Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Anatomy

A

study of the structure and shape of the body

  • gross anatomy –> what is visible
  • microscopic anatomy –> on a cellular level
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2
Q

Definition of Physiology

A

ALL ABOUT FUNCTION. How do these structures work?

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3
Q

How are anatomy and physiology related?

A

While anatomy is the study of the structure and shape of the body, physiology is the study of how these structures work.

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4
Q

What are the classifications of a human?

Domain:

Kingdom:

Phylum:

Class:

Order:

Family:

Genus:

Species:

A

Domain: Eukarya

Kingdom: Animalia

Phylum: Chordata

Class: Mammalia

Order: Primates

Family: Hominidae

Genus: Homo

Species: Homo sapiens

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5
Q

KINGDOM:

What (five) characteristics make an animal an animal?

A
  1. eukaryotic
  2. multicellularity
  3. heterotrophic
  4. ingestion of food (we can’t just absorb it!)
  5. collagen
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6
Q

PHYLUM:

What makes a chordate a chordate?

A
  1. notochord
  2. dorsal hollow nerve chord
  3. pharyngeal pouches
  4. post-anal tail
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7
Q

CLASS:

What makes a mammal a mammal?

A
  1. mammary glands
  2. hair
  3. facial muscles
  4. hederodont teeth
  5. external ears
  6. 3 ear ossicles
  7. 7 cervical vertebrae
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8
Q

ORDER:

Primates characteristics

A
  • humans, monkeys, apes, lemurs
  • opposable thumbs
  • stereoscopic vision: vision with depth perception, trichromatic color vision
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9
Q

FAMILY:

Hominidae

A
  • 5 described species: the great apes
  • humans, chimpanzees, bonobos, gorillas, orangutans
  • Chimp/human genomes 96% identical
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10
Q

Define homeostasis

A

The ability to respond to stress to maintain balance; internal conditions have a narrow range.

  • a dynamic balance of processes and materials
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11
Q

Why is the concept of homeostasis central to physiology?

A

Often makes the difference between wellness and disease

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12
Q

Categories of Extracellular fluid in

  1. Mammals/humans
  2. insects
A
  1. Plasma and interstitial fluid
  2. hemolymph
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13
Q

Define negative feedback and give an example of it

A

A self regulatory mechanism that causes a reaction opposite to the stimulus

EXAMPLE:

Cooler than normal body temp causes shivering to increase body temp back to normal

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14
Q

Explain the importance of negative feedback to homeostasis

A

Negative Feedback works to keep internal conditions within a normal range

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15
Q

Define positive feedback and give examples of beneficial/harmful effects

A

Positive feedback increases the original stimulus and an outside factor is required to shut off the feedback cycle.

Positive feedback is usually for rapid responses/ infrequent events.

EXAMPLES:

Blood clotting, labor, lactation

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16
Q

Define tissue

A

a Collection of cells with a similar structure and function.

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17
Q

The study of tissues is known as _______

A

Histology!

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18
Q

What are the 4 major categories of tissues?

A
  1. Epithelial (Covering/Lining)
  2. Connective (Support)
  3. Muscle (Movement)
  4. Nervous (Control)
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19
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of Being a Regulator (maintains internal conditions relatively independent of environment)

A
  • Advantage: Wider niche range, more freedom and flexibility
  • Disadvantage: High cost
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20
Q

Advantages and Disadvantages of Being a Conformer (animals that conform to their environment, temp, salinity, etc.)

A

Advantages: low cost

Disadvantage: more narrow range of environmental conditions

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21
Q

What is adaptation?

A

a characteristic that favors survival in specific environments

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22
Q

What is acclimitization?

A

The improved functioning of an already existing homeostatic system based on an environmental stress.

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23
Q

In an individual, acclimitizations are _______, but adaptations are ________.

A
  1. Reversible
  2. Not reversible, irreversible
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24
Q

What is allostasis?

A

Allostasis is the process of achieving stability, or homeostasis, through physiological or behavioral change.

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25
Q

What is an allostatic load?

A

The allostatic load is “the wear and tear on the body” which grows over time when the individual is exposed to repeated or chronic stress. It represents the physiological consequences of chronic exposure to fluctuating or heightened neural or neuroendocrine response that results from repeated or chronic stress.

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26
Q

Ectoderm (What does it include?)

A

epidermis, nervous tissue

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27
Q

mesoderm (what does it include?)

A
  • endothelium
  • mesothelilum
  • muscle
  • connective tissue
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28
Q

endoderm (What does it include?)

A

mucosae

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29
Q

Five Functions of Epithelial Tissue:

A
  1. Protection
  2. Secretion
  3. Sensory Reception
  4. Absorption
  5. Filtration
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30
Q

Epithelial Cells are connected to adjacent cells via:

1.

2.

3.

A
  1. tight junctions
  2. desmosomes
  3. gap junctions
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31
Q

Tight junctions work like a ______

A

Zipper.

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32
Q

Desmosomes act like ________

A

a button, that holds cells together and enables a tissue to resist mechanical stress.

Common in the epidermis and cervix. (Why these 2 areas?) –> ability to STRETCH.

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33
Q

What do Gap Junctions do?

A

allow chemicals to pass from one cell to the next via connexons

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34
Q

The apical side is the area of an epithelial cell _______ to a body cavity, while the basal side is _______ to a body cavity

A
  1. adjacent
  2. opposite
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35
Q

Characteristics of Epithelia:

It is ________ and can _________

A
  1. avascular ( no blood vessels)
  2. regenerate
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36
Q

Types of Epithelial Cells (Give six)

A
  1. simple squamous epithelium
  2. stratified squamous
  3. simple cuboidal epithelium
  4. simple columnar epithelium
  5. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
  6. transitional epithelium
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37
Q

Simple Squamous

A
  • Description: one layer, flat and thin
  • Function: allows for diffusion and filtration
  • Location: blood vessels, alveoli of lungs, lining of heart
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38
Q

Stratified Squamous

A
  • Description: thick membrane composed of several layers. Cells come up from below, old cells exfoliate from surface
  • Function: Protects underlying tissues in areas subjected to abrasion
  • Location: lining of esophagus, mouth, and vagina
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39
Q

Simple Cuboidal Epithelium

A
  • Description: single layer of cubelike cells
  • Function: secretion and absorption
  • Location: kidney tubules, ducts and secretory portions of small glands, ovary surface
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40
Q

Simple Columnar Epithelium

A
  • Description: single layer of tall cells, apical surface may be ciliates; oval or oblong nucleus
  • Function: absorption, secretion of mucus and enzymes, ciliated type propels mucus
  • Location: nonciliated type lines most of the digestive track, gallbladder, and excretory ducts of some glands; ciliated type lines small bronchi, uterine tubes, and regions of the uterus
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41
Q

Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium (PCCE)

A
  • Description: single layer of cells at differing heights
  • Function: secretion, particularly of mucus; propulsion of mucus by ciliary action
  • Location: nonciliated type in male’s sperm carrying ducts, and in ducts of large glands; ciliated type in trachea and upper respiratory tract
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42
Q

Transitional Epithelium

A
  • Description: resembles both stratified squamous and stratified columnar
  • Function: stretches readily and allows the bladder to stretch
  • Location: Lines the ureters, bladder, and part of the urethra
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43
Q

Functions of Connective Tissue:

1.

2.

3.

A
  1. binds body tissues together
  2. supports the body
  3. provides protection
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44
Q

Some connective tissues are well vascularized (bone!) while others may be ________ with a very poor blood supply

A

avascular

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45
Q

What is the extracellular matrix?

A

nonliving material that surrounds living cells

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46
Q

Two main elements of the extracellular matrix:

1.

2.

A
  1. ground substance: mostly water along with adhesion proteins and polysaccharide molecules
  2. Fibers
  • Produced by the cells
  • Three types

–Collagen (white) fibers=made of the protein collagen

–Elastic (yellow) fibers=made of the protein elastin

–Reticular (fine collagen) fibers=made of the protein collagen

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47
Q

Categories of connective tissue

A
  1. Fibrous connective tissue (a.k.a. connective tissue proper)
  2. Supporting connective tissue
  3. Fluid connective tissue
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48
Q

Types of connective tissue and where they are found in the body

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

A
  1. Loose connective tissue → skin, around blood vessels and organs, under epithelia
  2. Dense, irregular connective tissue → muscle
  3. Dense, regular connective tissue → tendons
  4. Adipose tissue → fat
  5. Blood
  6. Cartilage
  7. Bone
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49
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Loose connective tissue;

skin, around blood vessels and organs, under epithelia

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50
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Adipose tissue

under skin, around kidneys and eyeballs, within abdomen and breasts

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51
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

dermis of the skin, muscle and nerve sheaths, fibrous capsules or organs and joints

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52
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Dense regular connective tissue

tendons and ligaments

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53
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Bone!

in bones, duh

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54
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Cartilage (hyaline)

joint surfaces, spine, ear, nose

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55
Q

What type of connective tissue is this, and where can it be found in the body?

A

Cartilage, elastic

external ear

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56
Q

Solutes are broadly classified into

1.

2.

Give examples of each

A
  1. Electrolytes – inorganic salts, all acids and bases, and some proteins
  2. Nonelectrolytes – examples include glucose, lipids, creatinine, and urea
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57
Q

Electrolytes have greater or less? osmotic power than nonelectrolytes

A

greater

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58
Q

Extracellular or intracellular? fluids contain higher levels of Na+ and Cl-

A

Extracellular fluids such as blood plasma and interstitial fluid

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59
Q

is the only fluid that circulates throughout the body and links external and internal environments

A

Plasma

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60
Q

Nutrients, respiratory gases, and wastes move

A

unidirectionally

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61
Q

causes water to move from one compartment to another

A

Changes in electrolyte balance

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62
Q
A
63
Q

Passive Transport depends solely on and no external energy is required

A

kinetic energy

  • Every molecule has a certain amount of inherent energy that causes it to move about randomly
64
Q

In Active Transport, additional energy must be expended, usually via the .

Kinetic Energy alone will not suffice

A

hydrolysis of ATP

65
Q
A

Passive and Facilitated Diffusion:

  • high concentration → low concentration

Active Transport:

  • low concentration → high concentration
66
Q

What factors affect simple diffusion?

A
  1. Concentration Gradient (C1-C2)
  2. Distance between two regions (thickness of membrane) (X)
  3. Diffusion Coefficient (D) – a function of temperature, membrane permeability to the compound and surface of diffusion (compounds that do not cross the phospholipid bilayer will need channels)

J= D (C1-C2)/X

67
Q

The diffusion of ions across cell membrane is determined by simultaneous

A

chemical and electrical gradients

68
Q

will cross the phospholipid bilayer driven by their gradient (lipids, gases, H2O and small, neutral compounds such as urea)

All other compounds (not small enough and/or charged) will need a to cross the cell membrane

A
  1. Lipid-soluble compounds
  2. channel and/or transporter
69
Q

need channels or carrier protein in order to enter the cell.

A

Charged (ions) or large (amino acids, monosaccharides and larger) molecules

charged or large molecules

70
Q

Movement of ions and compounds will occur until

A

osmotic and electrical equilibrium

71
Q

Water moves across membranes in response to solute concentration inside and outside of the cell by a process called , which will move water across a membrane down its concentration gradient until the concentration of solute is equal on both sides of the membrane

A

Osmosis.

72
Q

Which body fluid compartment contains high levels of K+, large anions, and proteins?

A

intracellular fluid

73
Q

osmolarity is…

A

The total solute concentration of a solution

74
Q

One osmol is equal to:

A

1 mol of solute particles

75
Q

So a 1 M solution of glucose has a concentration of Osm, whereas a 1 M solution of sodium chloride contains osmol of solute per liter of solution.

A liter of solution containing 1 mol of glucose and 1 mol of sodium chloride has an osmolarity of Osm.

A
  1. 1, (1 osmol per liter)
  2. 2
  3. 3
76
Q

Tonicity describes a solution based on how…

A

a cell responds to osmotic gradients across the membrane.

77
Q

Isotonic solutions have concentration of nonpenetrating solutes as normal extracellular fluid.

A

the same

78
Q

Hypotonic solutions have concentration of nonpenetrating solutes as normal extracellular fluid.

A

a lower

79
Q

Hypertonic solutions have concentration of nonpenetrating solutes as normal extracellular fluid.

A

a higher

80
Q

is the effect of a solution on cell volume, which depends on differences in osmolarity, but also on the types of solutes and the permeability of the membrane to those solutes.

A

Tonicity

81
Q

Primary active transport uses , while Secondary Active Transport draws energy from an electrochemical gradient created by an ATPase pump.

A

ATP directly

82
Q

Secondary active transport is distinguished from primary active transport by its use of an across a plasma membrane as its energy source.

A

electrochemical gradient

83
Q

Transporters that mediate secondary active transport have , one for an ion (e.g., Na+)and another for the cotransported molecule (e.g., Glucose).

A

two binding sites

84
Q

Cotransporters (symporters) move molecules in

A

the same direction.

85
Q

Countertransporters (antiporters) move molecules in

A

opposite directions

86
Q

is used to export bulky molecules, such as proteins or polysaccharides

A

Exocytosis

87
Q

is used to import substances useful to the livelihood of the cell

A

Endocytosis

88
Q

Organization of the Nervous System

A
89
Q

The functional and structural unit of the nervous system

A

Neurons = nerve cells

90
Q

Neurons are , so they do not divide. They also have a very high metabolic rate.

A

amitotic

91
Q

Neurons are not the most numerous cell in the central nervous system (CNS); are.

A

Glial cells

92
Q

Schwann Cell

A
93
Q

The Central Nervous system includes:

A
  • the brain and the spinal cord
  • this is the center of integration and control
94
Q

The Peripheral Nervous System includes:

A
  • the nervous system outside the brain and spinal cord
  • Consists of:
    • 31 spinal nerves
      • carry info to and from the spinal cord
    • 12 cranial nerves
      • carry info to and from the brain
95
Q

Saltatory Conduction

A
96
Q
  • Synapses can use both and stimuli to pass information.
  • Synapses can also be or depending on the signal/ neurotransmitter being transmitted.
A
  1. chemical, electrical
  2. inhibitory, excitatory
97
Q

Structural Classification of Neurons

A
  • Multipolar - 3+ processes - most common
  • Bipolar - 2 processes - rare receptor neurons (e.g., eye retina & olfactory mucosa)
  • Unipolar - 1 process - mostly in ganglia where they are sensory receptors
98
Q

Afferent, Efferent, and Interneurons

A
99
Q

Nerve fibers are organized in which enable a reaction to stimulation

A

circuits

100
Q

Basic Principles of Electricity

A
101
Q

Ohm’s law:

A
  • Ohm’s law: I=V/R
  • Voltage (V) - measure of potential energy from charges that are separated from each other
  • Current (I)-movement of electrical charge
  • Resistance (R)-hindrance to electrical charge movement
  • Potential - voltage measured b/n 2 points
102
Q
  • The cell membrane is selectively permeable and does not allow free crossing of the following ions:
    • Na+ ions are more abundant in the
    • K+ ions are more abundant in the
    • Proteins, mostly negatively charged are abundant in the but not in the
  • The imbalance in ions creates a difference in potential →
A
  • Na+ ions are more abundant in the IF (interstitial Fluid)
  • K+ ions are more abundant in the ICF (intracellular fluid)
  • Proteins, mostly negatively charged are abundant in the ICF (and plasma) but not in the IF (interstitial fluid)
  • The imbalance in ions creates a difference in potential → 70 mV (more – ions inside)
103
Q
A
104
Q

When ion channels open & ions rapidly diffuse across the membrane then you get an electrical current/impulse & voltage changes across the membrane

A
105
Q
  • Resting Membrane Potential
    • charge on the outside of the membrane is opposite to just inside the membrane
    • bulk material inside & outside is electrically neutral generated by more K+ intracellularly & Na+ extracelluarly
    • Example below: more -ions clinging to inside or membrane (ie., chlorides & anionic proteins) & more +ions cling to outside of plasma membrane
A
106
Q

An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is:

A

a graded depolarization that moves the membrane potential closer to the threshold for firing an action potential (excitement).

107
Q

An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is:

A

a graded hyperpolarization that moves the membrane potential further from the threshold for firing an action potential (inhibition).

108
Q
A

The membrane potential of a real neuron typically undergoes many EPSPs (A) and IPSPs (B), since it constantly receives excitatory and inhibitory input from the axons terminals that reach it.

109
Q

Explain temporal summation and spatial summation

A
  1. Temporal summation: graded potentials that occur at slightly different times can influence the net change
  2. Spatial summation: graded potentials from different sites can influence the net change
110
Q

The strength of graded potentials with distance

A

decreases, decays

111
Q

Regulates Neurotransmitter Release

A

Ca2+ Regulates Neurotransmitter Release

112
Q

heart muscle and other muscle contraction/learning and memory.

A

Acetylcholine

113
Q

motivation, reward, attention, learning, mood, sleep, movement.

A

Dopamine

114
Q

mood, sexual desire and function, appetite.

A

Serotonin

115
Q

major excitatory neurotransmitter, movement and learning/memory.

A

Glutamate

116
Q

major inhibitory neurotransmitter, large role in balancing and offsetting excitatory messages

A

GABA

117
Q

plays large role in emotions, increasing heart rate

A

Norepinephrine

118
Q

inhibits pain

A

Endorphins

119
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of nerves?

A) They are composed of groups of neurons.

B) Neurons are composed of groups of nerves.

C) They act as pipes in the body, transporting fluid.

D) Signals generated in nerves can travel only short distances.

A

A) They are composed of groups of neurons.

120
Q
  1. A cell will most likely hyperpolarize when __________ enters it.

A) Cl-

B) Na+

C) Ca2+

D) both B and C

A

A) Cl-

121
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true of graded potentials?

A) They travel over long distances.

B) They have different amplitudes.

C) They are typically found in axons.

D) They travel without decrement.

A

B) They have different amplitudes.

122
Q
  1. The relative concentrations of Na+ and K+ remain constant during a single action potential, despite movement of these ions across the membrane, because

A) they cross back immediately through recovery channels.

B) they are pumped back across using the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

C) they are forced back across the membrane as the action potential moves away.

D) the refractory periods do not end until all ions have been returned to their original areas.

A

B) they are pumped back across using the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

123
Q
  1. One of the major inhibitory neurotransmittors in the CNS is

A. Glutamate

B. Dopamine

C. Norepinephrine

D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

E. Beta-endorphin

A

D. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

124
Q
  1. What happens if enough EPSPs are generated such that threshold is reached in a neuron?

A. the cell hyperpolarizes

B. an IPSP occurs immediately

C. presynaptic inhibition

D. an action potential is generated

E. calcium blocking to ensure inhibition

A

D. an action potential is generated

125
Q
  1. What is the mechanism responsible for the absolute refractory period?
    a. Na+ channels are in a closed state and do not allow Na+ ions to enter the cell.
    b. Na+ channels are in an inactivated state and are not available for activation.
    c. K+ channels are open and a stronger stimulus is needed to fire a second action potential.
    d. K+ channels are closed and unavailable for repolarization after a second stimulus.
A

b. Na+ channels are in an inactivated state and are not available for activation.

126
Q
  1. ) What does the term threshold refer to?
    a. The membrane potential required to activate voltage-gated Na+ channels.
    b. The membrane potential required to activate voltage-gated K+ channels.
    c. The membrane potential required to inactivate voltage-gated Na+ channels.
    d. The membrane potential required to prevent Na+ entry into the cell.
A

a. The membrane potential required to activate voltage-gated Na+ channels.

127
Q

9) Lasix is an inhibitor of the electroneutral NKCC cotransporter. What will happen to the volume of a typical red blood cell following treatment with lasix? (Lasix inhibits the basal activity of the NKCC cotransporter and thus blocks uptake of ions into the cell.)
a. The cell will swell. Reducing solute uptake increases the inwardly directed solvent concentration gradient.
b. The cell will shrink. Water movement follows transport of solute.
c. The cell will swell. Decreasing ion uptake makes the cell more dilute inside, therefore causing the cell to swell. d. The cell will remain the same. The NKCC cotransporter does not contribute to cell volume regulation.

A

b. The cell will shrink. Water movement follows transport of solute.

128
Q
  1. The generation of the resting membrane potential in most cells results in large part from which of the following?
    a. relatively high [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] outside the cell, with greater permeability of the membrane to K+ than Na+
    b. relatively high [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] outside the cell, with greater permeability of the membrane to Na+ than K+
    c. relatively high [K+] outside the cell and high [Na+] inside the cell, with greater permeability of the membrane to K+ than Na+
    d. relatively high [K+] outside the cell and high [Na+] inside the cell, with greater permeability of the membrane to Na+ than K+
A

a. relatively high [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] outside the cell, with greater permeability of the membrane to K+ than Na+

129
Q
  1. Functions of connective tissue include

A.establishing a structural framework for the body.

B.transporting fluids and dissolved materials.

C.providing protection for delicate organs.

D.storing energy reserves.

E.All of the answers are correct.

A

E.All of the answers are correct.

130
Q
  1. Which body fluid compartment contains high levels of K+, large anions, and proteins?

A) plasma only

B) interstitial fluid only

C) intracellular fluid only

D) both plasma and intracellular fluid

E) both plasma and interstitial fluid

A

C) intracellular fluid only

131
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is FALSE when it comes to diffusion in the human body?

A) Diffusion occurs faster at higher temperatures.

B) Smaller molecules take longer to diffuse than larger ones.

C) Net movement of molecules occurs until the osmolarity is equal.

D) Diffusion is rapid over short distances and slower over longer distances.

A

B) Smaller molecules take longer to diffuse than larger ones.

132
Q
  1. If a cell having a semipermeable membrane (only water can pass through) and containing a total solute concentration of 0.9 M were put in a solution containing 0.2 M solutes, the cell would
    a. Swell
    b. Shrink
    c. Stay the same size
A

a.Swell

133
Q
  1. The first multicellular animals to develop neurons were

A) jellyfish and sea anemones.

B) sea urchins and star fish

C) segmented worms (earthworms)

D) Mollusks (squid, octopus)

E) Early chordates (sea squirts, etc.)

A

A) jellyfish and sea anemones.

134
Q

1.Being a conformer is beneficial because
A) it’s possible to maintain a stable environment.
B) it consumes less energy than being a regulator.
C) it allows an organism to live in a wide range of environments that differ from its internal environment.
D) all of the above

A

B) it consumes less energy than being a regulator.

135
Q
  1. Which of these conditions indicate positive feedback has occurred?

A.Blood pressure decreases greatly; blood flow to the heart is inadequate, and blood pressure decrease

B.Hot temperatures increase your body temperature above normal; you sweat.

C.Cold temperatures decrease your body temperature below normal; you shiver.

D.Blood pressure decreases; as a result, your heart rate increases.

A

A.Blood pressure decreases greatly; blood flow to the heart is inadequate, and blood pressure decrease

136
Q
  1. This embryological tissue layer becomes the nervous system in an adult triploblastic animal

A.ectoderm

B.endoderm

C.mesoderm

D.neuroderm

E.pseudoderm

A

A.ectoderm

137
Q
  1. Which type of epithelia is found in the kidneys and ovaries and is responsible for secretion and absorption?

A.simple squamous

B.stratified squamous

C.simple cuboidal

D.pseudostratified columnar

E.transitional

A

C.simple cuboidal

138
Q
  1. You are looking at a slide of an unknown organ that has an empty lumen with stratified squamous epithelium contacting the lumen. Deep to the epithelium is a basement membrane and then two layers of smooth muscle. Which of the following organs would this most likely belong to and why?

A.The intestines because they need to move food along and absorb digested products.

B.The esophagus because it is a passageway that needs to move but not absorb food products.

C.The liver because it secretes enzymes and bile and needs to move them to the gallbladder.

D.The urinary bladder because it needs to stretch and constrict to store and eliminate urine.

E.All of the above are possible.

A

B.The esophagus because it is a passageway that needs to move but not absorb food products.

139
Q

1.Which of the following activities represents a physiological study:

A. making a section through the heart to observe its interior

B. examining the surface of a bone

C. viewing muscle tissue through a microscope

D. studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

E. observing the parts of a reproducing cell

A

D. studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

140
Q
  1. Which class are humans in?

A.Homo sapiens

B.Hominidae

C.Chordata

D.Mammalia

E.Primates

A

D.Mammalia

141
Q
  1. Mammals typically have how many cervical vertebrae?

A.3

B.5

C.7

D.12

A

C.7

142
Q
  1. Homeostasis is the ability of the body to

A.prevent the external environment from changing.

B.prevent the internal environment from changing.

C.quickly restore changed conditions to normal.

D.ignore external stimuli to remain in a state of rest.

E.prevent excessive blood loss.

A

C. quickly restore changed conditions to normal.

143
Q
  1. Select the organism that you (a human being) are most closely related to:
    a. Sea urchin
    b. Beetle
    c. Jelly fish
    d. Flat worm
    e. Squid
A

a.Sea urchin

144
Q

7.Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

A) converts hemoglobin from red blood cells to bile pigments that are excreted along with bile salts in bile

B) detoxifies blood by removing poisonous substances

C) produces urea from the breakdown of amino acids

D) produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum

E) makes plasma proteins from amino acids

A

D) produces enzymes for digestion of food in the duodenum

145
Q

short distance, short-lived signals (e.g., dendrite to cell body)

A

Graded Potentials

146
Q

generator potential:

A

sensory neuron receptor stimulated by energy source trigger (e.g., heat, light)

147
Q

postsynaptic potential:

A

neurotransmitter from another neuron stimulates graded potential

148
Q

Octopamine merits mention because…

A

it is often implicated in the regulation of behavior in invertebrates. Examples of behaviors associated with octopamine levels include foraging activity in honey bees, olfactory responsiveness in fruit flies, firefly flashing, and regulates aggression.

149
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Pleasure center; stress responses

150
Q

mammillary body

A

olfactory memory

151
Q

cingulate gyrus

A

concious manifestations of emotion

152
Q

hippocampus

A

short term memory

153
Q

amygdala

A

center for emotional responses