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Pediatrics > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Term used for features that appear abnormal

A

Dysmorphic features.

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2
Q

What is plagiocephaly?

A

Flat head syndrome - uncorrected torticollis can lead to this.

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3
Q

If the fetus has measurements that are symmetrically decreased, then it suggests a __________ versus if the head circumference is preserved and other areas are small that suggests _______

A

Chronic exposure (maternal smoking or drug use), congenital infection, metabolic disorder or chromosomal abnormality.
Abnormalities occurring LATER in pregnancy like uteroplacental insufficiency.

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4
Q

Small for gestational age is below ______ and large for gestational age is above _____

A

10th percentile
90th percentile

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5
Q

Glucose screening is recommended for these 3 types of newborns:

A
  1. Large or small for gestational age
  2. Born to diabetic mothers
  3. Late preterm (34-36 6/7)
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6
Q

What is the average head circumference at 40 weeks gestation?

A

14in (35cm) with a range of 13-15 in.

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7
Q

Normal HR, RR and SBP for 40wk newborn

A

HR 120-160
RR 40-60
SBP 60-90

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8
Q

What is Caput succedaneum and is it bad?

A

Scalp edema, pitting, not limited by suture lines and resolves w/in 48hrs. Not serious.

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9
Q

What is cephalohematoma, when is it more common and what is it a risk factor for?

A

Injury to a blood vessel in subperiostial layer. Limited by suture lines.
Forcep or vacuum deliveries.
Risk factor for jaundice and sepsis.
May worsen over 48 hours and take 3-4 months to resolve.

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10
Q

What is the CHARGE acronym and what is it associated with?

A

Coloboma of eye (gap or defect in structure of eye primarily iris), Heart defects, Choanal Atresia, Retraction of growth and/or development, Genital and/or urinary abnormalities, Ear abnormalities and deafness

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11
Q

T/F: dysconjugate gaze is normal in the first 2-3 months of life.

A

True

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12
Q

What is the difference between dacryostenosis and conjunctivitis?

A

Dacryostenosis is a blocked tear duct which causes yellow, sticky secretions to accumulate with normal conjunctiva, but conjunctivitis has red irritated conjunctiva.

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13
Q

Newborns with pre auricular pits or cup ears should have a renal ultrasound if:

A

Other malformations/dysmorphic features, teratogenic exposures, family hx of deafness or maternal history of GDM.

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14
Q

What is choanal atresia?

A

One or both of the nasal airways are narrowed or blocked.

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15
Q

What could the following newborn cardiovascular findings indicate?
Weak pulses
Bounding pulses
Single second heart sound
Grade 3 or higher murmur
Hepatomegaly

A

Weak = poor cardiac output (aortic stenosis)
Bounding = high CO (PDA)
SS - truncus arteriosus, hypoplastic left heart
Murmur - pathogenic
Hepatomeg - L HF.

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16
Q

T/F: the newborn first heart sound should be single and the second heart sound should be split.

A

True.

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17
Q

AD, AR and X-linked conditions are _________

A

Mendelian single-gene conditions

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18
Q

40% of pediatric genetic conditions have an unknown cause
20-25% are environmental and genetic
10-15% are chromosomal during embryogenesis
2-10% are single gene abnormalities

A
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19
Q

Types of environmental triggers for genetic anomalies

A

Maternal disease/sickness
Uterine/placental abnormalieties
Drug/chemicals

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20
Q

1/33 are born with a genetic defect, and 2-3% of genetic conditions are identified at birth. By age 7, 8-10% of children may have 1 or more malformations.

A
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21
Q

Difference between somatic and germline mutations?

A

Somatic - single cell - cancer
Germline - egg/sperm, passed on

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22
Q

What Trisomy’s are compatible with live births?

A

13, 18 and 21

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23
Q

What are the red flags that may indicate a genetic condition

A

Multiple family members with similar/related conditions
AD inheritance
Early age of disease onset
Occurrence of disease in less-often-affected sex
Multi-focal

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24
Q

Difference between penetrance and variability

A

Penetrance is the “visible” abnormality as a percentage
Variability is differences in disease expression

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25
Q

If the trait appears in every generation, and offspring have a 50% chance of being affected. M+F affected equally and M->M transmission is possible. What type of genetic condition?

A

Autosomal Dominant

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26
Q

What type of genetic conditions are “spell check” conditions such as Apert, Marfan, neurofibromatosis, waarenburg)

A

Autosomal Dominant

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27
Q

This genetic condition appears in siblings but not in parents or offspring (skipping generations), M+F equally affected. 25% chance of being passed on in consanguineous carrier parents

A

Autosomal Recessive.

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28
Q

Autosomal recessive conditions often affect _________ pathways

A

Enzyme

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29
Q

Virtually all mitochondria are supplied by the ________

A

Oocyte

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30
Q

CF, SSD, Tay-Sachs, PKU, CAH, Troyer Syndrome are examples of ______ disorders

A

AR

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31
Q

If all daughters of affected males are carriers and the condition is only expressed in males, then it is a

A

X-linked genetic conditons

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32
Q

1/3 of x-linked conditions are denovo, and 2/3 are inherited from mother.

A
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33
Q

Is it possible for a F to have an x-linked condition expressed? In what 3 situations?

A

Yes. If the Dad is affected an mom is carrier OR if they only have 1X (Turner’s) OR x-autosomal translocation

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34
Q

What are some examples of x-linked genetic disorders

A

Hem A+B, Duchenne and Becker MD, color blindness, G6PD

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35
Q

Trisomy 13 is called Patau syndrome.
Trisomy 18 is called Edward’s syndrome.

A
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36
Q

How are mitochondrial diseases inherited?

A

Affected F transmit to all children. Affected M cannot transmit.

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37
Q

What is the difference between deformation and malformation?

A

Deformation - mechanical force causing abnormal shape (ie club foot)
Malformation - structure defect with very early onset (ie neural tube defect)

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38
Q

What is a teratogen an example of? _______ what is the definition?

A

Disruption - structural defect interfering with originally normal development.

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39
Q

2vessel cord has a 7x increased risk for congenital abnormalities and especially cardiovascular.

A
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40
Q

What are some of the most common abnormalities associated with chromosomal defects?

A

2 phalanges, a single palm crease and dysmorphic ears.

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41
Q

What did public Law 110-204 do and what year was it passed in?

A

Newborn Screening Saves Lives Act of 2008
Amends Public Health Services act to facilitate creation of Federal guidelines

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42
Q

NBS Saves Lives Reauthorization (2014). Parental consent required b4 blood could be used in federally-funded research.

A
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43
Q

Read through cases at the end of Genetics PPT

A
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44
Q

NIH GeneReviews - the “google” of genetic disorders

A
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45
Q

What is the pediatric assessment triangle? (PAT)

A

Appearance, WOB and circulation

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46
Q

Some additional H+P during Peds appointment:
Who is the informant and are they reliable?
Birth (gestational age, birth weight, how long stayed in hospital) and Developmental history (missing milestones?)
Imms and prev exams
Faces pain scale
Eat, drink, pee, poo, play, sleep and activity
Home meds in safe locations esp cannabis (gummies)
ASQ/M-CHAT
Potty training - urine and stool and overnight
Comparison with parents and siblings
School performance
Social Media

A
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47
Q

What are the 3 main social determinants of health (SDOH)

A

Access/transportation to appointments and pick up meds
Food security
Housing security

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48
Q

What questions can you ask about peds diet?

A

Breast milk or formula? How often and how much
Vitamin supplements
Solid food - when and what
Appetites
Snacks, juice and soda.

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49
Q

Sacral cleft is usually a sign of issues with the thoracic spinal cord while a gluteal cleft may be a sign of tethered cord/cauda Aquina or future development of pyelenidal cysts

A
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50
Q

The Fetal circulation is ____-resistance and a _____ rate of metabolism.

A

low
High

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51
Q

The PaO2 of a fetus is 40. Are they hypoxic?

A

No because HgF is shifted to the L on the curve so there is more dissociation to the tissues. Sats are still 100%

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52
Q

What may potentially develop in late preterm infants born via C-section with NO LABOR?

A

Delayed Fluid Resoprtion

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53
Q

What needs to happen prior to birth for a GOOD first breath?

A

The pulmonary pressures need to DROP.

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54
Q

What are the 3 “holes” in the pediatric circulatory system?

A

Ductus venous - bypass liver and go to heart
Foramen ovale - LA -> RA
Ductus arteriosus - pulmonary arteries -> descending aorta.

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55
Q

After birth, the newborn needs to ______ their _____ fetal SVR and ______ their ______ fetal PVR

A

Increase , low
Decrease, high

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56
Q

CROTCHES

A

CMV
Rubella
Other (zika)
Toxo
Chicken pox
HIV, HSV, HBV
EBV
Syphilis

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57
Q

TTTS happens in monozygotic twins

A
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58
Q

What is the new term for Mongolian spots?

A

Dermal melanocytosis

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59
Q

Indirect vs direct bili

A

Indirect (UNconjugated) - I and U are vowels. Hgb catabolized to bilirubin which binds to albumin and goes to the liver.
Direct (Conjugated) - DC are consonants. In the liver, the UNconjugated bili is conjugated which means it becomes water soluble and go to GI tract via common bile duct and excreted in stool.

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60
Q

Indirect bili should peak at no more than _____ by day __ of life

A

12
3

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61
Q

8-12 breast feedings/day for first few weeks of life or 1-2 oz of formula every 2-3 hours.

A
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62
Q

A high DIRECT bili (over ___) can signify a blockage in the bile duct (biliary atresia or “pathological” jaundice)

A

2

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63
Q

MILESTONES 0-18 months!! (12-18 on Exam 1 and 0-9 on Quiz)

A
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64
Q

How many well-baby visits in the 1st year?

A

7
3-5 days, 2 weeks, 2, 4, 6, 9 and 12 months

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65
Q

When does autism screening start?

A

18 and 24 months

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66
Q

During health supervision visit is (AKA well-child exams), what are the 4 main objectives?

A

Disease Detection
Disease Preventino
Health Promotion
Anticipatory Guidance

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67
Q

6 components for each well-child visit: and what is the FIRST priority?

A
  1. History (parental concerns) and ROS
  2. Surveillance of Development
  3. Screening tests and risk assessments
  4. Comprehensive Physical Exam
  5. Immunizations
  6. Anticipatory Guidance
    PARENTAL CONCERNS are the first priority!!
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68
Q

When is the peak weight loss and what is normal? When should they return to birthweight?

A

5th day of life
10-12%
7-10 days of life or definitely by the 2week check up.

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69
Q

When should vit d supplementation start for breastfed babies?

A

Within first days of life.

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70
Q

Risk factors for jaundice:

A

<38 weeks, maternal blood type, direct AB test (DAT) positive, cephalohematoma, significant bruising, infant of diabetic mother, East Asian race, older sibling who required phototherapy.

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71
Q

How do you screen for congenital heart defect and what do you do if the screening is positive?

A

Predictable (R hand) and post ductal (L) hand sats at 24hrs after delivery (should not be more than 3% difference). If abnormal, then do diagnostic echo

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72
Q

How do you screen for hyperbilirbinemia and what do you do if the screening is positive?

A

transcutaneous levels. If they are over 15, then obtain serum bili.

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73
Q

Do the Barlow maneuver first: ADduct the hip while applying downward pressure on knee.
then do Ortolani maneuver: flex knee and hips to 90* and with index finger, place anterior pressure on greater trochanters abducting with thumbs. Best to do one leg at a time.

A
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74
Q

A fever during the first 2 months of life is an emergency - go in right away!

A
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75
Q

Main components of 2 week well

A

Return to birth weight, repeat NBS, evaluate maternal/paternal well-being (postpartum depression) and repeat PE.

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76
Q

8-12 feeds/day
16-24oz/day
6-8 wet diapers/day with multiple yellow seedy stools.

A
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77
Q

Newborn RSV vaccine - administer when?

A

Mom at least 14 days prior to birth, OR to baby before they leave. OR Before baby reaches 5g.

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78
Q

What is the normal timeline for umbilical cord to fall off? Care?

A

10-21 days. No alcohol, keep dry, diaper folded down, no submersion until healed. If >3 weeks, consider urachal anomaly or leukocyte adhesion deficiency.

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79
Q

What is the test for a positive hip dysplasia screen?

A

Hip US

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80
Q

T/F: parents should pretreat or give Tylenol after vaccines

A

False. If pt is uncomfortable or runs a fever than you can give, but some evidence show it may decrease immune response.

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81
Q

If you notice torticollis - what should you do?

A

PT referral, neck stretches with diaper changes.

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82
Q

No Motrin until after ______ mo.

A

6 mo

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83
Q

4 mo feeding:

A

6-10x/day
Formula 30-32oz/day.

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84
Q

What should weight be at 4mo visit?

A

Birth weight doubled.

85
Q

6mo feeding

A

Breast 5-6x daily
Formula 30-32oz/day with solids1-3x/day

86
Q

At 6mo, no more Barlow/ortalani and more _______

A

Thigh folds/gluteal folds.

87
Q

Start iron supp at ____ mo.

A

6 for babies who are not starting iron fortified foods.

88
Q

Imms at 9mo?

A

None! But check to make sure they got everything so far!

89
Q

When should testes be fully descended.

A

12mo.

90
Q

What screenings happen at 12 mo?

A

Lead and anemia.

91
Q

What is the difference between surveillance and screening?

A

Surveillance: watching for things to be occurring that arent’ or noticing things that are there that shoulddn’t be there
Screening: using a validated tool to conduct screening.

92
Q

Global developmental delay, intellectual disability/intelectual development disorder, communication disorders (language, speech, social communication, unspecified), Autism spectrum disorder and AD/HD are the top 5 categories of __________ (surveillance/screening?)

A

Surveillance.

93
Q

Surveillance leads to screening.

A
94
Q

Asking about milestones is an example of _______

A

Surveillance

95
Q

M-CHAT screens for ____ and is administered at ______ visits.

A

ASD
9,18 and 30mo.

96
Q

Survey of well-being of young children (SWYC).

A

Puts it all together WITH social context (Edinburgh), emotional behavioral, and milestones/development, POSI along with family questions.

97
Q

POSI is validated for age _____. A positive result would be ____

A

16-36 mo
3 or more points in last 3 columns (out of 7).

98
Q

Major vs minor features of genetic syndromes

A

Major - a single feature that is highly specific with a genetic syndrome
Minor - a group of features that are specific with a genetic syndrome. They may be present just as genetic variants. The more minor features, the more possibility of a genetic syndrome.

99
Q

Diabetic kids must have annual eye exam

A
100
Q

Patients should go to a pediatric ophthalmologist if:

A

They are non-verbal or there is developmental delay, or unable to cooperate.

101
Q

When is best visual acuity achieved in kids?

A

20/20 achieved at 5-6yo

102
Q

Myopia is

A

NEARsightedness (short-sighted). Typical onset around 8.

103
Q

Hyperopia is

A

Farsightedness - blurred close objects.

104
Q

If patient tips head back and looks down nose or moves closer to the TV what might they have?
If patient squints when you point at something across the room?

A

Hyperopia - farsightedness
Myopia - nearsightedness.

105
Q

What is amblyopia? Prognosis? Dx by?

A

Unilateral or bilateral reduction in central visual acuity.
Untreated can lead to blindness or loss of depth.
With corneal light reflex, cardinal fields exam or cover/uncover.

106
Q

Strabismus

A

Misalignment of visual axes of 2 eyes.
“Lazy eye”

107
Q

T/F: you can squeeze a stye but not a chalazion

A

True. Stye is infx of eye lash Zeis gland
Chalazion is infx of meibomian gland.

108
Q

Horner has _____ eye lid and _____ pupil and _____ skin

A

Droopy
Constricted
Dry

109
Q

Strep pneumoniae, M. Catarrhalis, haemophilus influenza B can be associated with

A

URI AND Dacryocystitis

110
Q

Allergic conjunctivitis tx

A

Antihistamines w/ or w/out vasoconstrictor (olapatadine, naphazoline/antazoline)

111
Q

What should you suspect with repeated episodes of conjunctivitis, iritis or episcleritis

A

Suspect mucocutaneous disease such as erythema multiforme (SJS), reiter syndrome, Lupus, JRA, IBD, ankyllosingn spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis, Kawasaki disease.

112
Q

What condition is a “peri-limbic flush” associated with?

A

Uveitis
Anterior uveitis (iritis)
Powterior
Intermediate
Needs urgent slit lamp exam.

113
Q

Preseptal cellulitis - staph or strep.

A
114
Q

Children less than 3 with Preseptal cellulitis can be associated with _____

A

Bacteremia.

115
Q

Orbital cellulitis is almost always from _______

A

Continuous sinus infection (usually ethmoid)

116
Q

Orbital cellulits: describe!
Next steps?

A

Frank pus in orbit (abscess)
Swollen edematous eye, eye pain, bulging, pain with EOM, diplopia, reduced visual acuity and high fever.
CT or MRI, IV abx and possibly surgical drainage.

117
Q

Most common eye tumor?

A

Hemangioma.

118
Q

Most common primary orbital malignancy in childhood? Average age onset?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma
6-7 years.

119
Q

Know the anatomy of the TM

A

Short process, pars flacida (11 o’clock), long process, umbo (center), pars tensa (3 o-clock) and cone of light

120
Q

Cone of light to the _____ in the R ear and to the _____ in the L ear. Pointing to the ______

A

R
L
Nose

121
Q

Age of ____ can do formal audiology testing.

A

5

122
Q

What virus can increase risk for deafness?

A

CMV

123
Q

Bottle feeding increases ET reflux.

A
124
Q

Tobacco use in the home is an increased risk for Otitis Media.

A
125
Q

TM can be red if _____ or _____

A

Crying or fever

126
Q

Risk factors for OE

A

Excessive cleaning, hearing aid irritation, earplug use, summer months

127
Q

Treated OE with abx and not getting better…?

A

Maybe fungal!

128
Q

OE -usually no fever or URI symptoms.

A
129
Q

Do not MISS! Mastoiditis. S/S? Work up?

A

Pain/inflammation over mastoid prominence, tenderness, swelling, erythema, fever, pinna displaced down and out. Pt looks sick. CT scan for eval and IV abx ASAP ENT/ER.

130
Q

Mastoiditis is often a complication of ____

A

Otitis media (recurrent or untreated)

131
Q

Tympanostomy Tube (TT). Do NOT do in kids:

A

OME <3mo
Those who have not had hearing testing
Recurrent acute OM withOUT effusion

132
Q

TT offered for kids who:

A

OM >3months who have had hearing test.
Chronic OM with vestibular problems, poor school performance, behavioral problems and ear discomfort.
recurrent AOM WITH unilateral or bilateral effusion.

133
Q

Watch videos on slide 34 ear PPT

A
134
Q

Difference between AOM and OME.

A

AOM - acute infx treat with abx.
OME - irritation and effusion in middle ear.

135
Q

Most common bacterial causative of AOM?

A

Strep pneumoniae, H. Influenza, m. Catarrhalis.

136
Q

Very unusual to get AOM less than ______. Be concerned!

A

6 weeks of age.

137
Q

Fever, irritability and poor feeding can indicate ______ in infants

A

AOM.

138
Q

Make the dx of AOM IF (these 2 criteria sets are met)

A
  1. Moderate OR severe bulging of the TM present OR new onset otorrhea (not from otitis externa)
  2. Mild bulging of TM AND recent (<48h) onset of ear pain (rubbing, etc) OR intense erythematous of the TM.
139
Q

Treat Children 6-23 months who: have AOM with otorrhea: _________.
AOM with severe symptoms (moderate or severe pain, persistent otalgia for >48hrs, temp >=102.2 in past 48hrs): ______
Bilateral AOM withOUT severe symptoms or otorrhea: _______
Unilateral AOM withOUT severe symptoms or otorrhea:______
Children >=24 months in same 4 situations?

A

6-23mo: Abx, Abx, Abx, Abx or OBS (close f/u in 48-72 hours)
>=24 mo: Abx, Abx, Abx or OBS, Abx or OBS.

140
Q

Vaccines - if kids have missed (especially HIB or Prevnar) then that can make them have more ear infections.

A
141
Q

1st line meds for AOM

A

High dose amoxicillin 80-90mg/kg/day PO in 2 divided doses.

142
Q

What are contraindications for prescribing amoxicillin for AOM?

A

If kid has taken Amox in the past 30 days
no concurrent purulent conjunctivitis
not allergic to penicillin.

143
Q

Allergic to PCN or received Amox in the past 30 days?

A

Augmentin 90/6.4mg/kg/day in 2 divided doses.

144
Q

What is “recurrent AOM” and what can you do about it?

A

3 episodes in 6 months or 4 episodes in 1 year.
TT, pneumococcal and HIB vaccine and annual flu vaccine, exclusive breastfeeding for 6mo and avoid secondhand smoke exposure

145
Q

If 4 of the 5 LLMBC are abnormal then it’s likely _____

A

AOM.

146
Q

Avoid _____ in perforated TM.

A

Abx ear drops and other ear drops

147
Q

Cholesteatoma

A

Destructive, expanding keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process. Usually dx by age 4. Could cause erosion of ossicles, facial nerve palsy or SN or conductive hearing loss.
REFER to ENT

148
Q

OME- fluid but no ____ or _____

A

Inflammation or infection.

149
Q

How long does it take for eustatian tube dysfunction to resolve and fluid to be reabsorbed?

A

Up to 3 months. (79-90%)

150
Q

No evidence to support allergy treatment for OME.

A
151
Q

OME with allergy symptoms and nasal congestion?

A

Nasal steroids

152
Q

Congenital hearing loss - reasons?

A

Prenatal infections, teratogenic drugs, perinatal injury, syndromes (>400 genetic syndromes associated with hearing loss)

153
Q

> 70% of deafness and hearing loss is NON-syndromic.

A
154
Q

Milestone flash cards! With domains .

A
155
Q

Better term for not meeting mental milestones…..

A

Intellectual disability

156
Q

What is the VACTERL acronym associated with genetic conditions?

A

Vertebral anomalies
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Renal anomalies
Limb anomalies

157
Q

What disorders are known to have a later onset in life (dx at adolescent or early adult)? Examples?

A

Neuro degenerative disorders
Huntingtons, Spinocerebellar ataxia, spinal muscular dystrophy

158
Q

Trisomy 18 - tell me about it!

A

<12% survive to 1 year.
Small, short stature, small nipples, chinodactyl, rocker bottom feet, hypo plastic nails, Inguinal, abdominal hernias, born pre-term.

159
Q

Trisomy 13 - tell me about it!

A

20% live >1yr
Cleft lip/palate, microcephalic, deafness, missing ribs, polydactyl, renal anomalies.

160
Q

Klinefelter - tel me about it!

A

47,XXY
1:580 males.
Tall thin, normal until puberty when secondary sex characteristics don’t develop. Infertile. Hypogonadism, increased risk for breast cancer

161
Q

Turner syndrome - tell me about it!

A

1 in 32,000 F
Typical intelligence and life expectancy
Coarct of aorta
Low-set deformed ears, webbed neck, triangular face, infertility

162
Q

Cri du chat - tell me about it!

A

5p
Tracheal hypoplasia, FTT, hypotonia, microcephaly.

163
Q

Williams syndrome - tell me about it!

A

Moderate intellectual disability, verbal skills above deficiencies in other areas. Aortic stenosis.

164
Q

You have a full-term baby with sepsis-like presentation but no risk factors … - what can you consider?

A

Metabolic condition

165
Q

Marfan - tell me about it!

A

Myopia, ectopia lentils, aortic dilitation, bone overgrowth, joint laxity, scoliosis, pes planis (flat feet)

166
Q

Ehller’s danlos syndrome (EDS) tell me about it!

A

Smooth skin, wide scars, poor healing, joint hyper mobility

167
Q

What 6 things can potentially be affected by metabolic disorders?

A
  1. Deficiency of an enzyme
  2. Or its cofactors
  3. Or its biochemical transporters
  4. Deficiency of metabolite
  5. Build up of toxic compound
  6. Combo of above.
168
Q

What labs relating to metabolic conditions should patients be checked for who present with AMS, irritability, neuro impairment or apparent sepsis?

A

Ammonia, blood glucose and anion gap.

169
Q

What is categorized as “excessive” wt loss after birth?

A

> 10% of birth weight

170
Q

Peds normal glucose

A

> =45

171
Q

APGAR components (0-2)

A

HR (0, <100,>100)
Resp (0 or ireg, slow, good)
Muscle tone ( limp, some flexion, active motion)
Reflex irritability/suctioning (none, grimace, cough/sneeze)
Color (blue/pale, acrocyanosis, all pink)

172
Q

What attributes are measured in the Ballard score (o-4)?

A

Posture
Square window
Arm recoil
Popliteal angle
Scarf sign
Heel to ear.
Generally, the older the baby, the less flexible they are, except for the square window.

173
Q

Difference between an omphalocele and gastroscisis

A

Omphalocele = central abd, +hernia sac, -umblilical ring, less frequent intestinal infarct/atresia
Gastroscisis = R para umbilical, -hernia sac, +umbilical ring, more frequent intestinal infarct/atresia.

174
Q

Opioid withdrawal symptoms WITHDRAWALS

A

Wakefulness
Irritability/insomnia
Tremors, temp variation, tachypnea, twitching
Hyperactivity, high-pitched cry, hiccups, hypertonia/hyperreflexia
Diarrhea (explosive), diaphoresis, disorganized suck
Rub marks, resp distress, rhinorrhea, regurg
Apnea, autonomic dysfxn
Wt loss
Alkalosis (resp)
Lacrimation (photophobia), lethargy
Seizure, sneezing, stuffy nose, sweating, non-productive sucking

175
Q

What is considered a low birth weight ?

A

<2,500g

176
Q

Heart failure s/s at these time lines indicate what possible problem?
2 days, 2 weeks and 2 months

A

2 days - transposition of great arteries as PDA closes
2 weeks - Coarct of Aorta
2 months - VSD

177
Q

Causes of IUGR

A

Poor maternal nutrition
Maternal HTN
Fetal anomalies
Infection
TTTS

178
Q

What is hydrops fetalis? What are s/s?

A

Anemia secondary to immune hemolysis or decreased RBC production.
Excessive fluid accumulation in skin and other body cavity.

179
Q

Non-immune hydrops causes?

A

Infx, malignancy, autoinflammatory disease or complex congenital anomalies.

180
Q

What is the greatest risk for poor delivery or pregnancy outcome?

A

Maternal chorioamnionitis

181
Q

What are the most common organisms causing early neonatal sepsis? Tx?

A

E.Coli and GBS.
Ampicillin and an Aminoglycoside (usually gentamycin)

182
Q

Cafe au lait spots can be characteristic of which genetic condition?

A

Neurofibromatosis 1 (NFT1)

183
Q

When should a baby double their birth weight? Triple? double height?

A

By 4-5 months
1 year
5 years

184
Q

Caloric inadequacy is suspected if decreasing _____, ____ and ____ measurements (in that specific order)

A

Weight, length then head circumference

185
Q

Causes of low growth rate

A

Organic - increased metabolic demand due to HF?
Non-organic - neglected child, maternal depression
Endocrine disorders (especially pituitary dysfunction)

186
Q

When should depression screening start?

A

Age 11 with PHQ

187
Q

When should peds patients get a one time lipid screening?

A

Age 9-11

188
Q

When does bili measurement peak in infants? Should not exceed____

A

Day 3
12

189
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia may be pathologic IF:

A

Present on 1st day of life or >13 at peak (day 3) in term babies.

190
Q

What is the end result of untreated hyperbilirubinemai?

A

Kernicterus - chronic and permanent manifestations of biliruben-induced neurologic dysfunction (BIND)/ acute bilirubin encephalopathy

191
Q

Some causes of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia?

A

G6PD
Hemolytic disease
Hypothyroid (>10 days of life)

192
Q

Risk factors for hyperbilirubinemia

A

38 weeks or less gestation
Bruising
Visible jaundice
Maternal-fetal blood incompatibility
Exclusively breastfeeding
Sibling with hyperbili
Macrosomia baby of GDM mother
Down syndrome
Albumin <3
Severe disease in 1st 24hrs (Sepsis)

193
Q

If TC is ____ then check serum

A

> =15

194
Q

Direct bilirubin (conjugated) should not be more than ____ or ______ of total.

A

2 or greater than 20% of total

195
Q

Erythromycin ointment for newborns is prophylactic for most except chlamydia. Chlamydia ophthalmia is treated with ________

A

PO abx to prevent chlamydia pneumonia.

196
Q

Contact lens wearer conjuctivits or keratitis due to ____ infection.

A

Psudomonas

197
Q

Tx for gonococcal ophthalmia

A

IV Ceftriaxone.

198
Q

Episcleritis and anterior uveitis can be treated with

A

Topical steroids.

199
Q

Other than leukokoria what other S/s are associated with retinoblastoma? What other diagnostic tool may be needed if bilateral leukokoria?

A

Abnormal pupil, strabismus, hyphema.
MRI to eval pineal gland if bilateral.

200
Q

When diagnosing AOM - you will have poor TM mobility to positive and negative pressure via pneumatic otoscopy.

A
201
Q

What is the most frequent causative agent of otitis externa?

A

Pseudomonas.

202
Q

Immunocompromised persons with DM get malignant otitis externa. IV abx. Mortality rate in adults is 15-20%. Relapse in first year is common.

A
203
Q

If mom is antibody + and infant is DAT + only to anti-Rh and mom received Rhogam during pregnancy and known not to be anti-Rh+ before rhogam, how often should you check baby’s bili?

A

No need to other than usual TC screening
If any of above is NOT true, then measure TcB and TSB immediately and every 4 hours x2 and every 12 hrs x3

204
Q

What is considered a rapid rate of rise for TSB?

A

> = 0.3mg/dl/hr in 1st 24 hours or >= 0.2mg/dL/hr thereafter

205
Q

Should you be concerned if a breastfed baby looks jaundiced at 3-4weeks? Or formula fed baby at 2 weeks?

A

Yes. Check TSB.

206
Q

How soon after initiating phototherapy in the hospital should you recheck TSB?

A

12 hours.

207
Q

Can you use TcB to check bili in infants that are under phototherapy?

A

No. It will underestimate.

208
Q

When should hyperbili baby have escalated care and what does escalated care involve?

A

If TSB reaches 2mg/dL below exchange transfusion level.

Moved to NICU/PICU, blood draw and type and Cross. IV hydration, neonatology consult and measure TSB every 2 hours.

Pediatrics (11 decks)

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