

2 enzymes that mobilize triglycerides

A
  1. Lipoprotein lipase (serum lipoprotein)

2. Hormone sensitive lipase (adipose tissue)

37
Q

2 stages of fat mobilization

A
  1. Lipolysis (Triglycerides —-> fatty acid + glycerol)

2. B oxidation

38
Q

Carnitine

A

Used to transport fatty acids from the cytosol to the mitochondria for B oxidation

39
Q

During fatty acid oxidation, how many carbons are broke apart at a time

A

2

40
Q

Where does B oxidation take place

A

mitochondria

41
Q

What are fatty acids converted to in B oxidation

A

Acetyl coA

42
Q

What is produced during B oxidation of a odd numbered chain and what happens to it

A

propnyl coA ; it enters as a citric acid cycle intermediate

43
Q

What are the body’s two preferred energy sources

A
  1. carbs

2. fat

44
Q

What are sources of amino acids for the body

A
  1. dietary protein

2. breaking down body proteins

45
Q

How can amino acids be used to make glucose or fatty acids

A

The amino group is removed and then the carbon skeleton that remains will make glucose in fasted state or fatty acids in a fed state

46
Q

What is the precursor molecule(s) for ketone bodies

A

2 molecules of acetyl coA

47
Q

3 examples of ketone bodies

A
  1. acetone
  2. B hydroxybuteric acid
  3. acetoacetic acid
48
Q

What are the major and minor sites of alcohol metabolism

A

MAJOR: liver
minor: stomach

49
Q

Explain how alcohol becomes acetate

A

Alcohol —alcohol dehydrogenase—> acetaldehyde

acetaldehyde—>acetaldehyde dehydrogenase —> acetate

50
Q

Explain the MEOS pathway

A

A method of alcohol oxidation found in the endoplasmic reticulum, it functions when there is excessive alcohol consumption and it prevents the BAC from rising quickly because alcohol is metabolized quicker.

51
Q

How are the following nutrients stored

  1. Glucose
  2. dietary triglycerides
  3. Dietary proteins
A
  1. glycogen in muscle and liver
  2. adipose tissue
  3. circulating amino acids
52
Q

When is gluconeogensis employed and how is it done

A

Gluconeogensis occurs in a fasted state and uses glucagonic amino acids

53
Q

Lipogenesis

A

synthesis of fat from non fat sources

54
Q

Name 4 things that can be converted to fat through lipogenesis

A
  1. alcohol
  2. acetyl coA
  3. carbs
  4. ketogenic amino acids
55
Q

During a fed state, there is a rise in which hormone

A

insulin

56
Q

during a fasting state, there is a rise in which hormone(s)

A
  1. glucagon

2. epinephrine

57
Q

During a prolonged fast (2 days+) which things will bodily processes will increase or decrease

A

DECREASE

  1. temp
  2. energy
  3. metabolic rate

INCREASE

  1. fatty acid use
  2. ketone bodies
58
Q

What happens to the risk of child obesity when there is starvation early in pregnancy

A

Increases

59
Q

What happens to the risk of child obesity when there is starvation late in pregnancy

A

less risk of obesity

60
Q

Define nutrition

A 
The study of 
1. intake
2. behavior
3. nutrients
4. constituents of nutrients
and how they affect overall human health
61
Q

Differentiate between essential and non-essential nutritents

A

essential —> body cannot make

nonessential –> body can make

62
Q

Name the 5 causes of death among the leading causes that are affected by nutrition

A
  1. Cancer
  2. Heart disease
  3. stroke
  4. diabetes
  5. alzheimers
63
Q

6 essential nurtients

A
  1. carbs
  2. fat
  3. protein
  4. minearls
  5. vitamins
  6. water
64
Q

How many calories (Kcal) are associated with 1 gram of each nutrient

Carbs
Fat
Alcohol
Protein

A

Carbs —-> 4 kcal
Fat —-> 9 kcal
Protein —> 4 kcal
Alcohol —-> 7 kcal

65
Q

Phytochemicals

A

Biologically active chemicals in plants, provide them with color, aroma, and flavor

66
Q

What are some benefits that may be associated with phytochemicals

A
  1. anti-inflammatory
  2. antioxidant
  3. hormone - like action
67
Q

What is the leading cause of worldwide blindness

A

Vitamin A deficiency

68
Q

DRI values

A

Dietary Reference Intake
4 values that constitute the amount of a specific nutrient required to meet the dietary needs on 97-97% of the population to keep them healthy.

69
Q

EAR value

A

Estimated Average Requirement
The amount of a certain nutrient that a population of a certain age and sex requires to ensure that 50% of that population is healthy

70
Q

RDA value

A

Recommended Daily Allowance
The amount of a certain nutrient that a population of a given age and sex needs in order to ensure that 97-97% of that population is healthy

71
Q

AI value

A

Adequate intake value
The minimum amount of a nutrient that should be consumed in order to be healthy as determined by both observation and research

72
Q

UL value

A

Upper limit

The maximum amount of a certain nutrient that can be consumed without any health consequences

73
Q

What is the Acceptable Macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for each macronutrient

A

Carbs —-> 40-65%
Protein —> 10-35%
Fat —-> 20-35%

74
Q

Food desert

A

a specific area or region in which access to affordable and quality foods is impaired

75
Q

What constitutes an urban area food desert

A

not within 1 mile of a grocery store

76
Q

What constitutes an rural area food desert

A

not within 10 miles of a grocery store

77
Q

Focuses of MyPlate 2015

A
  1. variety
  2. nutrition
  3. amount
78
Q

What should sodium intake be limited to

A

= 2300 mg for a normal person

= 1500 mg for a HTN/Pre-HTN pt

79
Q

What should added sugar consumption be limited to

A

= 10% of total calories

80
Q

What should trans fat/saturated fat consumption be limited to

A

= 10% of total calories

81
Q

4 characteristics of a healthy diet

A
  1. balance
  2. variety
  3. moderation
  4. adequecy
82
Q

Nutrient content claims

A

describes the level of nutrients in something

“good source of fiber”

83
Q

Health claims

A

links food w/ incidence of a disease

“May reduce risk of heart disease”

ARE FDA regulated

84
Q

Structure/function claim

A

Describes a nutrient role in health

“heart healthy”

NOT FDA regulated

85
Q

Celiac’s Disease

A

Body mounts an immune response against gluten and in doing so will damage the vili in the small intestine leading to chronic malabsorption.

86
Q

How much ATP is produced from 1 NADH

A

2.5

87
Q

How much ATP is produced from 1 FADH2

A

1.5

Human Nutrition (6 decks)

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