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Sensing And Seeing > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of a somatosensory system?

A

Detects and processes body sensations (touch, temperature, pain, pressure, limb position) via extero and intero receptors

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2
Q

What are steps in sensory perception

A

Detection and transduction
Transmission
Modulation
Perception

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3
Q

What is the primary function of a sensory system?

A

To detect changes in the environment and relay that information to the CNS

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4
Q

What are sensory receptor types?

A

Mechanoreceptors, photoreceptors, nociceptors, chemoreceptors, thermoreceptor

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5
Q

Which sensory receptor is activated by mechanical forces (i.e. touch, stretch, pressure, vibration, etc)?

A

Mechanoreceptors

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6
Q

What are primary receptors?

A

Specialized sensory nerves. Receptors for touch, pain, temp are specialized nerve endings

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7
Q

What are secondary receptors?

A

Specialized non-neuronal cells that send a chemical signal to the sensory neuron. This includes rods and cones of the retina

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8
Q

What are TRP channels?

A

Ion channels that open and close in response to a stimulus. The channel opens based on what the stimulus is.
Cation channel- permeable to Na and Ca (excitatory signal)

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9
Q

What is the difference between slow and rapid adapting receptors?

A

Slow (tonic) adapting receptors have action potentials that continue to be generated at a slow rate while rapid (phasic) adapting receptors initially fire, then the action potential stops.

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10
Q

Somatosensory system

A

= body sensory system (outside of the body/ muscles and joints)

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11
Q

What does the somatosensory pathway include?

A

Involve 3 different neurons with 2 synapses
- synapses in the brain->thalamus-> sensory cortex

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12
Q

Where are most of the sensory receptors located?

A

In the dermis

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13
Q

Of the somatosensory receptors, which ones have free nerve endings?

A

Thermoreceptors and nociceptors

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14
Q

Where is the sensory neurons axon found in the somatosensory system?

A

found in the dorsal root ganglion near the spinal cord

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15
Q

How are merkel cells clinically relevant?

A

Merkel cell carcinomas can occur in cats (malignant) and dogs (benign)

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16
Q

What are merkel cells?

A

Cells in the pressure sensitive areas of the skin that detect light touch

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17
Q

What is the function of nociceptors?

A

They respond to actual or potential tissue damage

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18
Q

How are thermoreceptors divided?

A

Low threshold (cold) and high threshold (warmth)

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19
Q

What is the function of golgi tendon organs?

A

Help to detect the position of limbs. Provide information about muscle contraction and prevent excessive contraction

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20
Q

What is the role of joint kinesthetic receptors?

A

Prevent joint and muscle damage by keeping animals from over extending or flexing their joints

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21
Q

What are some first order somatosensory neurons?

A

Pseudounipolar neurons, peripheral process, cell body, central process

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22
Q

What is the effect of myelination and diameter on action potential?

A

More myelination= fast action potentials travel
More diameter = faster action potentials

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23
Q

What do spinal nerve roots innervate and what is the clinical significance of that?

A

Each spinal nerve segment innervates a strip of skin called dermatome. You can see where a lesion is by testing dermatome areas.

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24
Q

Where do the cell bodies of the first order sensory neurons live?

A

In the dorsal root ganglion

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25
Q

What is inflammation of the dorsal root ganglion called?

A

Ganglioneuritis

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26
Q

Where do the sensory pathways in the spinal cord end up?

A

In the dorsal / lateral funiculi

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27
Q

What type of receptors are activated by light?

A

Photoreceptors

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28
Q

Which part of the brain is primarily associated with conscious perception of sensory stimuli?

A

Primary sensory cortex

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29
Q

What are the layers of the dorsal faciculus?

A

toward the midline of the spinal cord - where the funiculus gracilus is. The faciculus cuneatus is more toward the outside.

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30
Q

What is inflammation of nerve roots of dorsal root ganglia called?

A

Radiculoneuritis

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31
Q

Which half of the spinal cord contains sensory neurons and axons based on their function?

A

Dorsal half

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32
Q

What is the function of the spinothalamic tracts?

A

Relay information about pain and temperature

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33
Q

How many neurons are apart of the spinothalamic tract?

A
  1. First, second, and third order
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34
Q

Where does the axon of the first neuron in the spinothalamic tract originate and synapse?

A

Its cell body originates in the dorsal root ganglion. It synapses in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

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35
Q

Do sensory neurons have to go all the way up to the sensory cortex?

A

No. Some neurons just go to the spinal cord.

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36
Q

What are some other ascending pathways besides the spinothalamic tract?

A

Spinoreticular tract (response to pain), spinovestibular tract (posture and balance), and spinocerebellar tract (unconscious proprioception).

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37
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located?

A

Caudal to the primary motor cortex

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38
Q

What is itch?

A

An unpleasant sensation provoking the desire to scratch.

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39
Q

Which motor neuron is responsible for the concept of whatever occurs on the right is transmitted to the left side of the brain and vice versa?

A

Second order neuron

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40
Q

What pathways travel from the spinal cord to brain

A

Spinothalamic tract and spinoreticular tract

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41
Q

True or False: itch is included in the somatosensory system

A

False

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42
Q

True or false: axons for itch involve C and Ad

A

True

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43
Q

What nerves are responsible for somatosensory innnervation of the head and what do they innervate?

A

Trigeminal n. (CN V): most of the head
Facial n. (CN VII): part of the ear
Glossopharyngeal n. (CN IX): throat
Spinal n. C2: part of pinna, cranial neck

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44
Q

What is the function of the nervous system?

A

To enable the body to respond to changes in the environment and control organs and systems

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45
Q

Describe the anatomic divisions of the nervous system

A

Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

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46
Q

Describe the parts of the peripheral nervous system

A

Peripheral nervous system isn’t covered by bone (peripheral and cranial n. And ganglia)

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47
Q

The CNS is made up by the __________ & ____________.

A

Brain and spinal cord

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48
Q

True or false: Neurons are metabolically active cells.

A

True. They have a high demand for oxygen and energy.

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49
Q

Name the supporting cells of the CNS

A

Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, microglia, ependymal cells

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50
Q

Describe the function of astrocytes

A

Contribute to the BBB and provide physical and metabolic support for neurons

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51
Q

Describe the function of oligodendrocytes

A

Make and maintain the myelin sheath

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52
Q

What is the role of microglia?

A

Phagocyte in the CNS

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53
Q

Kufer cell is the __________

A

Macrophage of the liver

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54
Q

The ependymal cells do what in the CNS?

A

Form the ventricular lining. They have cilia on their surface to help circulate CSF in the CNS.

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55
Q

What cell produces myelin the in PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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56
Q

What do the satellite cells do in the PNS?

A

Provide mechanical and metabolic support

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57
Q

Why is white matter white?

A

It consists almost entirely of myelinated axons.

It is rich in lipid (myelin). Lipid is fat and fat is white.

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58
Q

True or false: the grey matter is rich in neurons

A

True

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59
Q

Arborizing folds in the cerebellum are called

A

Folia

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60
Q

Molecular layer contains

A

Nerve fibers and dendrites

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61
Q

These cells are located between the granular and molecular layer of the cerebellum

A

Purkinje cells- a great place to find negri bodies of rabies

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62
Q

What is responsible for producing CSF?

A

Choroid plexus

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63
Q

What are the 3 layers of the meninges

A

Dura matter (tough mother)
Arachnoid
Pia (tightly covers the outside of the brain)

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64
Q

The arachnoid and pia together form whats called the __________.

A

Leptomeninges

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65
Q

What does the endoneurium do?

A

They surround each nerve fiber and Schwann cell

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66
Q

What surrounds each nerve fascicle?

A

Perineurium

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67
Q

What surrounds the peripheral n.?

A

Epineurium

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68
Q

Name the sensory systems

A

Somatosensory, olfactory, gustatory, visual, and vestibular

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69
Q

What are primary receptors

A

Specialized terminals of sensory neurons that detect touch, pain, and temperature

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70
Q

Which major somatosensory pathways transmits information about touch, pain, temperature, and body position to the cerebral cortex?

A

Dorsal somatosensory pathway

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71
Q

Where do first order sensory neuron axons typically branch.

A

On second order neurons and other interneurons that mediate local effects

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72
Q

Which ascending pathway transmits information about posture and balance to the vestibular nuclei?

A

The spinovestibular tract

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73
Q

The primary function of the thalamus in sensory processing is

A

Acting as a relay station for almost all sensory information going to the cerebral cortex

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74
Q

Where are the nuclei that contain the cell bodies of third-order neurons of the somatosensory system located?

A

ventral part of the thalamus

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75
Q

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located relative to the primary motor cortex?

A

Just caudal to it.

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76
Q

Where do the third order neurons project in the sensory pathways?

A

Somatosensory cortex

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77
Q

What distinguishes the sensory pathways for the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves from the trigeminal nerve pathway?

A

the axons of the first order neurons travel in the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves.
The first-order neurons synapse on second order neurons in the trigeminal sensory nuclei

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78
Q

How is visceral sensation different from somatic sensation?

A

Somatic sensation includes sensations from skin, muscles, tendons, whereas visceral sensation pertains to internal organs

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79
Q

What type of receptors are found on visceral organs?

A

Enteroreceptors (or interoreceptors)

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80
Q

What is visceral pain caused by in veterinary species?

A

gastrointestinal or urinary tract obstruction or inflammation in the viscera (such as pancreatitis).

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81
Q

What are some signs of colic in horses?

A

Stretching, rolling, pawing, or kicking/biting at the flanks

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82
Q

What is the role of transient receptor potential (TRP) channels in sensory reception?

A

Result in depolarization in response to stimuli (Na & Ca)

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83
Q

Which receptors include rods and cones of the retina and hair cells in the inner ear?

A

Secondary receptors

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84
Q

What is receptor adaptation in sensory systems defined as?

A

Decrease in sensitivity to a prolonged stimulus. This allows the sensory system to adjust to sustained inputs.

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85
Q

In sensory systems, what is modulated based on inputs from other sensory receptors?

A

Sensory perception- information in sensory systems

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86
Q

The grey matter of the spinal cord is organized, based on function, into layers called ____________.

A

Rexed’s laminae

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87
Q

Where are the nuclei containing cell bodies of the third-order somatosensory neurons located?

A

In the ventral part of the thalamus

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88
Q

How are the neurons in the cortex organized regarding sensory information?

A

In a somatotopic map- where each part of the cortex receives information from a particular part of the body

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89
Q

What structure runs through the mandibular canal?

A

Inferior alveolar VAN. It will run through the mandibular foramen and exit as the mental n. through the mental foramin

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90
Q

What 4 bones make up the zygomatic arch?

A

The zygomatic, temporal, frontal, and maxilla bones

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91
Q

What three parts form the temporal bone?

A

Petrous, tympanic, squamous

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92
Q

What structures make up the temporo-mandibular joint?

A

The condylar process of the mandible
The squamous part of the temporal bone

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93
Q

What is the significance of the temporal lines?

A

They converge to form the external saggital crest and the form the rostromedial boundary of the temporal fossae which houses the temporalis m. (Major muscle of mastication)

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94
Q

What bony complex provides passage for olfactory nerves and blood vessels?

A

Cribiform plate

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95
Q

What is a location for dental n block that involves the infraorbital VAN?

A

Infraorbital foramen (becomes the maxillary formen as you move caudal

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96
Q

What major aspects does a neuro exam consist of?

A

Observation- what you see and hear
Hands on

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97
Q

What four areas can you localize to in the case of an intracranial lesion?

A

Forebrain: prosencephalon
Cerebellum: dorsal metencephalon
Brain stem: mesencephalon, ventral metencephalon, myelincephalon
Vestibular: central vs. peripheral

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98
Q

You can localize to these 4 areas when a spinal cord lesion is suspected:

A

C1-C5: cranial cervical spinal cord
C6-T2: cervicothoracic
T3-L3: thoracolumbar
L-S3: lumbosacral intumescense

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99
Q

Define intumescence

A

The area of the spinal cord where the nerves are coming off and supplying the limb (i.e. lumbosacral intumescense)

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100
Q

Define decusation and where it occurs

A

Occurs at the forebrain. Meaning crossing over.

The information on the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body.

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101
Q

True or False: you can get lesions just in the sensory system of the PNS.

A

True. You can both motor and sensory deficits occurring by themselves.

Motor deficits are called motor unit disease (or neuromuscular disease).
Sensory deficits are called sensory neuropathy

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102
Q

What is a neuropathy

A

A lesion to the entire nerve in the PNS (sensory and motor deficits occur together)

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103
Q

A disease to the brain is called an ____________.

A

Encephalopathy

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104
Q

Disease of the spinal cord is referred to as what?

A

Myelopathy

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105
Q

The following are examples of disease in what system?
(Neuropathy, Junctionopathy, Myopathy Axonopathy, Myelinopathy, Radiculopathy)

A

Peripheral nervous system

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106
Q

The sympathetic nervous system originates from where?

A

Hypothalamus

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107
Q

Nerves start coming off of the sympathetic nervous system starting where?

A

C7 (caudal cervical thoracic intumescense)

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108
Q

Which cranial nerves supply sympathetic innervation to the head, thoracic viscera, and abdominal viscera?

A

III, VII, IX, X

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109
Q

Of the vagus nerve and vagosympathetic trunk, which one is going toward the head?

A

Vagosympathetic trunk

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110
Q

What is Horner syndrome?

A

Lack of sympathetic innervation to the head and neck

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111
Q

How do you differentiate between upper and lower motor neurons?

A

Pay attention to REFLEXES, tone, and atrophy

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112
Q

Where do upper motor neurons come from?

A

Forebrain, brain stem, cerebellum, C1-C5 spinal cord

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113
Q

Where do lower motor neurons originate?

A

At the intumescense

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114
Q

What effect can an upper motor neuron lesion cause?

A

An exaggerated reflex response

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115
Q

What causes a decreased reflex/ tone response?

A

A lower motor neuron lesion/ disruption

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116
Q

What is the expected reflex and tone response of UMN vs LMN lesions

A

UMN- normal to increased reflexes and tone
LMN- decreased to absent reflexes and tone

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117
Q

What can occur with an C1-C5 lesion?

A

Increased reflexes and tone in thoracic and pelvic limbs.

No more control over LMN activity

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118
Q

What occurs with a C6-T2 lesion?

A

Decreased reflexes and tone in thoracic limb (LMN affected) and increased reflexes and tone in pelvic limb (UMN affected)

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119
Q

What occurs with a T3-L3 lesion?

A

Thoracic limb normal, pelvic limb has increased reflexes and tone

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120
Q

A lesion occurring in L4-S3 would affect the thoracic and pelvic limbs in what ways?

A

Normal thoracic limb function; decreased reflexes and tone in pelvic limb

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121
Q

Where is disuse atrophy seen most?

A

With orthopedic & UMN lesions (chronic and mild)

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122
Q

What type of atrophy is associated with a LMN lesion?

A

Neurogenic atrophy (acute and severe)

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123
Q

True or false: UMN & LMN differentiation includes sensory (proprioception and nociception).

A

False. A patient can have proprioceptive and nociceptive diseases with both

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124
Q

What tools are needed for a neuro exam?

A

Surface with traction, plexometer, hemostats, transIlluminator (light source), cotton balls

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125
Q

If there’s a behavior change, what part of the brain should be on the differential list?

A

Forebrain lesion

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126
Q

The main gait generator is the _______ _______.

A

Red nucleus

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127
Q

Why do dogs head press or “go, go, go”?

A

If there’s a forebrain lesion where you’ve lost inhibition to the red nucleus

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128
Q

In a right forebrain lesion, the ______ side of the animal’s world doesn’t exist.

A

Left

129
Q

What can be observed in an animal with a right forebrain lesion

A

Circling to the right

130
Q

A focal seizure localizes where?

A

Forebrain

131
Q

What is the main contributor for alertness and where does it originate and project?

A

Ascending reticular activating system (ARAS)
- in the midbrain, sends projections to the forebrain

132
Q

Define obtunded.

A

An inappropriate response to a stimulus

133
Q

If the lesion is diffuse, a patient can become

A

Obtunded

134
Q

In order for an animal to become stuporous or comatose, the lesion has to be in the

A

Brainstem

135
Q

What is the significance of the Modified Glasgow coma scale?

A

Looks for levels of consciousness

136
Q

If a patient has a forebrain (prosencephalon) lesion, what could be on your differential list/ observed?

A

Abnormal behavior from neuro abnormality
Seizures
Narcolepsy
Mentation changes- obtunded (diffuse)

137
Q

What are the 3 types of ataxia

A

Proprioceptive, vestibular, cerebellar

138
Q

What clinical signs do you see with proprioceptive ataxia?

A

Scuff toes/ cross over limbs- common with spinal cord disease (some degree of paresis or weakness)

139
Q

What clinical signs do you see with vestibular ataxia?

A

Patients will drift to one side, may sometimes lead into the wall. Could also see a head tilt and nystagmus.

140
Q

What ataxia is characterized by over flexion or extension of the limbs (hypermetria)?

A

Cerebellar ataxia

141
Q

True or false: ataxia is predictable with every step; or regularly irregular.

A

False. Lameness is predictable with every step, or regullary irregular.

Ataxia is secondary to neurological disease and the gait is not predictable, or irregularly irregular.

142
Q

Sympathetic innervation to the head comes from the

A

Thoracic spinal cord

143
Q

Name the nerve fiber types

A

Somatic efferent, visceral afferent
General somatic afferent, general visceral afferent
Special visceral afferent, special somatic afferent

144
Q

Name the nerve fiber types with motor function and their general innervation

A

Somatic efferent – somatic motor (skeletal muscle)
• Visceral efferent – autonomic motor (smooth/cardiac muscle, glands)

145
Q

Name the nerve fiber types with sensory function unique to the head and their general innervation

A

• Special visceral afferent – taste and smell (chemoreceptors)
• Special somatic afferent – vision, hearing, vestibular sense
(photoreceptors, mechanoreceptors)

146
Q

Name the nerve fiber types with sensory function similar to spinal n. and their general innervation

A

• General somatic afferent – somatic sensory
• General visceral afferent – visceral sensory

147
Q

Describe the cranial nerve pathway for somatic efferent fiber type

A

Start in primary motor cortex (UMN), synapses in cranial n. Motor nucleus (cross nucleus)- where LMN nuclei are. Synapse with skeletal mm. @ neuromuscular junction

148
Q

Which cranial nerves have a parasympathetic nucleus in the brainstem?

A

3,7,9,10

149
Q

Which cranial n arises from the telencephalon? What is its function?

A

Olfactory, smell (sensory)

150
Q

fusion of two adjacent vertebrae is a hallmark of what?

A

Block vertebrae

151
Q

What is a differential causing block vertebrae?

A

Previous trauma with traumatic herniated disc that fused

152
Q

What are the 3 breeds most commonly affected by hemivertebrae?

A

Bulldog, pug, Boston terriers

153
Q

What are hallmarks of hemivertebrae?

A

Small size and wedge shaped vertebral body

154
Q

What results from a failure of fusion of the lateral halves of the vertebral body?

A

Butterfly vertebrae

155
Q

Describe transitional vertebrae and where it normally occurs

A

An anomaly where the vertebrae from one region take on characteristics of another region.

Lumbar sacral junction
Thoracolumbar junction

156
Q

What type of transitional vertebrae can be seen in the lumbarsacral junction?

A

Sacralization of L7- where L7 partially or completely fuses to the body of the sacrum

Lumbarization of S1- transverse processes and vertebral disks form between S1 & S2

157
Q

Describe lordosis

A

Ventral deviation of the spine (lo=low)

158
Q

Describe kyphosis

A

Dorsal deviation of the spine (ky= high)

159
Q

Scoliosis is what?

A

Lateral deviation of the spine

160
Q

Lack of development of the vertebral arch is called what?

A

Spina bifida

161
Q

The clinically significant form of spina bifida is what? What is needed to differentiate it?

A

Meningiomylocele

MRI or CT needed. Won’t be able to tell difference between that or the non clinical version with just radiographs.

162
Q

Radiographic features of atlantoaxial instability include

A

Increased distance between the dorsal spinous process of C2 and dorsal arch of C1

Dorsal-caudal displacement of C2

163
Q

Abnormalities of the dens include what?

A

Fractures, agenesis, hypoplasia

164
Q

Endplate lysis is the hallmark Radiographic feature of what infectious disease process?

A

Discospondylitis

165
Q

Osteomyelitis due to paraspinal infection is called

A

Spondylitis

166
Q

What is a radiographic hallmark of spondylitis?

A

Bony proliferation along the ventral aspect of the vertebral body

167
Q

What is a radiographic hallmark of spondylosis deformans?

A

Bone production of the annulus fibrosis between the vertebral disks

168
Q

True or False: multiple myeloma is a plasma cell tumor.

A

True. It also arises from bone marrow and you’ll see multiple areas of moth-eaten lysis

169
Q

Where do you normally see intervertebral disc disease in animals? Why?

A

T10 to lumbar region.

The intercapital ligament provides support to the dorsal annulus in the thoracic spine.

170
Q

The radiographic hallmark of intervertebral disk extrusion is what?

A

Collapsed intervertebral disc space

171
Q

An __________ __________ can be seen in intervertebral disc protrusion/ extrusion. This can deviate the spinal cord.

A

Extradural lesion

172
Q

What is the preferred method for viewing intervertebral disc extrusion?

A

MRI

173
Q

What are the common applications when you would use Brain CT and MRI?

A

Neurological diseases such as:
Masses, multifocal lesions, trauma, and dilated ventricular system

174
Q

The following is an example of what? Is it typically monostotic or polyostotic?

A

Primary vertebral tumor

175
Q

The following is an example of what? Is it common in animals?

A

Secondary (metastatic) vertebral tumor.

Not common in animals

176
Q

CT terminology =

A

Attenutation

177
Q

True or false:
Hyperattenuating= white
Hypoattenuating= black

A

True

178
Q

Window represents

A

The range of shades of grey (HU) displayed by the image

*the example photo has a window from 1000 HU to -1000 HU

179
Q

The central value of the HUs displayed is the ________.

A

Level

the example photo has the level at 0

180
Q

True or false: Voxel is a picture element and has only 2 dimensions.

A

False! PIXEL IS A PICTURE ELEMENT AND HAS ONLY TWO DIMENSIONS (X,Y)

Voxel is a volume picture element and has 3 dimensions (X,Y,Z)

181
Q

Thinner CT slices result in

A

Better spacial resolution images

182
Q

The isotopic voxel allows for what?

A

Better & more accurate 3D reconstructions and volume rendering w/out resolution loss

183
Q

Cone beam CT is more commonly used in where?

A

Dental applications

184
Q

CT is a great diagnostic test for what? Give an example of when you would use CT.

A

Lungs: tumors, pneumonia
Nasal cavity: tumors, rhinitis
Abdomen: masses, portosystemic shunts
Bone: fractures, elbow dysplasia,

185
Q

Some advantages of using CT are

A

More detailed view of anatomy
Faster and less expensive than MRI
Better for bone, lung, abdomen

186
Q

Radiation exposure, more expensive than radiographs, poor soft tissue contrast (when compared to some other diagnostic tests) are disadvantages of

A

CT

187
Q

The Z-axis in an MRI is the what?

A

Slice thickness axis

188
Q

What is a major safety concern with MRI?

A

It is a BIG electromagnet so anything metal needs to be far away.

189
Q

How does MRI work to produce images?

A

Manipulate hydrogen atoms with an external magnetic field, allowing them to penetrate the patient and produce an image

190
Q

MRI terminology for white is

A

Hyper intense

191
Q

Hypo intense is terminology for MRI meaning

A

Black

192
Q

True or false
MRI= attenuation

A

False! MRI= intense

CT=attenuation

193
Q

Sequences for MRI are what? What do they do?

A

Different ways to manipulate the magnet or for the magnet to manipulate the patient. Alters the contrast based on different properties of tissues

194
Q

What are some spin echo sequences and their effects?

A

T2- fluid is bright
T1- fluid is dark

195
Q

What is Gadolinium and its purpose in MRI?

A

Gadolinium is a paramagnetic rare earth metal. It detects breaks in the BBB and makes tissues more hyper intense (T1 sequence)

196
Q

Inversion sequences include STIR and FLAIR. What do they do?

A

STIR- suppress fat signal
FLAIR- suppress CSF signal

197
Q

A gradient echo called FFE (fast field echo) is great for what?

A

Detecting hemorrhage

198
Q

In small animals, MRI is mainly used for

A

Neuroimaging

199
Q

MRI veterinary applications include

A

Neuroimaging
Musculoskeletal
Cancer imaging
Vascular imaging

200
Q

A safety concern with CT is

A

X-ray exposure

201
Q

Advantages of MRI include

A

Better soft tissue contrast and detail
Noninvasive

202
Q

Long scan times, require general anesthesia, and cost are disadvantages of

A

MRI

203
Q

Describe the function of the inner ear

A

Convert mechanical stimuli (vibration, acceleration) into action potential

204
Q

The 3 sensory parts of the inner ear are

A

Cochlea, semicircular canals, otolith organs

205
Q

The cochlea detects what?

A

Sound (vibration)

206
Q

Detection of angular acceleration is the function of

A

Semicircular canals

207
Q

Of the three sensory parts of the inner ear, which one detects linear acceleration and position?

A

Otolith organs

208
Q

Cranial nerve VIII is what? What are its 2 parts?

A

Vestibulocochlear; cochlear and vestibular

209
Q

Epithelia of the sensory regions of the inner ear are made by what type of cell?

A

Hair cells

210
Q

How do hair cells convert mechanical stimuli to electrical signals?

A

Depolarization of hair cells via potassium, release neurotransmitter (glutamate), binds to sensory neuron receptors, action potential fires if depolarization sufficient

211
Q

Potassium concentration is high in the __________. So opening a potassium channel results in influx of potassium into the hair cell, leading to _____________.

A

Endolymph; depolarization

212
Q

The organ of corti lives in the _________.

A

Cochlea

213
Q

Smell pathways don’t go through the

A

Thalamus

214
Q

The inferior colliculus is located where?

A

In the midbrain

215
Q

The superior olive and inferior colliculus is important for what?

A

hearing and vision

216
Q

The function of semicircular canals is to what?

A

Detect angular acceleration

217
Q

The anterior semicircular canal detects what? It is located in the saggital plane.

A

Pinch

218
Q

Posterior semicircular canal detects _____.

A

Roll

219
Q

The crista ampullaris is located in the

A

Semicircular canal

220
Q

The vestibular ganglia contain the cell bodies of what neuron type?

A

Bipolar

221
Q

One disease process that can be associated with abnormal eye movements is

A

Vestibular disease

222
Q

How can you distinguish between a change in behavior and a change in mentation?

A

Mentation is related to an animal’s response to stimuli while behavior is not

223
Q

_________ will have localized pain to the limb while _______ will often include other findings of neurological deficits.

A

Lameness; ataxia

224
Q

(T/F) Axons transmit impulses away from the perikaryon while dendrites transmit impulse toward the perikaryon.

A

True

225
Q

What structure are the arrows pointing to in the picture?

A

Microglia

226
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the structure?
A

Phagocytosis

227
Q

Listed are the infections in different locations of the nervous system. Give the location they are indicating.
A. Meningitis
B. Encephalitis
C. Myelitis

A

A. Meninges
B. Brain
C. Spinal cord

228
Q

True or false: all parts of the nervous system are sterile sites

A

True

229
Q

What are the two non-immunological defenses of the nervous system?

A

Bone and Blood brain barrier

230
Q

The movement of substances (including microbes) is controlled by tight intercellular junctions, astrocyte processes and pericytes surrounding the capillaries, and what else?

A

Specialized transport mechanisms; carrier mediated, lipid soluble substances only

231
Q

What cell type(s) in the CNS process antigens and trigger a response in B and T lymphocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages?

A

Astrocytes and Microglial cells

232
Q

What are some factors associated with increased risk of infection in general?

A

Age (very young/old), immunosuppression, trauma/concurrent infection

233
Q

What are two risk factors associated with specific infections of the nervous system?

A

Eating spoiled silage - listeriosis; penetrating wounds - tetanus

234
Q

What is the most common route of entry for nervous system infections?

A

Hematogenous

235
Q

What are the other two routes of entry associated with nervous system infections (besides the most common)?

A

Retrograde movement within neurons, extension of infectious process from contiguous sites or direct penetration

236
Q

What does vasculitis lead to?

A

Endothelial damage and leakage-> hemorrhage and parenchymal injury

237
Q

Besides vasculitis, what is another result of vascular damage caused by nervous system infections?

A

Septic embolic and/or thrombus formation

238
Q

(T/F) The parenchyma or meninges can be injured by direct damage or indirect damage through induction of an inflammatory response.

A

True

239
Q

Neuropathy is

A

A disorder of a neuron (could be cell body, axon, or Schwann cells)

240
Q

Define myopathy

A

Disorder of muscle fibers

241
Q

What is junctionopathy?

A

Dysfunction of the neuromuscular junction

242
Q

What does a motor unit include?

A

Lower motor neuron, neuromuscular junction, muscle fibers

243
Q

What are two examples of mononeuropathy?

A

Radial neuropathy and sciatic neuropathy

244
Q

Define mononeuropathy

A

Focal/ single peripheral nerve dysfunction

245
Q

Multiple mononeuropathy is

A

Multiple nerves of one limb affected, but no other limb is affected

246
Q

Give an example of multiple mononeuropathy

A

Brachial plexus avulsion

247
Q

Polyneuropathy is

A

Diffuse peripheral nerve dysfunction

248
Q

Polyneuropathy can be secondary to

A

Diabetes mellitus

249
Q

Paresis vs. plegia

A

Paresis is decreased voluntary movement
Plegia is absent voluntary movement (paralyzed)

250
Q

Monoparesis is

A

Decreased voluntary movement of a single limb

251
Q

Monoplegia is

A

Complete paralysis of a single limb

252
Q

What can anatomically cause monoparesis?

A

The motor unit affecting that limb (LMN cell body/ axons of LMN), sensory dysfunction (dorsal root ganglia/ sensory nn.), autonomic nerves and ganglia

253
Q

Factors involved in neurological disease (lameness) include:

A

Decreased voluntary movement
Reduced reflexes
Severe atrophy
Horner’s syndrome

254
Q

Signs of orthopedic disease (lameness) can include:

A

Consistency with each stride
Disuse atrophy (chronic)
Abnormalities with orthopedic exam
Normal neuro exam

255
Q

(T/F): Some animals have both orthopedic and neurologic disease

A

True

256
Q

What parts of the spinal cord does monoparesis affect

A

C6-T2 and L4-S3
Cervical and lumbar intumessence

257
Q

What is the order in which cells vary in their susceptibility to injury?

A

Neurons> glial cells> blood vessels

258
Q

A degenerative and reversible response to retrograde nerve root injury is

A

Chromatolysis (loss of Nissl substance)

259
Q

The following is an example of what reaction pattern resulting from __________ changes in the spinal cord.

A

Chromatolysis; neural

260
Q

Neuronal necrosis is a result of ___________. Known as dead red.

A

Hypoxia

261
Q

Wallerian vs Wallerian-like degeneration is a tissue reaction pattern of ________. Describe them.

A

Axons;
Wallerian: response to trauma, occurs in a nerve fiber distal to site of injury
Wallerian-like: ischemia or degeneration similar to Wallerian but may have different mechanism or characteristics.

262
Q

The following picture is an example of what basic tissue reaction?

A

Segmental swelling (spheroids)

263
Q

Segmental swelling (spheroids) is a tissue reaction pattern of injury to an

A

Axon

264
Q

(T/F): Neurons with the highest metabolic rate are the most susceptible.

A

True

265
Q

What cell type accumulates inclusion bodies in response to viral or degenerative diseases?

A

Neurons

266
Q

What are the consequences of necrosis of the neuropil?

A

Malacia -> glial scar

267
Q

The main causes of edema in the brain and spinal cord are:

A

Vasogenic, interstitial, and cytotoxic (spongiform change)

268
Q

What histologic change do you expect to see in axons?

A

Spheroids

269
Q

What are two risk factors associated with specific infections of the nervous system?

A

Eating spoiled silage - listeriosis; penetrating wounds - tetanus

270
Q

What does vasculitis lead to?

A

Endothelial damage and leakage → hemorrhage and parenchymal injury

271
Q

The two forms of hydrocephalus are

A

Communicating and non-communicating

272
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

a. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

A

Dogs/Cats

273
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

b. Pasteurella

A

(Dogs/cats)

274
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

c. Streptococcus canis

A

Dogs/ Cats

275
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

A

d. Listeria monocytogenes

276
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

e. Clostridium botulinum

A

Dogs, horses, ruminants

277
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

f. Enterobacteriaceae

f. Enterobacteriaceae
i. Escheria coli
ii. Klebsiella
iii. Salmonella
iv. Proteus

A

i. Dogs/cats, horses, ruminants, pigs
ii. Dogs/cats and horses
iii. Dogs/cats, horses, ruminants, pigs
iv. Dogs/cats

278
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

g. Beta-hemolytic Streptococci (not canis)

A

Horses

279
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

h. Rickettsia rickettsia, Ehrlichia canis

A

Dogs/cats

280
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

Clostridium perfringens type D

A

Ruminants

281
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

a. Streptococcus Suis
b. Histophilus somni
c. Clostridium tetani

A

a. Pigs
b. Ruminants
c. Dogs/cats, horses, ruminants, pigs

282
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

Non-spore forming anaerobes
i. Bacterioides
ii. Fusobacterium

A

Dogs/ cats for both

283
Q

Listed below are bacteria shown to most commonly cause disease in dogs, cats AND/OR horses, AND/OR ruminants, AND/OR pigs, sort them.

l. Glaeserella parasuis
m. Nocardia, Actinomyces
n. Shiga toxin producing Escherichia coli
o. Trueperella pyogenes

A

l. Pigs
m. Dogs/ cats
n. Pigs
o. Ruminants, pigs

284
Q

(T/F) Brain abscesses are more common in horses and ruminants than in dogs/cats

A

True

285
Q

(T/F) Meningitis/encephalitis is more common in neonates in horses, ruminants, and pigs and is associated with failure of passive transfer.

A

True

286
Q

What is the gram reaction of clostridium bacteria?

A

Gram positive

287
Q

What is the atmosphere requirement of clostridial bacteria?

A

Strict anaerobes

288
Q

Do clostridial bacteria form endospores?

A

Yes

289
Q

(T/F) Clostridial bacteria love niches with low oxidation-reduction potential such as GIT of animals and humans for C. tetani and soil or vegetation for C. botulinum.

A

True

290
Q

Are clostridial bacteria motile and gas producing?

A

Yes

291
Q

What is the most common route of infection for C. tetani?

A

Inoculation into a wound

292
Q

What are the primary and secondary routes C. tetani take to reach the brain?

A

Primary - wound → motor nerve axons → spinal cord → brain; secondary - bloodstream → brain

293
Q

(T/F) Both C. tetani and C. botulinum produce protoxins which are inactive that need to be activated in the body to cause disease.

A

True

294
Q

Which type of neurons does tetanospasmin inhibit the release of glycine and GABA from?

A

Inhibitory interneurons

295
Q

The lack of inhibitory signal leads to continuous over excitation of motor neurons that manifests as what?

A

Increased muscle tone, rigidity and spasm → spastic paralysis

296
Q

(T/F) Binding of tetanospasmin is irreversible and requires growth of new axon terminals and synapses.

A

True

297
Q

What type of junctions do C. botulinum toxins bind to only?

A

Cholinergic

298
Q

How does C. botulinum get into neurons?

A

Bind to presynaptic neuron via a receptor then passes through the cell membrane by receptor-mediated endocytosis

299
Q

Inside the nerve ending, botulinum toxin blocks the release of what neurotransmitter?

The blocking of that neurotransmitter results in failure to cause a nerve action potential resulting in what type of paralysis?

A

Acetylcholine; Flaccid paralysis

300
Q

What is the typical cause of death associated with botulinum?

A

Respiratory failure d/t paralysis of diaphragm

301
Q

(T/F) In C. tetani infections that reach the nervous system, you see spastic paralysis in all mammalian species.

A

True

302
Q

(T/F) Binding of botulinum toxin is irreversible and requires growth of new axon terminals and synapses.

A

True

303
Q

Which species is the most susceptible to C. tetani infections?

A

Horses

304
Q

Which species are highly resistant to C. tetani infections?

A

Birds and cold-blooded animals

305
Q

You see a horse with increased temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and salivation, convulsive contraction of voluntary muscles, and extensor rigidity, how will they likely die?

Of the above clinical signs, which can be decreased instead and still be associated with C. tetani infection?

A

Death d/t spasm of muscles involved in respiration;

Heart rate, can be increased or decreased

306
Q

What are two clinical signs that are seen with C. tetani infections associated with the eye that are not included in the list below?

increased temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and salivation, convulsive contraction of voluntary muscles, and extensor rigidity,

A

Protrusion of the third eyelid and enophthalmos

307
Q

You find a cat in flaccid paralysis, is this a cause for concern?

A

Nope, they’re just living their life

308
Q

(T/F) Trauma to the skull or spinal cord (particularly if the skin is broken) will definitely increase the risk of bacterial infection in the CNS

A

True

309
Q

Risk factors for the development of nervous system infections involving very specific bacterial infections of the nervous system include

A

• Listeriosis
• Clostridial diseases

310
Q

Bacterial or fungal infection of the intervertebral disks and the adjacent vertebral bones is a hallmark of

A

Discospondylitis

311
Q

Incidental hosts of Parelaphostrongylus tenuis are

A

Sheep, goats and alpacas

312
Q

Neurologic disease of __________________ comes from spinal cord compression and inflammation secondary to migrating nematodes

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis

313
Q

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis is a meningeal worm of

A

White tail deer

314
Q

What bacteria causes suppurative encephalitis with thrombosis and vasculitis (thrombotic meningoencephalitis or TME)

A

Histophilus somni

315
Q

Describe the lesion and name the bacteria causing the disease.

A

Lesion: multifocal, hemorrhage, necrosis; vasculitis
Disease: Histophilus somni -> TME (thrombotic menengioencephalitis)

316
Q

Describe the lesion and cause

A

Supperative meningioencephalitis

Listeria monocytogenes

317
Q

In cattle, what bacteria is responsible for cause of necrotic laryngitis (calf diphtheria), foot rot (in the interdigital space), and liver abscesses?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

318
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum in sheep can cause what?

A

Foot scald (inflammation in the interdigital space), secondary bacteria with foot rot in small ruminants

Sensing And Seeing (5 decks)

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