Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Parts of a successful patient interview

A

selecting an appropriate physical setting, using a patient centered approach, and creating a positive rapport with the patient; privates, queit, comfortable room free of distraction, sit face to face

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2
Q

Central element of Patient Centered Care

A

treating each patient as a unqiue individual, respecting the patient for who they are, and responding to needs and preferences

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3
Q

Gender Identity

A

represents a persons own internal sense of gender

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4
Q

Gender Expression

A

refers to how an individual presents his or her gender within the context of a culture and society

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5
Q

Cisgender

A

gender identity consistent with the sex assigned at birth

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6
Q

Transgender

A

gender identity that does not mathc the sex assigned at birth; male identifies as female (transfemale) or female identifies as male (transmale)

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7
Q

Nonbinary

A

person does not identify as male or female

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8
Q

Agender

A

person does not identify with any gender

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9
Q

Family Members as Translators

A

family members are discouraged as being translators bc the family may alter th emeaning of what is said or describe what they think is wrong with the patient

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10
Q

Three phases of the interview

A

introduction, discussion and summary

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11
Q

Introduction Phase

A

greet the patient; introduce self to patient; establish puropse of the visit from patient; describe the purpose and process of the interview

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12
Q

Discussion Phase

A

facilitate and maintain a patient centered approach; use various communication skills and techniques to collect data

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13
Q

Summary Phase

A

summarize the data with the patient; allow the patient to clarify the data; create a shared understanding of the problems with the patient; plan for next steps and end einterview

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14
Q

Key Points to Ensure a Successful INterview

A

make a good first impression, be prepared, be an attentive listener through the interview, avoid using medical jargon

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15
Q

Open Ended Questions

A

broadly stated questions encourage a free flwoing, open response; elicit responses that are more than one or two words

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16
Q

Directive Questions

A

or closed ended questions; require only one or two words to answer or leads patinets to focus on a set of thoughts

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17
Q

Facilitation

A

uses phrases to encourggae the patient to continue talking

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18
Q

Reflection

A

technique used to gain claification by restating a phrsase used by the patient in the form of a question

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19
Q

Confrontation

A

used when inconsistencies are noted between what the patient reports and observations or other data about the patient; tone of voice is imp when using; use a ton that communications confusion or misunderstanding rather than one that is accusatory and angry

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20
Q

Why Questions

A

try to avoid them because they can be perceived as threatning and may put patients on the defense; say “I noticed severeal prescriptions left in the bottle….did you intend to take them all”

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21
Q

Overly Talkative Patient

A

use of directive or close ended questions may help to maintain direction and flow of the conversation

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22
Q

Comprehensive Health History

A

performed for new patients in any setting, including a hospital admissino, an initial clinic visit or home visit

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23
Q

Problem Based Assessment

A

includes data that is limited in scope to a specifc problem; such as a lacerated foot; but should still include impt stuff such as allergies

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24
Q

Episodic Assessment

A

generally focuses on a specific problem or problems for which a ptient has already received treatment

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25
Q

Components of Health History

A

biographic data, resons for seeking care, history of presenting illness, present health status, past health history, family history, personal and psychosocial history, review of systems

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26
Q

OLD CARTS

A

onset, location, duration, characteristics, aggravating afactors, related symptoms, treatment, severity

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27
Q

When does patient inspection begin?

A

as soon as you meet the patient

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28
Q

General Appearance

A

includes overall state of health, age, level of consciousness, obvious signs of distress, skin and hygiene

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29
Q

Unintentional Weight Change

A

increase- may be the first sign of fluid retention (1L of fluid retained = incrased by 2.2 lbs)

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30
Q

Temperature

A

regualted by he hypothalamus; range 96.4-99.1 F; lowest temp in the morning and highest in late afternoon/early evening

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31
Q

Oral Temperature

A

smoking, ingestion of hot/cold food/liquid impacts accuracy delay reading for 10 mins in these situations

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32
Q

Tympanic Membrane Temp

A

tug ear upward on helix for adults (and downwards on the earlobe for infants and children); helps straighten the external auditory canal

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33
Q

Axillary Temp

A

though to poorly reflect core body temp bc it is not close to any major blood vessels and thermometer is placed between skin surfaces; but common for infants and children

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34
Q

Rectal Temp

A

reflect core body temperature and is considered more accurate than noninvasive approaches ; but is taken on infants and comatose

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35
Q

Mean usually breathe…

A

diaphragmatically which increased the movement of the abdomen

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36
Q

Women usually breathe….

A

thoracic; which is seen with movement of the chest

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37
Q

Blood Pressure

A

force of blood against the arterial walls and reflect the relationship between cardiac output and perpheral resistance

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38
Q

Systolic Blood Pressure

A

maximum pressure exerted on arteries when the ventricles contract or eject blood from the heart

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39
Q

Diastolic Blood Pressure

A

represents the minimum amount of pressure exerted on the vessels; this occurs when the ventricles relax and fill with blood

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40
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure; normally ranges from 30-40 mmhg

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41
Q

Orthostatic Hypotension

A

a 20-30 mmhg drop in BP when the patient moves from a lying or sitting position to standing indicates orthostatic hypotension

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42
Q

Age (BP)

A

from childhood to adulthood there is a gradual rise in BP

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43
Q

Gender- BP

A

after puberty, females usually have a lower blood pressure than males; however, after menopuase, a womans BP may be higher

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44
Q

Pregnancy -BP

A

during pregnancy, diastolic BP may gradually drop slightly during the first two trimesters of pregnancy, but then it typically returns to the prepregnant levels by term

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45
Q

Race- BP

A

the incidence of hypertension is twice as high in african americans as in whites

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46
Q

Emotions- BP

A

feeling anxious, angry, or stressed may increase blood pressure

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47
Q

Pain- BP

A

eperiencing acute pain may increase BP

48
Q

Personal Habits- BP

A

ingesting caffeine or smoking a cigaretter within 30 mins before measurement may incrase BP

49
Q

Errors resulting in False High BP

A

allowing patient to cross legs; positioning of arm below the heart; using a too narrow cuff; reflating cuff too slowly; reinflating cuff before completely deflating it;failing to wait before a repeat measurement

50
Q

Errors resulting in False Low BP

A

arm above heart; using a too wide cuff; not inflating cuff enough; deflating cuff too fast; pressing diaphragm too firmly

51
Q

Pain Threshold

A

the point at which a stimulus is perceived as pain (which is typically very similar for everyone)

52
Q

Pain Tolerance

A

the duration or intensity of pain that a person endures or tolerates before responding outwardly; highly dependent/variable through culture s

53
Q

Problem Based Coping strategies for Pain

A

involve changing activity patterns or intentional self care activites; walking, stretching, vitamins, etc

54
Q

Emotional Based Coping Strategies for Pain

A

include religious coping and social support

55
Q

Risk Factors for Skin Cancer

A

personal history of skin cancer, family history of skin cancer, older age, exposure to UV, lifetime sun exposure, sever, blistering sunburns especially at an early age, fair skin, blond/red hair, blue or green eyes, moles

56
Q

Pruritus

A

itching

57
Q

Xerosis

A

dry skin

58
Q

Seborrhea

A

oily skin

59
Q

Hyperthyroidism and Nails

A

may cause the nail to separate from the nail bed and make the nail appear “dirty”

60
Q

ABCDE

A

asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolving

61
Q

Hypopigmentation

A

albinism; a complete absence of pigmentation

62
Q

Hyperpigmentation

A

increased melanin deposit; may be indication of an endocrine disorder

63
Q

Cool Skin

A

generalized cool or cold skin is an abnormal finding and may be associtated with shock or hypothermia; if specifically in extremeties it may be an indicator of poor peripheral perfusion

64
Q

Diaphoresis

A

excessive sweating

65
Q

Clubbing

A

the angle of the nail base exceeds 180 degrees; commonly associated with chronic respiratory or cardiovasucalr diasease

66
Q

Cyanosis

A

light skin- grayish blue tone especially in nail beds, earlobes, lips, mucous membranes, palms and soles of the feet; dark skin- ashen gray color most easily seen in the conjunctiva of the eye, oral mucous membranes, and nail beds

67
Q

Erythema

A

light skin- reddish tone with evidence of increased skin temp secondary to inflammation; dark skin- deeper brown or purple skin tone with evidence of increased skin temp secondary to inflammation

68
Q

Pallor

A

dark skin- skin tone appears lighter than normal; may appear ashen, yellowish brown

69
Q

Atopic Dermatitis

A

dermatitis is used to describe a variety of superficial inflammatory conditions of the skin that can be acute or chronic; atopic dermatitis is a chronic superficial inflammation of the skin with an unknown cause; however it is commonly associtated with hay fever and asthma and is thought to be familial

70
Q

Contact Dermatitis

A

inflammatory reaction of the skin that develops in response to irritants or allergens such as metals, plants, chemicals or detergent ; develops in an area exposed to the causative irritant or allergen and appears as localized erythema that may also include edema, wheals, scales or vesicles that may weep ooze and become crust; pruritus

71
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis

A

chronic inflammation of the skin, has no known cause and affects individuals throughout their lives, often with periods of remission and exacerbation;

72
Q

Stasis Dermatitis

A

see in older adults, inflammation of the skin usually affecting the lower legs; area or areas of erythema and prurutis followed by scaling, petechiae, and brown pigmentation

73
Q

Psoriasis

A

chronic; inflammatiory process causes lesions of psoriasis and can range from mild to severe

74
Q

Herpes Varicella

A

chicken pox; high comminicable viral infection; initially lesions are macuales but they progress to papules and tehn vesicles and then crusts

75
Q

Herpes Zoster

A

shingles; dorman herpes varicells virus; commonly on trunk and face

76
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

most common form of skin cancer; locally invasice and rarely metastasizes

77
Q

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

A

second most frequent form of skin cancer; typically on head or neck

78
Q

Hirsutism

A

condition associated with an increase in growth of facial, body or pubic hair in women

79
Q

Sinus Headaches

A

may cause tenderness over frontal or maxillary sinuses

80
Q

Tensions headaches

A

tend to be located in the front or back of the head; described as viselike

81
Q

Cluster Headaches

A

produce pain over the eye, temple, forehead and cheek; burning or stabbing feeling over one eye

82
Q

Presyncope

A

feeling of faintness and impending loss of consciousness; sometimes called a near faint; often cardiovascular symptom

83
Q

Disequilibrium

A

feeling of falling; often a vestibular function disorder

84
Q

Vertigo

A

sensation of movement, usually rotational motion such as whirling or spinning; subjective vertigo is the sensation that ones body is rotating in space; objective vertigo is the sensation that objects are spinning around the body; cardinal symptom of vestibular dysfunction

85
Q

Nose Discharge

A

thick or purulent green-yellow, malodorous discharge usually results from a bacterial infection; foul smelling discharge (especially unilateral) assocaited with foreign body or chronic sinusisits

86
Q

Normocephalic

A

term designating that the skull is symmetric and appropriately proportioned for the size of the body

87
Q

Ptosis

A

the lid of either eye covering part of the pupil

88
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

may be indicated by red conjunctiva, particulary with purulent drainage

89
Q

Yellow Sclera

A

may indicatae jaundice caused by liver disease or obstruction of the common bile duct

90
Q

Pupil diameter

A

less than 2mm or greater than 6mm is an abnormal finding

91
Q

Perrla

A

pupils are equal and round and react to light and accommodation

92
Q

Perforation

A

hole in the tympanic membrane

93
Q

Yellow/Amber Tympanic Membrane

A

serous fluid in the middle ear, which may indicate otitis media with effusion

94
Q

Redness Tympanic Membrane

A

infection in the middle ear such as acute purulent otitis media

95
Q

Chalky White Tympanic Membrane

A

infection in the middle ear such as otitis media

96
Q

Blue or Deep Red of Tympanic Membrane

A

blood behind the tympanic membrane, which may have occured secondary to injury

97
Q

Red Streaks on Tympanic Membrane

A

injected/increased vascularizatino may be caused by allergy

98
Q

Dullness of Tympanic Membrane

A

fibrosis or scarring of the TM secondary to repeated infections

99
Q

White Flecks/Plaques on TM

A

healed inflammation of the TM

100
Q

Weber Test

A

if sound lateralizes to one side the test should be considered abnormal; lateralization of sound to the affected ear suggests conductive hearing loss; lateralization to the unaffected ear suggests sensorineural hearing loss

101
Q

Rinne Test

A

consider abnormal if sound is heard longer by bone conduction than air conduction

102
Q

Migraine Headache

A

second most common; throbbing unilaterla districuion of the headache pain; may accompany dpression, restlessness irratibilty, photophobia nausea or vomiting; may last up to 72 hrs

103
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid

104
Q

Hordeolum

A

stye; acute infection originating in the sebaceous gland of the eyelid; painful red and edematous

105
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

inflammation of palpebral or bulbar conjunctiva; eye appears red; bacterial conjunctivitis produces purulent exudate causing a stickiness in the morning; viral conjunctivites produces a watery exudate; allergic conjunctivitis produces a stringy mucoid dischard and itchiness of the eyes

106
Q

Cataract

A

opacity of the crytalline lens; cloudy or blurred vision; glare from lights, diplopia, changes in glasses prescription; red reflex absent

107
Q

Glaucoma

A

increase in intraocular pressure; open angle, closed angle, congenital, and caused by drugs/meds

108
Q

Acute Otitis Media

A

infection fo the middle ear; ear pain, TM inflamed and red may be bulging; later stages may lead to discoloration, purulent drainage and sudden relief of pain suggest TM perforation

109
Q

Conductive Hearing Loss

A

results from a blockage of teh external canal or problems with TM or problems wit h middle ear; chief complain is decreased ability to hear and report of muffled tones

110
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

caused by structural changes, disorders of the inner ear or problems with the auditory nerve; over 90% of hearing loss

111
Q

Epistaxis

A

nose bleed

112
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

excessive production of thyroid hormone; can be caused by graves disease (most common cause); increased metabolis, goiter

113
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

derceased thyroid hormone production; can be caused by autoimmune thyroiditis, decreased secretion of thyroid releaseing hormone, congential defects, treatment of hyperthyroidism, iodine deficiency; decreased metabolism and slow motion

114
Q

Cigarette use is…

A

documented in pack years; number of years that a person has smoked multiplied by the number of packs of cigarettes smoked each day

115
Q
A