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NSG 232 > EXAM 1 > Flashcards

EXAM 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Reporting

A

oral communication about a patients status

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1
Q

Documentation

A

The act of recording patient status and care in written or electronic form, or in combination of the 2 forms

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2
Q

medical record/ health record

A

historically, the collection of documentation, orders, and other care information for a patient

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3
Q

Clear complete and accurate documentation in a clients health record serves a variety of purposes

A

communication
legal record
continuity of care
quality improvement

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4
Q

health record system

A

the overall process by which all patient records are created, stored, and retrieved in an organization

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5
Q

Source-oriented system

A

members of each discipline record their findings in a separately labeled section of the chart

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6
Q

Problem-oriented records (PROs)

A

organized around the patient’s problems

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7
Q

Charting by exception

A

a system of charting in which only significant findings or exceptions to standards and norms of care are charted

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8
Q

Advantages of electronic records systems

A 
Enhanced communication and collaboration among healthcare providers
Improved access to information
Time savings
Improved quality of care
Information is private and safe
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9
Q

Disadvantages of electronic health records

A

Expense
Downtime
Lack of integration
Difficulties associated with change

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10
Q

ADLs

A

Activities of Daily Living

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11
Q

ad lib

A

As desired, if the patient desires

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12
Q

AKA

A

Above-knee amputation

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13
Q

Amb

A

Ambulation, ambulatory

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14
Q

Amt

A

Amount

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15
Q

bid

A

twice a day

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16
Q

BM

A

bowel movement

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17
Q

BR

A

bedrest

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18
Q

BRP

A

bathroom privileges

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19
Q

BSC

A

bedside commode

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20
Q

c

A

calories

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21
Q

cath

A

catheter

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22
Q

CBC

A

complete blood count

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23
Q

CCU

A

critical care unit

coronary care unti

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24
Q

c/o

A

complaint of

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25
Q

CO2

A

carbon dioxide

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26
Q

CPR

A

cardiopulmonary resuscitation

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27
Q

CVA

A

cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

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28
Q

D&C

A

dilation and curettage

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29
Q

DM

A

diabetes mellitus

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30
Q

dsg or drsg

A

dressing

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31
Q

DX or Dx

A

diagnosis

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32
Q

EBL

A

estimated blood loss

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33
Q

ECG/EKG

A

electrocardiogram

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34
Q

ED/ER

A

emergency department

emergency room

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35
Q

EEG

A

electroencephalogram

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36
Q

EENT

A

eyes, ears, nose, throat

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37
Q

ETOH

A

alcohol

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38
Q

F

A

female

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39
Q

FBS

A

fasting blood sugar

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40
Q

Ft

A

foot

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41
Q

Fx

A

fracture

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42
Q

GI

A

gastrointestinal

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43
Q

gtt(s)

A

Drop(s)

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44
Q

GU

A

genitourinary

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45
Q

HA

A

headache

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46
Q

HMO

A

health maintenance organization

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47
Q

h/o

A

history of

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48
Q

hob or HOB

A

head of bed

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49
Q

HOH

A

hard of hearing

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50
Q

H&P

A

history and physical

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51
Q

hr

A

hour

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52
Q

ht

A

height

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53
Q

HTN

A

hypertension

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54
Q

hyper

A

above or high

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55
Q

hypo

A

below or low

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56
Q

ICU

A

intensive care unit

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57
Q

I&O

A

intake and output

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58
Q

lsol

A

Isolation

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59
Q

IV

A

Intravenous

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60
Q

IVP

A

intravenous push

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61
Q

L

A

liter

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62
Q

lb

A

pound

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63
Q

LMP

A

last menstrual period

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64
Q

LPN

A

licensed practical nurse

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65
Q

LVN

A

Licensed vocational nurse

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66
Q

mcg

A

microgram

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67
Q

mL

A

milliliter

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68
Q

MN

A

midnight

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69
Q

NAS

A

no added salt

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70
Q

N/V/D

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

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71
Q

NKA or NKDA

A

no known allergies or no known drug allergies

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72
Q

NG

A

nasogastric

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73
Q

NGT

A

nasogastric tube

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74
Q

noc

A

at night

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75
Q

NPO

A

nothing by mouth

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76
Q

O2

A

oxygen

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77
Q

OB

A

obstetrics

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78
Q

OOB

A

out of bed

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79
Q

OPD

A

outpatient dept

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80
Q

ortho

A

orthopedics

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81
Q

OR

A

operating room

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82
Q

os

A

mouth

opening

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83
Q

OT

A

occupational therapy

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84
Q

oz

A

ounce

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85
Q

pc

A

after meals

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86
Q

PCA

A

patient controlled analgesia

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87
Q

PO

A

by mouth

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88
Q

P

A

after

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89
Q

PPBS

A

postprandial blood sugar

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90
Q

prn

A

as needed

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91
Q

Pt

A

patient

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92
Q

PT

A

physical therapy

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93
Q

q

A

every

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94
Q

qam

A

every morning

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95
Q

qh

A

every hour

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96
Q

qid

A

four times a day

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97
Q

RN

A

registered nurse

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98
Q

RX or Rx

A

treatment or perscription

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99
Q

SCD

A

sequential compression device

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100
Q

SOB

A

short of breath

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101
Q

SSE

A

soapsuds enema

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102
Q

STAT

A

immediately

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103
Q

STI or STD

A

sexually transmitted infection

sexually transmitted disease

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104
Q

TB

A

tuberculossi

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105
Q

TO

A

telephone order

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106
Q

TPR

A

temperature
pulse
respiration

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107
Q

tid

A

three times a day

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108
Q

VO

A

verbal order

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109
Q

VS

A

vital signs

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110
Q

WBC

A

white blood count

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111
Q

w/c

A

wheelchair

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112
Q

WNL

A

within normal limits

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113
Q

wt

A

weight

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114
Q

narrative entry chart

A

tells the story of the patients experience in a chronologica format

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115
Q

problem-intervention-evaluation (PIE)

A

system that organizes information according to the patients problems and requires keeping a daily assessment record and progress note.

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116
Q

SOAP/SOAPIE/SOAPIER

A

S- subjective data- what the patient or family members tell you
O- objective data- factual , measurable clinical findings
A- assessment- conclusions drawn from the subjective data
P- Short-term and long-term goals and strategies
I- interventions- Actions of the healthcare team
E- evaluation- an analysis of the effectiveness of interventions
R- revision- changes made to the original care plan

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117
Q

Focus charting

A

uses assessment data to evaluate client care concerns, problems, or strengths

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118
Q

DAR

A

data
action
response

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119
Q

FACT system

A

Flow sheets
Assessment
Concise
Timely

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120
Q

discharge summary

A

the last entry made in the paper chart

in the electronic chart it can begin any time after admission and revised throughout the hospitalization

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121
Q

scheduled medications

A

are to be given on a regularly scheduled basis

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122
Q

unscheduled medications

A

medication that are to be given on call at the appropriate time

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123
Q

continuous infusions

A

IV fluids that are running consistently unless stopped for a blood transfusion or to give an IV medication that in not compatible with the IV fluid running

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124
Q

prn

A

as needed

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125
Q

STAT medication

A

given immediately and only once

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126
Q

single-order medicaiton

A

given once at a separate time, not necessarily immediately

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127
Q

injections

A

if you administer you must chart the site of administration

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128
Q

Kardex

A

is a special paper form or folding card that briefly summarizes a patients status and plan of care

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129
Q

Integrated Plan of Care (IPOC)

A

combined charting and care plan form

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130
Q

Occurrence report or incident report

A

A formal record of an unusual occurrence or accident

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131
Q

OASIS

A

Outcome and Assessment Information set

Used in home health documentation

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132
Q

Minimum data set (MDS)

A

Used in Long term care documentation
for resident assessment and care screening within 14 days of admission
Must be updated every 3 months with any significant change in client condition

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133
Q

handoff report

A

to alert the next caregiver about the clients status or recent changes in the clients condition and to discuss planned activities, tests, procedures, or concerns that require f/u

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134
Q

bedside report

A

walking rounds

allows you to observe important aspects of care

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135
Q

face to face oral report

A

may involve only the outgoing and oncoming nurse r may include the entire oncoming shift

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136
Q

audio-recorded report

A

a convenient way to transmit info

the outgoing nurse audio-records a report on her patients

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137
Q

PACE

A 
standardized report form
Patient/Problem
Assessment/Action
Continuing/Changes
Evaluation
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138
Q

SBAR

A

Situation
Background
Assessment
Recommendation

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139
Q

Verbal orders

A

spoken directions for patient care given to you in person, usually during an emergency

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140
Q

Communication

A

a dynamic, reciprocal process of sending and receiving messages

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141
Q

Intrapersonal communication

A

is conscious internal dialogue, sometimes known as self-talk

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142
Q

Interpersonal communicaiton

A

occurs between two or more people

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143
Q

Group communication

A

interaction occurring among more than two people

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144
Q

Public speaking

A

unique form of group communication

generally addressing a large group

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145
Q

Communication process

A

the act of sending, receiving, interpreting, and reacting to a message

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146
Q

sender

A

begins the conversation to deliver a message to another person

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147
Q

encoding

A

the process of selecting the words, gestures, tone of voice, signs, and symbols used to transmit the message

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148
Q

message

A

the verbal and/or nonverbal info the sender communicates

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149
Q

channel

A

the medium used to send the message

How well did you know this?
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150
Q

feedback

A

may be verbal, nonverbal, or both

Once the received and interpreted the message, he may be stimulated to respond by providing feedback to the sender

151
Q

verbal communication

A

the use of spoken and written words to send a message

152
Q

Denotation

A

the literal (dictionary) meaning of a word

153
Q

Conotation

A

the implied or emotional meaning of the word

154
Q

Intonation

A

tone of voice

reflects the feeling behind the words

155
Q

Nonverbal communication

A 
body language
is the exchange of messages without the use of words
Can include:
Facial expression
posture and gait
personal appearance
Gestures
Touch
156
Q

Intimate distance

A

the area immediately surrounding people that they define as their private space

157
Q

Personal distance

A

from 18in to 4ft

158
Q

social distance

A

4-12 ft

159
Q

public distance

A

anything beyond 12 ft

160
Q

passive communication approach

A

avoids conflict and allows others to take the lead

161
Q

aggressive communication approach

A

forces others to lose

162
Q

nonassertive communication style

A

unclear, indirect communication that contributes to errors and poor outcomes

163
Q

Assertive communication

A

the expression of a wide range of positive and negative thoughts and feelings in a style that is direct, open, honest, spontaneous, responsible, and nonjudgemental

164
Q

4 phases of a therapeutic relationship

A

Pre-interaction phase
Orientation phase
Working phase
Termination phase

165
Q

Pre-interaction phase

A

occurs before you meet the client

involves gathering info about the client

166
Q

Orientation phase

A

begins when you meet the client

167
Q

Working phase

A

The bulk of therapeutic communication
the nurse communicates caring, the patient expresses thoughts and feelings, mutual respect is maintained, and honest verbal and nonverbal expression occurs

168
Q

Termination phase

A

the conclusion of the relationship marks

at the end of the nurse’s shift or on the client’s discharge from the unit, facility, or service

169
Q

5 characteristics of therapeutic communication

A 
Empathy
Respect
Genuineness
Concreteness
Confrontation
170
Q

Task groups

A

formed to address a task or fulfill a need

171
Q

Ongoing groups

A

address issues that are recurrent

172
Q

self-help groups

A

voluntary organizations composed of individuals with a common need

173
Q

therapy groups

A

formed to help individual members cope with issues, improve relationships, or address stress

174
Q

work-related social support groups

A

help members of a profession cope with the stress associated with their work

175
Q

aphasia

A

a difficulty expressing or interpreting messages that may develop after cerebrovascular accident (stroke) or neurological disease

176
Q

active listening

A

uses all senses to focus on the sender’s message, gives undivided attention, and allows the sender the opportunity to complete comments without interruption

177
Q

Restating

A

using your own words to summarize the message you received from the client

178
Q

Clarifying

A

helps ensure that you have accurately interpreted the info

179
Q

validate

A

ask the client whether you are making a correct interpretation

180
Q

process recording

A

2 people have to converse while a third records the conversation
Afterward the participants analyze the interaction

181
Q

Barriers to therapeutic communication

A 
Asking too many questions
Fire-hosing info
Asking why
Changing the subject inappropriately 
Failing to probe
Expressing approval or disapproval
Offering advice
Providing false reassurance
Stereotyping
Using patronizing language
182
Q

elderspeak

A

describes the way that healthcare workers may unintentionally show disrespect to elderly patients by using such phrases and speaking to them in a loud, highpitched, slow, repetitve, child-like voice

183
Q

Healthcare-associated infection (HAI)

A

an infection associated with healthcare given in any setting

184
Q

nonsocomial

A

refers more specifically to hospital acquired infections

185
Q

chain of infection

A 
the process by which infections spread 
6 links:
Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
Infectious agent
186
Q

Normal flora

A

microorganisms that are beneficial or even essential for human health and well-being

187
Q

Transient flora

A

a type of normal flora

normal microbes that a person picks up by coming in contact with objects or another person

188
Q

Resident flora

A

type of normal flora
live and multiply harmlessly deep in skin layers
they are permanent inhabitants of the skin, and cannot usually be removed with routine handwashing

189
Q

Pathogens

A

microorganisms capable of causing disease

190
Q

Infection

A

successful invasion of and multiplication in the body by a pathogen

191
Q

helminths

A

worms

192
Q

prions

A

infectious protein particles that cause certain neurological diseases

193
Q

Virulence of the organism

A

its power to cause disease

194
Q

Reservoir

A

a source of infection

a place where pathogens survive and multiply

195
Q

Carriers

A

capable of defending themselves from active disease but harbor the pathogenic organisms within their bodies

196
Q

for humans the most frequent portal of exit is?

A

through body fluids

197
Q

the most frequent mode of transmission

A

either direct or indirect contact

198
Q

Direct contact

A

between 2 people usually involves touching, kissing, or sexual intercourse

199
Q

Indirect contact

A

involves contact with a fomite, a contaminated object that transfers a pathogen

200
Q

Droplet transmission

A

occurs when the pathogen travels in water droplets expelled as an infected person exhales, coughs, sneezes, or talks

201
Q

Airborne transmission

A

occurs with smaller organisms that can float considerable distance on air currents

202
Q

vector

A

an organism that carries a pathogen to a susceptible host, typically by biting, stinging, creating another portal of entry into the body

203
Q

portals of entry

A

normal and abnormal openings in the body

204
Q

susceptible host

A

a person who is at risk for infection because of inadequate defenses against the invading pathogen

205
Q

Local infection

A

cause harm in a limited region of the body

206
Q

Systemic infection

A

occur when pathogens invade the blood or lymph and spread throughout the body

207
Q

bacteremia

A

the clinical presence of bacteria in the blood

208
Q

septicemia

A

the symptomatic systemic infection spread via the blood

209
Q

primary infection

A

the first infection that occurs in a patient

210
Q

secondary infection

A

may follow primary infection

211
Q

exogenous healthcare-related infection

A

pathogen is acquired from the healthcare environment

212
Q

endogenous healthcare-related infection

A

the pathogen arises from the patient’s normal flora, when some form of treatment causes the normally harmless microbe to multiply and cause infection

213
Q

Acute infections

A

have a rapid onset but last only a short time

214
Q

chronic infections

A

develop slowly and last for weeks, months, or even years

215
Q

latent infections

A

cause no symptoms for long periods of time, even decades

216
Q

Incubation

A

the stage between successful invasion of the pathogen into the body and the first appearance of symptoms

217
Q

Prodromal stage

A

characterized by the first appearance of vague symptoms

218
Q

Illness

A

the stage marked by the appearance of the signs and symptoms characteristic of the disease

219
Q

Decline

A

the stage during which the patient’s immune defenses, along with any medical therapies, successfully reduce the number of pathogenic microbes

220
Q

convalescence

A

characterized by tissue repair and a return o health as the remaining number of microorganisms approaches zero

221
Q

epidemic

A

an outbreak of a disease that suddenly affects a large group of people in a geographic region or in a defined population group

222
Q

pandemic

A

an exceptionally wide spread epidemic

one that affects a large number of people in an entire country or worldwide

223
Q

emerging infectious disease

A

newly identified diseases
Diseases occurring in new geographic areas
Microorganisms in animals that extend their host range to infect human
Microbes that evolve to become more virulent
Known diseases that dramatically increase in incidence
Organisms that are altered for bioterrorism
Emerging pathogens and viruses

224
Q

drug resistant or multi-drug resistant

A

Microorganisms, bacteria, have mutated to develop resistance to one or more classes of antimicrobial drugs

225
Q

human bodies 3 lines of defense against infectious disease

A

Anatomical features
Protective biochemical processes
The presence of pathogens activates immune responses against specific, recognized invaders

226
Q

primary defenses

A 
first line of defense
prevent organisms form entering the body
skin
respiratory tree
eyes
mouth
GI tract
genitourinary tract
227
Q

Secondary defenses

A

Phagocytosis
Complement cascade
Inflammation
Fever

228
Q

phagocytosis

A

the process by which phagocytes engulf and destroy pathogens

229
Q

Complement cascade

A

a process by which a set of blood proteins, called complement, triggers the release of chemicals that attack the cell membranes of pathogens, causing them to rupture

230
Q

Inflammation

A

the inflammatory process that begins when histamine and other chemicals are released either from damaged cells or from basophils being activated by complement

231
Q

Fever

A

a rise in core temp that increases metabolism, inhibits multiplication of pathogens and triggers specific immune responses

232
Q

specific immunity

A

the process by which the bodys immune cells learn to recognize and destroy pathogens they have encountered before

233
Q

lymphocytes

A

WBCs produced from stem cells in the red bone marrow

T cells and B cells

234
Q

T cells

A

responsible for cell-mediated immunity; recognize, attack, and destroy antigens

235
Q

B cells

A

responsible for humoral immunity; produce immunoglobulins to attack and destroy antigens.
Percentage of total lymphocytes increases in viral infection and cronic bacteria infection
decreases in sepsis

236
Q

Monocytes

A

able to phagocytize directly as well as to differentiate into macrophages, which help clean up damaged tissue, infection, and cellular debris.
Percentage increases in tuberculosis, protozoal, and rickettsial infections

237
Q

antigens

A

molecules that trigger a specific immune response

238
Q

Humoral immunity

A

immune response acts directly against antigens

239
Q

5 classes of antibodies or immunoglobulins (Igs) that are secreted by B lymphocytes

A 
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
240
Q

IgM

A

the first antibody to appear when an antigen is encountered

241
Q

IgG

A

The most common immunoglobulin in the body

Takes at least 10 days for IgG to be produced in response to an initial infection

242
Q

IgE

A

The immunoglobulin primarily responsible for the allergic response

243
Q

IgD

A

antibodies form on the surface of B cells and trap potential pathogens

244
Q

IgA

A

antibodies are secreted by mucous membranes around body openings, providing additional protection for these portals of entry

245
Q

Cell-mediated immune response

A 
destroys microorganisms
4 types of Tcells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response:
cyotoxic (killer) T cells
Helper T cells
Memory T cells
Suppressor T cells
246
Q

Cytotoxic (killer) T cells

A

directly attack and kill pathogens and infected body cells

247
Q

Helper T cells

A

help regulate the action of cytotoxic T cells, as well as that of B cells in humoral responses

248
Q

Memory T cells

A

The first time an antigen invades the body T cells form that respond to that specific antigen
The memory T cells are able to increase the speed and amount of the T cell response with subsequent invasion by that antigen

249
Q

Suppressor T cells

A

thought to stop the immune response when the infection has been contained

250
Q

active immunity

A

children frequently have more infections when they start interacting with people outside their family

251
Q

Lifestyle factors that promote host defenses are

A 
healthful nutrition
adequate hygiene
rest and exercise
stress reduction
immunizations
252
Q

cleaning

A

the removal of visible soil from objects and surfaces

253
Q

Disinfection

A

removes virtually all pathogens on inanimate objects by physical or chemical means, including steam, gas, chemicals, and ultraviolet light

254
Q

Semicritical items

A

those that contact mucous membranes or nonintact skin

255
Q

noncritical items

A

supplies and equipment that come in contact with intact skin but not mucous membranes

256
Q

sterilization

A

the elimination of all microorganisms (except prions) in or on an object
the major sterilizing methods used in hospitals are:
autoclaving with moist heat
ethylene oxide gas
dry heat

257
Q

critical item

A

ones that pose a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any microorganism

258
Q

Standard precautions

A

the first tier of protection, apply to care of all patients

259
Q

Transmission-based precautions

A

the second tier of protection depends on the mode of transmission
contact, droplet, or air

260
Q

MDRO

A

multidrug-resistant organism

261
Q

Control of potentially contaminated equipment and supplies for protective isolation

A

be sure equipment has been disinfected before it is taken into the room
take linen and dishes directly to the protective isolation room and hand them to someone wearing the required protective garb

262
Q

Control of potentially contaminated equipment and suplies forTransmission-based isolation

A

disinfect the equipment on removal from the room
When removing linen or nondisposable items from a room with contact, droplet, or airborne isolation, place them in special isolation bags

263
Q

Sterile technique

A

the use of sterile gloves and sterile supplies

264
Q

modified sterile technique

A

is use of nonsterile procedure gloves with sterile supplies

265
Q

clean technique

A

use of clean hands or nonsterile gloves and clean, rather than sterile, supplies

266
Q

surgical scrub

A

a modification of the handwashing procedure

traditionally involves an extended scrub of the hands using a sponge, mail cleaner, and a bactericidal scrubbing agent

267
Q

Hygiene

A

activities involved in maintaining personal cleanliness and grooming

268
Q

Activities of daily living (ADLs)

A

taking a bath or shower or brushing teeth, promote comfort, improve self-image, and decrease infection and disease

269
Q

Hourly rounding scheduled hygiene care

A

comfort rounds or safety rounds

consists of seeing the patient every hour on schedule

270
Q

Early mourning care scheduled hygiene care

A

provided soon after the patient awakens

271
Q

A.M. (morning) care scheduled hygiene care

A

hygiene care that occurs after breakfast

272
Q

P.M. (afternoon) care scheduled hygiene care

A

given before the patient goes to sleep

273
Q

Integumentary system

A

consists of the skin, the subcutaneous layer directly under the skin, the hair, nails, and sweat and sebaceous glands

274
Q

epidermis

A

the thicker outer layer
consists of stratified squamous epithelial tissue composed of keratinized (dead) cells, which are fused to make the skin waterproof
continually sheds and is completely replaced every 3-4 weeks

275
Q

dermis

A

the thinner, second layer

contains blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves, bases of hair follicles, and sebaceous and sweat glands

276
Q

Functions of the skin

A 
Protection
Sensation
Regulation
Secretion/excretion
Vitamin D formation
277
Q

In your assessment of patients observe the following changes in skin color

A

pallor
erythema
jaundice
cyanosis

278
Q

Pallor

A

in a light-skinned person may appear as pale skin without underlying pink tones
In a dark skinned person may appear as an ashen gray or yellow color

279
Q

Erythema

A

redness of the skin

280
Q

Jaundice

A

a yellow discoloration of the skin occurs in patients with impaired liver funcltion

281
Q

Cyanosis

A

bluish coloring of the skin caused by decreased peripheral circulation or decreased oxygenation of the blood

282
Q

Pruritus

A

itching that may lead to scratching and breaks in the skin

283
Q

Dry skin

A

tends to crack, burn or itch

284
Q

Maceration

A

softening of the skin from prolonged moisture

makes the epidermis more susceptible to injury

285
Q

Excoriation

A

a loss of the superficial layers of the skin caused, for example by scratching and by the digestive enzymes in feces

286
Q

Abrasion

A

a rubbing away of the epidermal layer of the skin especially over bony areas of prominences
often caused by friction or shearing forces that occur when a patient moves or is moved in bed

287
Q

Pressure ulcers

A

lesions caused by tissue compression and inadequate perfusion

288
Q

Acne

A

an inflammation of the sebaceous glands that is common among adolescents and young adults

289
Q

Burns

A

a type of traumatic injury caused by thermal, electrical, chemical, or radioactive agents

290
Q

Bathing serves 3 purposes

A

health
social interaction
pleasure or relaxation

291
Q

Assist bath

A

the nurse helps the patient with areas that may be difficult to reach, such as back, feet, and lefs

292
Q

Partial bath

A

you will cleanse only the areas that may cause odor or discomfort, such as the axillae and perineum

293
Q

bed bath

A

for patients who must remain in bed but who are able to bathe themselves

294
Q

complete bed bath

A

you will wash the patients entire body without assistance from the patient

295
Q

towel bath

A

you place a large towel and a bath blanket in a plastic bag, saturate them with a warmed commercially prepared mix and use them to bathe the patient

296
Q

bag bath

A

one in which you use 8-10 washcloths instead of a towel and bath blanket

297
Q

packaged bath

A

refers to a set of commercially prepared and packaged, premoistened, disposable washcloths that are warmed and used in the same way as a bag bath

298
Q

perineum

A

the area between the anus and vulva in a female, or the anus and scrotum in a male
dark, warm, moist area that supports bacterial growth

299
Q

obesity

A

defined as 20-40% above ones ideal weight

300
Q

Corn

A

a cone-shaped thickening of the epidermis caused by continuous pressure

301
Q

Morbidly obese

A

100% over ideal weight

302
Q

Calluses

A

usually found over bony prominences in the weight-bearing part of the foot

303
Q

Tinea pedis

A

athletes foot

a fungal infection of the skin

304
Q

ingrown toenail

A

may result from improperly trimming the toenails and wearing poorly fitting shoes

305
Q

foot odor

A

produced when microorganisms growing on the feet interact with perspiration

306
Q

plantar warts

A

painful growths caused by a virus

307
Q

pressure ulcers

A

lesions caused by unrelieved pressure that impairs the circulation

308
Q

bunion

A

hallux valgus
a progressive disorder that begins the enlargement of the first metatarsal joint at the base of the great toe and then progresses to leaning of the big toe, gradually changing the angle of the bones

309
Q

incisors

A

for biting and chewing

310
Q

molars

A

teeth in the back of the mouth used for chewing

311
Q

deciduous teeth

A

first set of teeth erupts between ages 6 months and 12 years

loosen, fall out, and are eventually replaced with 32 permanent teeth

312
Q

wisdom teeth

A

the very back molars on either side of each jawbone

313
Q

1 tsp

A

5 mL

314
Q

1 Tbsp

A

15 mL

3 tsp

315
Q

1oz

A

30 mL

316
Q

1 c

A

240 mL

317
Q

1 pt

A

480 mL

318
Q

1 qt

A

960 mL

319
Q

2.2 lb

A

1 kg

320
Q

1 oz

A

30 g

321
Q

1 in

A

2.54 cm

322
Q

39 in

A

1 m

323
Q

2 Tbsp

A

1 oz

324
Q

2 c

A

1 pt

325
Q

2 pt

A

1 qt

326
Q

100

A

hecto

327
Q

deca

A

10

328
Q

1

A

meter

329
Q

0.1

A

deci

330
Q

0.01

A

centi

331
Q

0.001

A

milli

332
Q

0.0001

A

micro

333
Q

1000

A

kilo

334
Q

1 mg= ____ mcg

A

1000

335
Q

1 kg= _____ g

A

1000

336
Q

1g= ____mg

A

1000

337
Q

1L=_____mL

A

1000

338
Q

to add fractions get

A

common denominator

339
Q

to subtract fractions get

A

mixed number then common denominator

340
Q

to multiply fractions get

A

mixed number and cancel

341
Q

to divide fractions get

A

mixed number
reciprocal
multiply across

342
Q

subtracting/adding decimals

A

align the decimals

343
Q

multiply decimals

A

multiply then reinsert the decimal

344
Q

dividing decimals

A

move the decimal into the denominator
then move the decimal in the numerator
the same number of spaces and divide

345
Q

to change the decimal to a fraction

A

move the decimal to make it a whole number then put it over the same number as u u moved the decimal

346
Q

change a fraction to a percent

A

divide numerator by denomenator

and multiply by 100 and reduce

347
Q

change a decimal to a percent

A

move the decimal 2 places to the right

add percent sign

348
Q

change percent to decimal

A

drop the percent sign

move decimal 2 spaces to the left

349
Q

10 mm

A

1 cm

350
Q

100 cm

A

1 m

351
Q

baby bottle tooth decay

A

occurs when parents put an infant or toddler to bed with a bottle or sippy cup of milk, fruit juice, or other sugary beverages

352
Q

Halitosis

A

bad breath
results from poor oral hygiene, eating certain foods, tobacco use, dental carries, infections, or even systemic diseases, such as uncontrolled diabetes or liver disease

353
Q

plaque

A

an invisible, destructive bacterial film that builds up on the teeth, eventually leads to destruction of tooth enamel

354
Q

tartar

A

when the plaque builds up with dead bacteria and forms hard deposits at the gumlines

355
Q

gingivitis

A

inflammation of the gum tissue surrounding the teeth

356
Q

pyorrhea

A

an inflammation characterized by bleeding and receding gums and destruction of the surrounding bone structure

357
Q

stomatitis

A

an inflammation of the oral mucosa

358
Q

glossitis

A

an inflammation of the tongue caused by deficiencies of vitamin B12, folic acid, and iron

359
Q

cheilosis

A

a cracking and or ulceration of the lips which forms reddened fissres at the angles of the mouth

360
Q

bridge

A

partial plate

consists of one or more artificial teeth

361
Q

Vellus hair

A

the short, fine hair present over much of the body

362
Q

Terminal hair

A

coarser, darker, and longer hair found on the scalp, eyebrows, axillae, perineum, and legs

363
Q

Dandruff

A

a condition in which there is excessive shedding of the epidermal layer of the scalp

364
Q

pediculosis

A

an infestation of head lice

365
Q

Alopecia

A

hair loss

366
Q

depilatory

A

hair removing agent

367
Q

1gr= ______mg

A

60

368
Q

Temperature

A

Normal 98.6
100.3 fever
less than 97 hypothermia

369
Q

pulse (HR)

A

below 60= bradycardia

above 100= tachycardia

370
Q

SaO2

A

in CO greater than or equal to 90%

other places 95%

371
Q

BP

A

systole/diastole

Normal range= 120/80-140/90

372
Q

systolic

A

The top number, the higher number

measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats (when the heart muscle contracts)

373
Q

Diastolic

A

The bottom number, the lower number
measures the pressure in the arteries between heartbeats ( when the heart muscle is resting between beats and refiling with blood)

374
Q

CBG

A

Capillary blood glucose

90-125

375
Q

FBG/FBS

A

Normal range 70-90

376
Q

Respiration Rate (RR)

A

12-20 per 15 sec

multiply x 4

NSG 232 (5 decks)

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