Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Chondroblasts:
Chondrocytes:

A
  1. Produce Matrix for cartilage (immature cells)

2. (mature) Cells surrounded by matrix in spaces called lacunae

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2
Q

Interstitial Growth:

Appositional Growth:

A
  1. From within the cartilage

2. Along the cartilage periphery

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3
Q

3 types of cartilage:

A

Hyaline: Articular surfaces and nose
Fibrocartilage: Vertebral processes, pubic symphysis
Elastic Cartilage: Pinna of the ear

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4
Q

4 functions of bone:

A
  • Support/Protection
  • Hemopoiesis
  • Movement
  • Storage of mineral and energy reserves
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5
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

A thin layer of hyaline cartilage at articulations to reduce friction

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6
Q

What are the 4 types of bones

A

Long bones
Short bones
Irregular bones
Flat bones

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7
Q

The ____ of a bone is the attachment sites for ligaments and tendons.

A

Epiphysis

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8
Q

The metaphysis, between the epiphysis and diaphysis, contains the _______.

A

Epiphyseal growth plate

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9
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

Hollow, cylindrical space in diaphysis that contains yellow bone marrow.

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10
Q

Osteoblasts:
Osteoclasts:

A
  1. Lay down matrix for new bone

2. Nuclear cells that dissolve bone matrix and release calcium

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11
Q

The _____ covers external surfaces of bone and is anchored by ______ in the bone matrix.

A
  1. Periosteum

2. Perforating Fibers

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12
Q

Osteoprogenitor cells:

A

Produce more osteoblasts or stem cells

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13
Q

Osteocytes:

A

Maintain bone matrix and detect mechanical stress

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14
Q

Spongy bone is made up of an open lattice of narrow plates called ______

A

Trabeculae

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15
Q

Canaliculi:

A

Small passageways that allow osteocytes to pass through them and communicate.

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16
Q

Osteon:

A

Mature functional unit of compact bone

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17
Q

Epidermal Layer (3):

A
  • Avascular
  • Made up of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
  • Has 5 layers
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18
Q

Stratum Basale (5):

A
  • Single layer of mitotic cells
  • Adjacent to the dermis
  • Keratinocytes (produce keratin/waterproof skin)
  • Melanocytes (produce melanin for pigment)
  • Tactile cells (sensitive to touch)
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19
Q

Stratum Spinosum (3):

A
  • Many layers thick
  • S. Basale daughter cells differentiate into highly specialized non-dividing keratinocytes
  • Contains epidermal dendritic cells (Immune defense and phagocytosis)
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20
Q

Stratum Granulosum (3):

A
  • 3-5 layers of keratinocytes
  • Fully keratinized cells are dead
  • Forms epidermal water barrier
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21
Q

Stratum Lucidum (2):

A
  • Thin, translucent, 2-3 layers thick

- Cells lack organelles, filled with eleidin-intermediate product of keratin maturation

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22
Q

Stratum Corneum (3):

A
  • Most superficial layer
  • 23 layers thick
  • Made up of dead keratinocytes
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23
Q

Thick vs. Thin Skin (2):

A
  • Thick skin contains all 5 epidermal layers

- Thin skin doesn’t contain stratum lucidum

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24
Q

Dermis is composed of ________

A

Areolar and dense irregular connective tissue

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25
Q

2 layers of the Dermis:

A

Papillary and Reticular

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26
Q

Papillary layer (3):

A
  • Superficial (next to epidermis)
  • Dermal papillae and epidermal ridges interlock- Increases S.A. between dermis and epidermis
  • Dermal papillae contain capillaries to supply nutrients
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27
Q

Reticular Layer (3):

A
  • Deeper/Thicker layer
  • Large bundles of collagen, blood vessels, glands, hair follicles and nerves
  • Collagen fibers connect dermis to hypodermis
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28
Q

3 reasons Dermis contains nerves:

A
  • Tactile Receptors
  • Controls blood flow
  • Controls glandular secretions
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29
Q

2 reasons Dermis contains blood vessels:

A
  • Supplies nutrients and helps regulate body temperature

- Vasodilation and Vasoconstriction

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30
Q

What is the significance of the Sternoclavicular Joint?

A

It is the only connection between the upper extremities and the axial skeleton.

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31
Q

What is meant by “gliding” of bone?

A

Articular surfaces move, but angle of bones stays the same.

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32
Q

Where does bone gliding occur?

A

Plane joints

i.e. Carpals and Tarsals

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33
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A
Plane
Hinge
Pivot
Condylar
Ball and Socket
Saddle
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34
Q

What are Tendon Sheaths?

A

Elongated bursae around tendons that restrict movement

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35
Q

What type of cells have an apical and basal surface?

A

Epithelial

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36
Q

Which type of tissue is avascular?

A

Epithelial

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37
Q

What is mesenchyme?

A

The source of all adult connective tissue

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38
Q

What is Simple epithelium?

A

A single layer of cells with all cells having an apical surface and attached to the basement membrane

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39
Q

What is Stratified epithelium?

A

Two or more layers of cells; not all cells have an apical surface nor do all cells attach to the basement membrane

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40
Q

What is Pseudostratified epithelium?

A

Cell nuclei give the appearance of a multilayered epithelium, but not all cells reach the apical surface

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41
Q

What makes fibrocartilage so strong?

A

Densely interwoven collagen fibers

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42
Q

What is the nail matrix?

A

An extension of the stratum corneum. Thickened growing part of the nail bed.

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43
Q

What is the nail plate composed of? (3)

A

A white, free edge of the nail
A pinkish nail body
A nail root that is covered by the skin

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44
Q

Lunula:

A

White semilunar proximal area of nail body caused by thickened underlying stratum basale obscuring capillaries in dermis

45
Q

What is hair?

A

Columns of keratinocytes growing from follicles deep in dermis or hypodermis

46
Q

Regions of a hair from deep to surface: (3)

A

– Hair bulb
– Hair root
– Hair shaft

47
Q

Hair bulb:

A

Swelling of epithelial cells where the hair

orginates

48
Q

Hair root:

A

Portion deep to the skin surface

49
Q

Hair shaft:

A

Portion extending beyond the skin

surface

50
Q

The ______ surrounds each hair.

A

Hair follicle

51
Q

________ muscles attach to hair shaft and respond to emotions and cold temperatures by contracting, standing the hair up, therefore
producing “goose bumps”.

A

Arrector Pilli

52
Q

5 Functions of Hair:

A
Protection 
 Heat retention 
 Sensory reception 
 Visual identification 
 Chemical signal dispersal
53
Q

What are the two exocrine glands of the skin?

A

Suderiferous: Can be merocrine or apocrine and produce watery solution (sweat)
Sebaceous: Produce oily solution

54
Q

Which glands are relatively inactive during childhood? (sex hormones at puberty cause secretions to increase significantly)

A

Sebaceous Glands

55
Q

Endosteum: (2)

A
  • Contains ALL (osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts)
  • Covers most internal surfaces of bone
56
Q

Periosteum: (5)

A

– Dense irregular connective tissue
– Covers external surfaces of bones (except
articular cartilage)
– Anchored by perforating fibers embedded in the bone matrix
– Acts as anchor for blood vessels and nerves – Contains osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts NOT osteoclasts

57
Q

What is Hydroxyapetite formed of?

A

Calcium Phosphate and Calcium Hydroxide

58
Q

What is one example of a place where flat bones are found?

A

The Skull

59
Q

The ______ are cylindrical structures that ________.

A
  1. Osteons

2. Run parallel to the diaphysis

60
Q

At center of osteon; carries blood vessels and

nerves:

A

Central Canal

61
Q

Rings of bone around central canal:

A

Concentric Lamellae

62
Q

Housed in lacunae between concentric lamellae:

A

Osteocytes

63
Q

Tiny, interconnecting channels within bone that

extend between lacunae:

A

Canaliculi

64
Q
Run perpendicular to and help connect multiple
central canals (Passageways for blood vessels and nerves):
A

Perforating Canals

65
Q

Rings of bone immediately internal to the periosteum or internal to the endosteum (Run the entire circumference of the bone):

A

Circumferential Lamellae

66
Q

Leftover parts of osteons that have been partially resorbed:

A

Interstitial Lamellae

67
Q

Trabeculae contain ______ lamellae

A

Parallel

68
Q

Spongy bone lacks _______

A

Osteons

69
Q

Intramembranous Ossification:

A

Bone develops from mesenchyme, produces flat bones of the skull, some facial bones, mandible, and central portion of clavicle.

70
Q

Endochondral Ossification:

A

Bone formation begins with hyaline cartilage model (produces majority of bones in the body)

71
Q

Bone growth in length is referred to as:

A

Interstitial Growth ( at growth plate)

72
Q

Bone growth in diameter is referred to as:

A

Appositional growth (at periosteum)

73
Q

What is the function of the hypodermis?

A

It is essentially a storage layer for fat that acts as a thermal regulator and adds protection.

74
Q

Fibrous Joints:

A

Bones held together by dense regular connective tissue

75
Q

Cartilaginous Joints:

A

Bones joined by cartilage

76
Q

Synovial Joints:

A

Bones separated by a fluid-filled cavity

77
Q

Diarthrosis:
AmphiArthrosis:
Synarthrosis:

A

Freely movable joint
Slightly movable joint
Immobile Joint

78
Q

3 Types of Fibrous Joints:

A

-Gomphoses: Synarthroses formed between teeth and maxilla or mandible
-Sutures: Joints between skull bones;
synarthroses
-Syndesmoses: Joints between parallel bones in the forearm and leg (radius and ulna, tibia and fibula); amphiarthrosis

79
Q

2 Types of Cartilaginous Joints:

A

-Synchondroses: Bones joined by hyaline cartilage (synarthrosis)
-Symphyses: Bones joined by pad of
fibrocartilage; amphiarthrosis

80
Q

List the 6 components of a the general anatomy of a synovial joint:

A
– Articular capsule 
– Joint cavity 
– Synovial fluid 
– Articular cartilage
– Ligaments 
– Nerves and blood vessels
81
Q

What are the 2 layers of an articular capsule?

A
  • Outer Fibrous layer made of dense regular connective tissue that strengthens and protects the joint
  • Inner synovial membrane that secretes fluid into the cavity
82
Q

2 Functions of Synovial fluid:

A
  • Lubricates and nourishes chondrocytes and articular cartilage
  • Shock absorption upon compression of the joint
83
Q

What are bursae?

A

Sacs outside most synovial joints where ligaments, muscles, tendons, and/or bones rub;
contain synovial fluid

84
Q

Moving your thumb across your palm:

A

Opposition

85
Q

Turning the soles of your feet inward:

A

Inversion

86
Q

What is the glenoid labrum?

A

A ligament around the margin of the glenoid cavity inside the joint capsule

87
Q

4 BURSAE associated with Glenohumeral Joint:

A

Subdeltoid
Subacromial
Subcoracoid
Subscapular

88
Q

Muscles associated with the Glenohumeral Joint:

A

S.I.T.S.

89
Q

4 Ligaments associated with the Glenohumeral Joint:

A

Glenohumeral
Transverse Humeral
Coracohumeral
Coracoacromial

90
Q

What are the two sub-joints of the elbow?

A
  • Humeroulnar

- Humeroradial

91
Q

3 ligaments associated with the elbow joint:

A
  • Radial collateral
  • Ulnar collateral
  • Anular
92
Q

The coxal joint is a ________ between the ______ and the ______.

A
  1. Diarthrotic ball-and-socket joint
  2. Head of the femur
  3. Acetabulum of the hip bone (os coxae)
93
Q

4 ligaments associated with the coxal joint:

A
  • Iliofemoral
  • Ischiofemoral
  • Pubofemoral
  • Ligament of Head of Femur
94
Q

The knee joint is a _______ between the ______.

A
  1. Diarthrotic Hinge Joint

2. Femur, Tibia, and Patella

95
Q

5 Ligaments associated with the Knee Joint:

A
  • Anterior Cruciate Ligament
  • Posterior Cruciate Ligament
  • Patellar Ligament
  • Fibular Collateral Ligament
  • Tibial Collateral Ligament
96
Q

4 Characteristics of Muscles Tissue:

A
  • Excitability
  • Elasticity
  • Extensibility
  • Contractility
97
Q

5 Functions of Muscle:

A
  1. Body movement
  2. Maintenance of posture
  3. Temperature regulation
  4. Storage and movement of materials
  5. Support
98
Q

Difference between Deep Fascia and Superficial Fascia:

A

Deep separates muscles from each other while superficial separates muscles from the skin

99
Q

Aponeurosis:

A

Flat sheet-like tendon

100
Q

Difference between origin and insertion:

A

Origin is the less movable point of attachment, insertion is the more movable point of attachment.

101
Q

Isometric versus Isotonic contraction:

A

Isometric: Length is constant, tension is changing
Isotonic: Tension is constant, length is changing

102
Q

Concentric versus Eccentric contraction:

A

Concentric: Muscle is shortening
Eccentric: Muscle is lengthening

103
Q

1st, 2nd, and 3rd degree burns:

A

1st: Epidermis only, inflamed, redness some edema
2nd: Also Dermis, some scarring, painful, blistered
3rd: Also Hypodermis, dehydration and infection are likely

104
Q

What is Acne:

A

Plugged sebaceous gland ducts (during puberty mostly)

105
Q

What is Achondroplastic Dwarfism?

A

Abnormal conversion of cartilage to bone. Chondrocytes in epiphyseal plate stop multiplying so long bones stop growing.

106
Q

What causes Rickets?

A

Vitamin D deficiency in childhood that leads to poor absorption of Ca and P: No calcification of bones makes them too flexible

107
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Weakened bones leading to fractures, often associated with menopause because decreasing estrogen levels means less stimulus for bone growth

108
Q

What are the two types of arthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis: Breakdown of articular cartilage leading to bone on bone contact
Rheumatoid Arthritis:
-Synovial membrane inflammation, joint swelling
-Cartilage and bone erode
-Scar tissue forms and ossifies, bones fuse (ankylosis)

109
Q

What does Dystrophin do?

A

Links actin filaments with ECM components such as laminin