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KNAT 504 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

most likely fracture facial bone

A

zygomatic bone

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2
Q

emmetropia

A

20/20 vision

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3
Q

myopia

A

nearsightedness
-larger than normal eye
-distant object is focused in front of retinal instead of on it

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4
Q

hypermetropia (hyperopia)

A

farsightedness
-shorter than normal eye
-distant object is out of focus when reaches retina and focuses behind retina

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5
Q

MOI of orbital fracture

A

blunt force to the eye

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6
Q

blowout fracture

A

medial wall and floor fracture

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7
Q

blown up fracture

A

orbital roof fracture

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8
Q

S&S of orbital fracture

A

-pain on orbit
-bruising and swelling
-trapped inferior rectus muscle (downward gaze)

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9
Q

management of orbital fractures

A

-shield the eye
-sensory (dermatome) for CN
-refer
-do not blow nose

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10
Q

periorbital contusion

A

-aka black eye
-MOI: direct trauma to outside eye
-S&S: swelling and bruising

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11
Q

MOI of corneal abrasions

A

direct contact to cornea or foreign object

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12
Q

S&S of corneal abrasions

A

-pain over cornea and conjunctiva
-feels like something in my eye
-blurred vision
-photophobia
-watery eyes
-conjunctival redness
-visualize the object

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13
Q

management of corneal abrasion

A

-immediate referral
-eye closed and patched
-confirmed via fluorescein strips and cobalt blue light

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14
Q

corneal or scleral laceration

A

-aka open globe
-MOI: blunt or sharp trauma or injury with projectile
-S&S: leakage or extrsusion

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15
Q

MOI of iritis

A

traumatic force to the eye (inflammatory response)

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16
Q

S&S of iritis

A

-pain
-burning in the eye
-photophobia
-pupil slow to react to light
-pupil may be restricted

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17
Q

MOI of hyphema

A

-blunt trauma
-spontaneous (hemophilia or sickle cell anemia)

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18
Q

S&S of hyphema

A

pain
impaired vision

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19
Q

management of hyphema

A

patch or shield the eye
refer to ER

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20
Q

MOI of retinal detachment

A

-jarring force to the head
-sneezing
-spontaneous (Marfan’s)

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21
Q

S&S of retinal detachment

A

-flashes of light, halos, or blind spots
-curtain comes down

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22
Q

MOI of ruptured globe

A

severe blunt trauma to globe

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23
Q

S&S of ruptured globe

A

-irregular pupil
-vision is absent or decreased
-obvious deformity
-hyphema
-appearance of foreign substance buldging outward from sclera

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24
Q

management of ruptured globe

A

-medical emergency
-eyes shielded but not patched

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25
Q

MOI of conjunctivities

A

viral or bacterial
-increased risk with contacts

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26
Q

S&S with conjunctivitis

A

-itchy, burning sensation in eye
-photpphobia
-eyelids stuck together
-hindered vision
-redness of eye
-viral discharge is clear and watery
-bacterial discharge is yellow or green

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27
Q

management of conjunctivitis

A

-wear gloves when examining
-eyelids feel fluid filled
-highly contagious
-refrain physical contact
-refrain from contact use
-refer to dr

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28
Q

subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

-bright red blood appearing in sector of eye under clear conjunctiva and white sclera
-broken blood vessel under conjunctiva

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29
Q

corneal or conjunctival foreign bodies

A

-any object embedded in or adhering to conjunctiva or cornea
-something in my eye or scratchy
-attempt to find and flush with saline

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30
Q

management with eye injuries

A

-never remove
-cover and protect the eye (cup)
-cover both eyes
-transport to ER

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31
Q

frequency of retinal tear and detachments

A

-illness, injury, heredity, normal aging
-nearsighted, undergone previous eye surgery, eye trauma, family hisotyr

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32
Q

traumatic iritis

A

-inflammation of iris or anterior chamber secondary to blunt traumatic injury to eye
-dull, deep, aching pain when iris or pupil moves
-photophobia
-can occur 1-7 days post trauma
-slit-lamp

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33
Q

proptosis

A

-MOI: direct trauma to orbit
-S&S: swelling behind eye that pushes eyeball forward (buldging)
-may cause damage to optic nerve

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34
Q

S&S of dislocated contact lens

A

-loss of vision acuity
-presence of foreign body sensation

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35
Q

contact lens removal

A

-remove ASAP after injury
-ask athlete to remove lens
-open eye as much as possible and pinch eye

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36
Q

chemical burns of the eye

A

-S&S: rapid onset of pain, foreign body sensation, loss of vision
-swelling
-blanching of cornea of conjunctiva

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37
Q

management of chemical burns of eye

A

-irrigate eye with saline or water
-patch the eye
-transport to ER with sample of chemical

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38
Q

PEARL

A

pupils equal and reactive to light

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39
Q

large, hard objects may cause what eye pathology

A

orbital fracture
periorbital contusion

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40
Q

large, elastic objects may cause what eye pathology

A

blowout fracture
ruptured globe
corneal abrasion
traumatic iritis
periorbital contusion

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41
Q

small, hard objects may cause what eye pathology

A

ruptured globe
corneal abrasion
corneal laceration
traumatic iritis

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42
Q

small, elastic objects may cause what eye pathology

A

ruptured globe
blowout fracture
corneal abrasion
traumatic iritis

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43
Q

teardrop pupil may indicate

A

corneal laceration
ruptured globe

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44
Q

numbness of cheek and lateral nose indicated

A

-infraorbital nerve injury from orbital floor (blowout) fracture

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45
Q

malocclusion

A

deviation in normal alignment of 2 opposable tissues

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46
Q

external ear

A

pinna (auricle)
external auditory canal
lateral surface of tympanic membrane

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47
Q

middle ear

A

ossicles: malleus, incus, stapes

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48
Q

inner ear

A

vestibule
semicircular canals
cohclea

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49
Q

what separates external and middle ear

A

tympanic membrane

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50
Q

external nose

A

-bone in proximal 1/3 of nose
-cartilage in lower 2/3 covered by skin

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51
Q

internal nose

A

-2 cavities separated by a septum

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52
Q

air filled spaces within the cranium

A

paranasal sinuses

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53
Q

oral cavity contents

A

lips
cheeks
tongue
teeth
salivary glands

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54
Q

how many teeth

A

32

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55
Q

muscle used to close the mouth and chew

A

masseter

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56
Q

muscles used to open the mouth and chew

A

diagastric
mylohyoid
medial and lateral pterygoid

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57
Q

deafness

A

inability to detect any sound

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58
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

-sound conduction pathway is blocked
-mechanical dysfunction

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59
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

-connection to the brain is impaired
-hearing loss involves the inner ear

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60
Q

MOI of zygomatic fracture

A

blow to cheek or periorbital area

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61
Q

MOI of mandible fracture

A

direct blow to mandible anteriorly or laterally

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62
Q

S&S of mandible fracture

A

-pain at fracture site
-headahce
-tinnitus
-balance disruptions

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63
Q

management of mandibular fracture

A

-pain opening and closing mouth
-swelling or deformity over site
-step deformity between teeth
-maloccusion
-bruising
-tender, crepitus, bony deformtiy
-refer

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64
Q

type 1 Le Fort fracture

A

only maxillary bone

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65
Q

type 2 Le Fort fracture

A

maxillary and nasal bones

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66
Q

type 3 Le Fort fracture

A

zygomatic bones, orbit as well as maxillary and nasal bone

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67
Q

otitis externa

A

-aka swimmers ear
-inflammation or infection of external auditory canal and tympanic membrane
-presents with discharge

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68
Q

otitis media

A

-fluid in middle ear
-S&S of infection
-may occur with URI
-viral or bacterial
-pain worsens at night
-fever or ear tugging
-Weber hearing test

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69
Q

MOI of ruptured tympanic membrnae

A

-mechanical pressure: slap to ear or blocked sneeze
-mechanical intrusion: cleaning ear with object
-strong valsalva maneuver

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70
Q

S&S of ruptured tympanic membrane

A

-pain radiating inward and outward
-hearing loss
-tinnitus
-blood or leaking fluids
-inside redness

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71
Q

management of ruptured tympanic membrane

A

-keep ear dry
-pain and inflammatory response = dizziness
-refer

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72
Q

MOI of auricular hematoma

A

single or repeated trauma (wrestling)

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73
Q

S&S of auricular hematoma

A

ear and canal appear red and swollen
-chronic: hardened nodules
-hearing impairment

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74
Q

throat injury

A

-respiratory distress
-inability to speak or change in voice
-loss of consciouness
-bruising around larynx
-examine inside the mouth
-bloody sputum
-refer

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75
Q

which dental injuries do you remove from play

A

class II, III, and IV

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76
Q

dental injury management

A

-luxated tooth: find tooth and immediately reimplant
-tooth fracture: follow up with dentist, return to play with mouthguard (class I only)

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77
Q

allergic rhinitis

A

-immune response (immunoglobulin E)
-nasally inhaled allergens causing sneezing, rhinorrhea, nasal pruritus, congestion

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78
Q

nonallergic rhinitis

A

-results from nasal inflammation due to infection, vasomotor, occupational, hormonal, drug-induced, and GI
-produces excessive mucus

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79
Q

sinisitis

A

-inflammation of mucus membrane lining of nasal cavity
-acute, subacute, recurrent, or chronic
-bacterial or viral
-occurs when infectious materials cause blockage of pathways

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80
Q

deviated septum

A

-occurs from trauma (blow to the nose)
-epistaxis
-may lead to chronic nasal obstruction

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81
Q

epistaxis

A

-aka nosebleed
-common occurance in athletes

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82
Q

where do 90% of nosebleeds occur from

A

Kiesslebach’s plexus on septum

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83
Q

tooth reimplantation

A

-rinse avulsed tooth with water or saline before reimplanting
-hold into socket by biting with gauze
-proper orientation
-store tooth in milk

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84
Q

TMJ

A

-pain opening and closing and mouth
-decreased ROM
-clicking noises
-MOI: lateral blow
-teeth malaligned
-refer
-philadelphia collar

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85
Q

facial lacerations management

A

-control bleeding
-palpated for fracture
-do not remove objects
-clean and dress wound
-refer
-travel with loose pieces

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86
Q

S&S of laryngeal injuries

A

-progressive swelling
-crepitation
-stridor
-blood exiting oral cavity

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87
Q

management of laryngeal injuries

A

-trouble breathing = refer asap
-no = sideline and ice throat

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88
Q

pharyngitis

A

inflammation of pharynx
-aka sore throat

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89
Q

what causes tonsilitis

A

beta-hemolytic streptococcus

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90
Q

laryngitis

A

-inflammation of larynx
-occurs with common cold, bronchitis, pneumonia, flu
-acute or chronic
-MOI: direct trauma, GERD, allergies, smoking, excessive voice
-cheerleaders nodules

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91
Q

oral mucosal lesions

A

-MOI: local trauma, infectious diseases, autoimmune disorders, neoplastic diseases, toxic reactions
-refer for possible oral cancer or infectious diseases

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92
Q

oral candidiasis

A

-aka thrush
-caused by yeast like fungus candida albians
-white, cheesy, curdlike patch on tongue
-common in newborns or after antibiotics
-treat with oral rinse and antifungal meds

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93
Q

oral cancers

A

-tongue, lips and gums
-risk factors: tobacco use, alcohol use, poor oral hygiene, over 40 yo, family history

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94
Q

gingivitis

A

inflammatory condition of gums causes by bacteria
-inadequate brushing causing plaque deposits

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95
Q

periodontitis

A

results in receding gum line and loss of alveolar bone

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96
Q

Bell’s palsy

A

-inhibition of facial nerve
-secondary to trauma or disease
-flaccidity of facial muscles

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97
Q

management of nasal fracture and epistaxis

A

-control bleeding
-squeeze and tilt
-ice pack
-rolled gauze
-palpate for tenderness or crepitus
-ice

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98
Q

2 steps of respiration

A

ventilation
oxygenation

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99
Q

responsibility of upper respiratory tract

A

warming, humidifying, and filtering the air

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100
Q

2 components that lead to obstruction in asthma

A

inflammation and spasm

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101
Q

common asthma triggers

A

allergens
stress or anxiety
smoke or pollutants
cold temps
exercise

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102
Q

S&S of asthma

A

chest tightness
coughing
difficulty breathing
shortness of breath
sleep problems
wheezing or whistling

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103
Q

obstructive lung disease airways obstruct outflow of air

A

asthma

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104
Q

management of asthma

A

-avoid triggers
-rescue meds
-proper usage of meds
-mask and nose breathing to warm and moisterize the air

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105
Q

controller meds for asthma

A

daily long term interventions to manage symptoms

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106
Q

rescue meds for asthma

A

act rapidly to treat acute bronchoconstriction and associated symptoms of coughing, wheezing, dyspnea, and chest tightness

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107
Q

MOI of bronchial asthma

A

caused by viral respiratory tract infection, emotional upset, changes in pressure or temp, exercise, inhalation of noxious odors, exposure to allergen

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108
Q

S&S of bronchial asthma

A

-spasm of smooth bronchial musculature
-edema
-inflammation of mucus membrane
-difficulty breathing
-hyperventilation
-dizziness
-coughing
-wheezing
-shortness of breath
-fatigue

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109
Q

MOI of exercise induced bronchospasm

A

-brought on by exercise
-monitor pulmonary fxn 5, 10, 15, 30 min with exercises
-common in winter sports or cold temps

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110
Q

S&S of exercise induced bronchospasm

A

-narrowing of airways due to spasm and excess mucus
-tight chest
-breathlessness
-coughing
-wheezing
-nausea
-hypertension
-fatigue
-headache
-redness of skin

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111
Q

management of exercise induced bronchospasm

A

-regular exercise with warm up and cool down
-inhaled bronchodilators
-exercise in warm, humid air

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112
Q

any inflammatory condition of the bronchial passages

A

bronchitis
-acute or chronic
-usually viral

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113
Q

MOI of acute bronchitis

A

-infectious winter disease that follows common cold or viral infection
-fatigue, malnutrition, or becoming chilled are predisposing factors (compromised immune system)

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114
Q

S&S of acute bronchitis

A

-URI
-nasal inflammation
-profuse discharge
-slight fever (3-5 days)
-sore throat
-back muscle pains
-cough (2-3 wks)
-yellow mucus = infection

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115
Q

management of acute bronchitis

A

-avoid sleeping in cold
-avoid exercising in the cold
-rest until fever goes away
-hydrate
-antipyretics and analgesics
-cough suppressant

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116
Q

nonreversible airway obstruction typically in long term smokers

A

COPD

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117
Q

2 categories of COPD

A

emphysema
chronic bronchitis

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118
Q

destruction of the alveoli and pulmonary capillary bed

A

emphysema

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119
Q

excessive mucus production with upper airway obstruction

A

chronic bronchitis

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120
Q

MOI of COPD

A

long term exposure to lung irritants

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121
Q

S&S of COPD

A

-mucus production
-coughing
-wheezing
-shortness of breath
-chest tightness

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122
Q

pathophysiology of COPD

A

-airways and air sacs lose their elasticity
-walls between sacs are destroyed
-walls are thick and inflamed
-airways make excessive mucus = clogs

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123
Q

spirometry

A

volume of air in and out of lung and speed function

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124
Q

COPD treatment

A

-stop smoking
-excercise progression
-pulmonary rehab
-bronchodilatory
-inhaled glucocorticosteroids
-annual flu and pneumonia shot

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125
Q

MOI of cystic fibrosis

A

genetic disorder that can manifest os obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic deficiency, urogenital dysfunction, increased electrolyte sweating
-life expectancy 30 yrs

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126
Q

S&S of cystic fibrosis

A

-bronchitis
-pneumonia
-respiratory failure
-gall bladder disease
-pancreatitis
-diabetes
-nutritional deficiencies
-high production of mucus

127
Q

management of cystic fibrosis

A

-antibiotics to control pulmonary disease
-consistent postural changes to mobilize secretions
-high fluid intake to thin secretions

128
Q

MOI of pneumonia

A

-infection of alveoli and bronchioles from viral, bacterial, or fungal
-irritation from chemicals, aspiration of vomit
-alveoli fill with exudate, inflammatory cells and fibrin

129
Q

S&S of pneumonia

A

-low pulse ox
-chest xray
-bacteria will have a rapid onset
-high fever, chills, pain with breathing
-decreased breath sounds
-rhonchi on ausculation
-coughing of purulent
-yellow sputum
-short breaths

130
Q

management of pneumonia

A

-antibiotics
-deep breathing exercises to remove sputum
-analgesics and antipyretics for pain and fever

131
Q

descriptive term for any inflammation of pluera that causes pain

A

pleurisy
-aka pleuritis or pleuritic chest pain
-may develop with lung inflammation (pneumonia or TB)

132
Q

diagnosis given to any number of self-limited viral infections affecting upper respiratory tract

A

upper respiratory infection
-common cold
-highly transmissable

133
Q

highly contagious bacterial infection

A

TB
-highly contagious

134
Q

one of the most common cancers in the US

A

lung cancer

135
Q

spontaneous collapsed lung S&S

A

sharp pain
chest pain increases with breath

136
Q

tension collapsed lung S&S

A

traumatic
foreign body
rib fracture

137
Q

pleural cavity becomes filled with air, negatively pressurizing the cavity, causing the lung to collapse

A

pneumothorax

138
Q

S&S of pneumothorax

A

pleuritic chest pain
cough increases pain
absent lung sounds

139
Q

pleural sac on one side fills with air displacing lung and heart, compressing the opposite lung

A

tension pneumothorax

140
Q

S&S of tension pneumothorax

A

-shortness of breath
-chest pain
-absence of breath sounds
-cyanosis
-distention of neck veins
-deviated trachea
-needle decompression

141
Q

S&S of hemothorax

A

-painful breathing
-dyspnea
-coughing up frothy blood
-signs of shock

142
Q

normal breathing rate

A

12-20 breaths/min

143
Q

hyperpnea

A

tachypnea with very large breaths (hyperventilation)

144
Q

hypopnea

A

shallow, slow breaths

145
Q

orthopnea

A

shortness of breath when lying down

146
Q

palpable vibration generated from larynx and transmitted through patient’s bronchi and lungs to chest wall

A

tactile fremitus (say 99)

147
Q

3 sounds heard with lung ausculation

A

-bronchial breath sounds
-bronchovesicular breath sounds
-vesicular breath sounds

148
Q

pulmonary circuit of the heart

A

right side atrium and ventricle

149
Q

systemic circuit of the heart

A

left side atrium and ventricle

150
Q

valve between right atria and ventricle

A

tricuspid valve

151
Q

valve between left atria and ventricle

A

mitral (bicuspid) valve

152
Q

which side is the aorta on the heart

A

left side

153
Q

carry oxygenated blood to tissues via high-pressure system

A

arteries

154
Q

return deoxygenated blood to atria under much lower pressure system

A

veins

155
Q

electrical stimulus through the atria (atrial depolarization)

A

P wave

156
Q

time between stimuli of atria and ventricles

A

PR interval

157
Q

stimuli traveling through ventricles (ventricular depolarization)

A

QRS complex

158
Q

ventricular repolarization (relaxing)

A

ST segment and T wave

159
Q

final stage of ventricular repolarization

A

U wave

160
Q

causes of sudden cardiac death

A

HCM
long QT syndrome
wolff-parkinson-white syndrome
ARVSD
commotio cordis

161
Q

MOI of sudden cardiac death

A

-HCM: thickening of cardiac muscle
-anomalous origin of coronary arteries
-Marfan’s syndrome
-cardiac issues
-drug and alcohol abuse, interracial bleeding, obstructive respiratory disease

162
Q

S&S of sudden cardiac death

A

-most are asymptomatic
-may have chest pain, heart palpitations, syncope, nausea, profuse sweating, shortness of breath, malaise, fever

163
Q

management/prevention of sudden cardiac death

A

-counseling and screening
-history of heart murmurs
-chest pain with activity
-fainting episodes
-family history
-echo/ECG

164
Q

what is affected with commotio cordis

A

upstroke of T wave

165
Q

MOI of commotio cordis

A

-syndrome resulting in cardiac arrest due to traumatic blunt impact to chest
-contact sports are at risk

166
Q

S&S of commotio cordis

A

ventricular fibrillation

167
Q

management of commotio cordis

A

-AED ASAP
-low success rate

168
Q

leading cause of sudden cardiac death in athletes in US under 35 yo

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

169
Q

what is HCM

A

abnormally hypertrophies but no dilated left ventricle in absence of physiological conditions
-decreased chamber volume and diastolic filling = decreased stroke volume and cardiac output

170
Q

S&S of HCM

A

fatigue
dyspena
exertional angina
syncope
palpatations
murmur

171
Q

HCM play restrictions

A

restricted from all competitive sports, only low intensity (golf/bowling)

172
Q

diagnosis of HCM

A

-echo
-increased ventricular wall thickness >15mm
-ventricular septum/free wall thickness ration <1:3
-abnormal diastolic filing

173
Q

second leading cause of sudden death in athletes

A

coronary artery abnormalities
-deviating or abnormal coronary artery takeoff or complete absence of artery

174
Q

autosomal dominant hereditary disorder of connective tissue

A

Marfans

175
Q

S&S of Marfans

A

-arm span greater than height
-kyphoscoliosis
-family history
-funnel chest/pectus deformity
-decreased upper body strength to lower
-aortic dissection

176
Q

typical characteristics of Marfans

A

-tall, thin body frame
-excessively long arms, legs, and digits
-arm span longer than height
-hypermobile joints
-pectus deformity
-myopia
-thumb test
-wrist test

177
Q

inflammatory acute or chronic diseases process of cardiac myocytes often resulting from enteroviral infections

A

myocarditis
-inflammation of myocardium

178
Q

congenital aortic stenosis

A

-bicuspid valve malformation
-impaired left ventricular outflow with compensatory hypertrophy of interventricular septum and left ventricular free wall

179
Q

S&S of mitral valve prolapse

A

chest pain
heart palpitations
shortness of breath
syncope

180
Q

diagnosis for mitral valve prolapse

A

asculative findings of mid to late systolic apical click with systolic murmur
-echo
-Holter monitoring
-no treatment if asymptomatic
meds for dental procedures

181
Q

arrhythmias

A

-electrical pathway of heart can malfunction without warning
-recur frequently or disappear for years
-usually from increased vagal tone
-may compromise blood flow and BP

182
Q

wolff-parkinson-white syndrome

A

-ventricular preexcitation and tachycardia from electrical conduction over accessory pathways
-short PR interval and prolonged QRS complex with early depolarization

183
Q

long QT syndrome

A

-ventricular repolarization abnormality (QT prolongation)
-high risk for syncope and ventriclar arrhythmias
-congenital or acquired

184
Q

standard tests for syncope

A

-orthostatic vital signs
-CBC
-blood glucose
-electrolytes
-resting ECG

185
Q

neurocardiogenic syncope

A

anxious, fearful, panic situations
-may require tilt-table test

186
Q

vasovagal/orthostatic syncope

A

usually responding to needles or pain
-no sport restriction

187
Q

S&S of hypertension

A

headaches
malaise
visual problems
exercise intolerance

188
Q

normal BP

A

under 120/80

189
Q

elevated BP

A

120-129/less than 80

190
Q

stage 1 hypertension

A

130-139/80-90

191
Q

stage 2 hypertension

A

140+/90+

192
Q

hypertensive crisis

A

180+/120+

193
Q

common offenders of hypertension

A

-high sodium diet
-caffeine
-nasal decongestants
-nicotine
-NSAIDs
-banned drugs

194
Q

participations with hypertension

A

-moderate (140-179/90-109) may still participate
-severe hypertensive athlete refrain from high intensity activity

195
Q

untreated hypertension can lead to serious consequences such as

A

-heart disease
-CAD
-atherosclerosis
-renal disease
-visual changes
-neurological impairment

196
Q

causes of DVT

A

trauma
surgery
prolonged sitting
oral contraceptives

197
Q

S&S of DVT

A

-limb pain/swelling
-edema distal to affected area
-Homan’s sign
-increased temp

198
Q

treatment of DVT

A

anticoagulants
-avoid contact sports

199
Q

occurs when blood clot becomes lodged in one of the pulmonary blood vessels

A

pulmonary embolus
-interrupt gas exchange

200
Q

S&S of pulmonary embolus

A

-acute dyspnea or chest pain
-recent surgery
-recent long sitting
-fever
-treatment and RTP is same as DVT

201
Q

decreased number of RBC or decreased hemoglobin concentration

A

anemia

202
Q

what triggers anemia

A

NSAIDs
antibiotics
illness

203
Q

S&S of anemia

A

-weakness
-fatigue
-dizziness
-headaches
-dyspnea
-pallor
-jaundice
-craving crunchy food (iron deficienct)

204
Q

treatment of anemia

A

325 mg ferrous sulfate 3x day
-daily therapy up to 6 mo
-athletes perform as tolerated

205
Q

what causes peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

A

atherosclerosis
-risk factors: smoking, hypertension, diabetes, hyperlipidemia

206
Q

Hallmark of PAD

A

intermittent claudication = cramping, weakness, pain, numbness in affected muscles

207
Q

intravascular breakdown of RBC as result of rigors of physical activity

A

hemolysis
-may result in anemia

208
Q

people with 1 sickle cell gene have

A

sickle cell trait

209
Q

people with 2 sickle cell genes have

A

sickle cell anemia

210
Q

sickle cell anemia sport restriciton

A

usually restricted from participation in athletics

211
Q

trait carriers of sickle cell sport restriction

A

not restricted
-prone to heat illness

212
Q

S&S of sickle cell trait

A

-heat intolerance
-severe muscle cramping
-hyperventilation
-rhabdomyolysis

213
Q

management of sickle cell trait

A

-good hydration
-RTP under condition of avoiding the triggers

214
Q

S&S of sickle cell anemia

A

-fever
-pallor
-muscle weakness
-pain in limbs
-pain in upper quadrant (splenic infarction)
-headaches and convulsions

215
Q

management of sickle cell anemia

A

-anticoagulants
-analgesics for pain

216
Q

normal pulse

A

60-80(100) bpm

217
Q

weak pulse indicates

A

shock, heart failure, obstruction

218
Q

strong pulse indicates

A

anxiety, anemia, hyperthyroidism

219
Q

bisferiens pulse indicates

A

HCM or aortic regurgitation

220
Q

influences on BP

A

-dehydration
-cardiac output
-arterial elasticity
-weight lifting
-aerobic exercise
-orthostatic hypotension (low BP from going from seating to standing)

221
Q

T/F resting HR and BP drops with aerobic training

A

true

222
Q

what valve are you listening to at 2nd right intercostal space at right sternal border

A

aortic valve

223
Q

what valve are you listening to at 2nd left intercostal space at left sternal border

A

pulmonic valve

224
Q

what valve are you listening to at 3rd intercostal space at left sternal border

A

2nd pulmonic valve

225
Q

what valve are you listening to at 4th intercostal space along lower left sternal border

A

tricuspid valve

226
Q

what valve are you listening to at 5th intercostal space at apex of heart

A

mitral valve

227
Q

what is inflamed in an athlete who has mono

A

spleen

228
Q

what is a classic procedure used to determine whether an individual is malingering during a performance of functional and special tests

A

Hoover test

229
Q

primary flexor of the spine

A

rectus abdominis

230
Q

what is typical indication of a positive cervical compression test

A

-narrowing of intervertebral foramen
-degeneration of facet joints
-irritation of dural sheath surrounding the spinal cord at cervical level

231
Q

an athlete with suspect nerve root impingement may self report pain with

A

lifting weights
sneezing
during bowel movements

232
Q

typical mechanism of spondys

A

hyperextensions

233
Q

which TOS test would be positive is compression is by pec minor

A

Roos
Allens
Adsons

234
Q

special test performed by running blunt object or fingernail across crest of anteromedial tibia

A

oppenheim

235
Q

what shape of cervical spine is considered healthy

A

lordotic curve

236
Q

what is not correct when conducting the vertebral artery test

A

examiner passively flexes the cervical spine

237
Q

begining testing maneuver for Spurling test

A

passive extension

238
Q

first sacral vertebra failing to unite with remainder of sacrum

A

lumbarization

239
Q

articulation between anterior arch of atlas and dens form

A

atlanto-axial joint

240
Q

what does vertebral arteries and veins pass thru

A

transverse foramen

241
Q

cricoid cartilage located anterior to what cervical vertebra

A

C6

242
Q

how many intevertebral discs are there

A

23

243
Q

primary function of anterior longitudinal ligament is to limit what spinal movement

A

extension

244
Q

what muscle group is primary mover for spinal extension and controls rate of spinal flexion against gravity thru eccentric contractions

A

erector spinae

245
Q

occurs when 5th lumbar vertebrae becomes fused with sacrum

A

sacralization

246
Q

common cause of cervical radiculopathy

A

disc herniation
osteophyte formation
-pressure placed on cervical nerve roots that causes pain and spasm in cervical region

247
Q

common site for cervical disc herniations

A

C5-C6
C6-C7

248
Q

S&S of degenerative joint and disc disease

A

joint pain
cervical stiffness
AROM and PROM limited due to pain and stiffness

249
Q

S&S of cervical instability

A

tender to palpation
muscle spasm
poor control in mid-range of AROM

250
Q

what causes cervical instability

A

poor posture
repetitive movement
muscular weakness
damage to passive restraints

251
Q

MOI of facet joint dysfunction

A

acute trauma such as whiplash or repetitive motion

252
Q

S&S of facet joint dysfunction

A

-posterior neck pain
-clicking or catching
-localized pain, lateral to spinous process
-dislocation, subluxation, or degeneration of facet
-decrease in symptoms with increase in activity
-facetectomy

253
Q

MOI for brachial plexus injury

A

traction or impingement
-aka stinger
-Erbs point

254
Q

what causes TOS

A

pressure on trunks and medial cord of brachial plexus, subclavian artery, and subclavian vein

255
Q

management of TOS

A

correct posture
correct muscle testing

256
Q

narrowing of the spinal column or intevertebral foramen

A

spinal stenosis

257
Q

S&S of spinal stenosis

A

pain during walking
numbness or tingling
weakness
radiating pain

258
Q

extrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosus

A

disc herniation

259
Q

S&S of segmental instability

A

frequent low back pain
short term pain relief from manipulation
catchy or jerky AROM

260
Q

treatment goals with segmental instability

A

postural control
core stability exercises
biomechanical education

261
Q

erector spinae muscle strain

A

-MOI: heavy or repetitive lifting
-aching pain in low back
-pain increases with flexion and extension

262
Q

spondylolysis

A

-collared Scotty dog
-localized low back pain that restricts extension
-defect in Paris interarticularis

263
Q

spondylolisthesis

A

-progression of spondylolysis
-separation of vertebra
-decapitated Scotty dog

264
Q

causes of SI dysfunction

A

-injury or degeneration of pubic symphysis
-tight hamstrings (posterior tilt)
-tight hip flexors (anterior tilt)

265
Q

S&S of SI dysfunction

A

pain over SI joint
compression or distraction of pelvis replicates symptoms

266
Q

Scheuermann disease

A

juvenile hyphosis
13-16 yo
schmorl node

267
Q

S&S of cervical myelopathy

A

-severe compression of the spinal cord
-sensory disturbance of the hands
-muscle wasting of hand
-unsteady gait
-hyperreflexia
-bowel or bladder disturbance
-multisegmental weakness or sensory changes

268
Q

S&S of neoplastic conditions

A

-age 50+
-previous history of cancer
-unexplained weight loss
-constant pain
-night pain

269
Q

S&S of upper cervical ligamentous instability

A

-occipital headache and numbness
-severe limitation during neck AROM
-signs of cervical myelopathy

270
Q

S&S of vertebral artery insufficiency

A

-drop attacks
-dizziness of lightedness
-dysphasia
-dysarthria
-double vision
positive cranial nerve signs

271
Q

upper limb tension test positive for

A

cervical radiculopathy
-stabalize shoulder joint and move shoulder into ROM with elbow flexed and extended

272
Q

Babinski test

A

scrap the bottom of the foot
-positive = fanning of the toes

273
Q

positive cervical compression test

A

cervical radiculopathy

274
Q

positive Spurling test

A

cervical radiculopathy
-assess symptoms in normal resting, have them flex one side (side of referred symptoms), apply compression

275
Q

positive cervical distraction

A

cervical radiculopathy

276
Q

TOS tes

A

Adson
Allen
Military Brace
Roos

277
Q

nerve root impingement special tests

A

valsalva test
milligram test
kerning test
straight leg raise test
well or cross straight leg
slump test

278
Q

open chain

A

non weight bearing

279
Q

closed chain

A

weight bearing

280
Q

length-tension relationship

A

muscles that are too long or too short can produce adverse stress on joint

281
Q

agonist muscle

A

muscle that contracts to perform the primary movement

282
Q

antagonist muscle

A

performs the opposite movement of the agonist

283
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

agonist reflexively relaxes to allow agonists motion to occurc

284
Q

co-contraction

A

concurrent contraction of the agonist and antagonist muscle (tensing up)

285
Q

how to obtain a natural posture

A

-march in place 10x
-roll shoulder back n forth 3x
-nod head back n forth 5x
-inhale and exhale deeply

286
Q

step

A

sequence of events from a specific point in the gait on one extremity to the same point in the opposite extremity

287
Q

step length

A

distance traveled between initial contacts of right and left foot

288
Q

step width

A

distance between points of contact of both feet

289
Q

stride

A

two sequential steps

290
Q

adult average steps

A

107 +/- 2.7 steps/min

291
Q

contact of the foot with the ground creates force yielding vertical, anteroposterior, and mediolateral components

A

ground reaction force

292
Q

center of pressure

A

shows path of the pressure point under the foot during gait

293
Q

what is included in the stance phase

A

-weight bearing
-initial contact
-loading response
-midstance
-terminal stance
-preswing

-begins with initial contact with surface and ends when the contact is broken

294
Q

what is included in the swing phase

A

-non weight bearing
-initial swing
-mid swing
-terminal swing

-begins at instant the foot leaves the surface and ends just before initial contact

295
Q

interventions for correcting gait and posture

A

-cue words or phrases
-footprints on the floor for visual feedback
-hand on body segment for kinesthetic feedback
-orthotics
-different shoes
-strength training
-flexibility or ROM exercises

296
Q

which of the following is not a common response pointing toward possible postural involvement in an injury

A

specific activity aggravating one muscle

297
Q

when assessing muscle length of the gastroc, what dorsiflexion measurement may affect walking gait

A

less than 10 degrees dorsiflexion

298
Q

what is the term for the point where acting and myosin myofilaments overlap and maximum tension cannot be produced

A

active insufficiency

299
Q

what body type can be described as having avg body mass and medium joint surfaces

A

mesomorph

300
Q

which of the following is not a common cause of forward shoulder posture

A

lengthened anterior chest muscles

301
Q

during stance phase of gait, what critical event is associated with the period of midstance

A

single limb support

302
Q

what is the point inside or outside the body where all things are equally balanced

A

center of gravity

303
Q

which of the following changes will occur if a true leg length discrepancy is present

A

pronation on the long leg

304
Q

during which period of the stance phase of gait should one demonstrate the greatest hip flexion angle

A

initial contact

305
Q

what observational gait analysis finding is often made when an athlete has hamstring strain or tight hamstrings

A

excessive knee flexion at initial contact

306
Q

functional unit of gait

A

stride

307
Q

the large space behind the lens of the eye is filled with what

A

vitreous humor

308
Q

a BP cuff too small for an athlete will result in

A

abnormally high BP reading

309
Q

when evaluating the internal structures of the eye, the optic disk can be most easily located by following what structures

A

blood vessels

310
Q

an athlete with viral conjunctivities may RTP when

A

the condition is completely resolved

311
Q

systematic approach of an examination

A

comprehensive med history
systemic review
condition-specific

312
Q

what part of the inner ear encodes the mechanical vibrations as electrical impulses that are sent to the 8th CN

A

cochlea

313
Q

pulse ox at what % is identified as a critical level of hypoxia

A

85%

KNAT 504 (3 decks)

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