Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Study of what the body does to the drug (metabolism and excretion)

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2
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Study of what the drug does to the body

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3
Q

Pharmaceutics

A

Study of how dosage forms affect the body

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4
Q

Half life (t1/2)

A

Time required for one-half (50%) of medication to be removed from the body

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5
Q

Agonist

A

Goes to the exact spot we want and there is a response

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6
Q

Antagonist

A

Goes to the spot we want and there is no response but it makes it so another agonist cannot bind there

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7
Q

Drug action

A

The processes involved in the interaction between a drug and body cells

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8
Q

Onset of action

A

How fast a medication starts to work

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9
Q

Peak action

A

The maximum therapeutic affect

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10
Q

Duration of action

A

Total amount of time it can give the intended therapeutic response or action without having to repeat the dose

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11
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

Intended/desired effect of a medication

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12
Q

Side effect or adverse affect

A

Unexpected and undesirable reaction that happened at what should have been a therapeutic dose

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13
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Immunologic hypersensitivity reaction resulting from the unusual sensitivity of a patient to a particular medication

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14
Q

Drug interaction

A

Increase or decrease in the effect of the medication caused by one or both of the meds

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15
Q

Trough level

A

The lowest blood level of the medication

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16
Q

Additive effect

A

Two meds with a similar action can “double up” or make the effect more pronounced

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17
Q

Teratogenic

A

A drug that can cause or raise the risk for a birth defect in a baby

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18
Q

Compliance

A

Implementation or fulfillment of a prescribers/caregivers prescribed course of treatment

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19
Q

Noncompliance

A

Informed decision on the part of the patient not to adhere to or follow a therapeutic plan or suggestion

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20
Q

Dependence

A

When removing the medication from the system causes either a physiologic or psychologic withdrawal

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21
Q

Tolerance

A

When you have less of an effect over time to the same amount of the medication

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22
Q

Steady state

A

When the amount removed/eliminated is equal to the amount absorbed

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23
Q

Enteral route

A

Tablets, capsules, liquids, lozenges, anything that goes in the mouth and starts to break down

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24
Q

Parenteral route

A

Anything injectable

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25
Topical route
Anything that touches the skin, anything inhaled and suppositories as well as eye and ear preparations
26
Which organ helps metabolize the majority of medications
Liver
27
Which organ helps filter and excrete the majority of medications
Kidney
28
What routine blood tests help to evaluate kidney function
GFR, Bun/creatinine, CrCl
29
What blood tests help to evaluate liver function
ALT,AST
30
Food and drug administration
Protect the public by ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications and medical devices
31
Fair trade commission
Responsible for “truth in advertising”
32
Drug enforcement agency
Along with state laws, investigate and enforce controlled substances legislation
33
Department of health and human services
Cabinet level position that deals with anything health/illness related
34
What makes a medication safe as an OTC without a prescription
Drug should have limited interactions, low incidence of adverse effects, low abuse potential
35
Cognitive learning
Think knowledge, learning and storage of basic information
36
Affective learning
Think behavior. This encompasses feelings, thoughts, needs, values and opinions
37
Psychomotor learning
Think skill. How you actually do something
38
Prophylactic treatment
Based on prevention, the person is healthy
39
Empiric treatment
Based on most likely culprit (probability) used when someone is already showing signs of illness
40
Definitive treatment
Based on the actual culprit. Culture and sensitivity results
41
Common cross sensitivities
Cephalosporins and sulfa drugs
42
If someone has an allergy to both PCN and sulfa, what antibiotic class would be safe for that patient
Macrolides and tetracycline
43
Tetracycline special considerations
Don’t give to children or during pregnancy. Will cause permanent discoloration to teeth
44
Vancomycin special considerations
May cause redmans syndrome (red rash on trunk and chest, drop in BP, fever, chills) Stop the infusion immediately Trough level must be 15-20 mcg/ml
45
Fluoroquinolones special considerations
Caution in children due to bones , seizures
46
What class of antibiotics require a peak and trough? What is the timing of collecting these specimens?
Glycopeptide (vancomycin), aminoglycosides Peak is collected 30 min after the med is done infusing Trough is collected 30 min prior to next dose
47
Which medications are especially ototoxic to patients
Aminoglycosides- most “mycins” (Streptomycin, gentamicin, neomycin)
48
If a medication is ototoxic, what other organ should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving the medication? how could they monitor that organ?
Kidney Bun and creatinine, GFR, CrCl
49
What is an atypical microorganism?
Chlamydia - treat with doxycycline Mycoplasma- treat with azithromycin Legionella
50
What medications are most effective against atypical microorganisms
Macrolides (erythromycin,azithromycin) Tetracycline
51
What is the drug of choice for a patient who has been exposed to anthrax
Ciprofloxacin
52
Drug to drug interactions with antibiotics
Oral contraceptives- rendered ineffective Warfarin- raises INR
53
What medications are used for TB and what are drug to drug interactions
Isoniazid/INH- give B6 to prevent neurotoxicity Rifampin- reddish Orange discoloration of body fluids
54
What is candida and what is the drug of choice for women
Candida is yeast Drug of choice is miconazole
55
What is drug of choice for a thrush infection
Oral nystatin
56
Drug to drug interaction for anti fungal medication (azoles)
Macrolides= QT problems
57
What is HAART
Highly active anti retroviral therapy for HIV Retroviruses must convert their RNA Into DNA to replicate; meds are given to interfere with this process
58
What are options to prevent HIV infection before or after exposure
Prep and pep Pep must be started 72 hours after exposure
59
What is the current anti viral treatment of hepatitis C and how long does this therapy take
Ledispavir/sofosbuvir Considered effective in 3 months
60
Anti viral treatment options for a herpes infection
Facial lesions- acyclovir Genital lesions- valacyclovir Either type- famciclovir
61
What are some important anti infective and what are they used to treat or prevent specifically
Bacitracin- staph (Mrsa) Mupirocin- staph (mrsa)
62
What are some common anti fungal medications used to treat tinea infections
Clotrimazole (end in azole)
63
What is the treatment for malaria
Atovaquone/proguanil (malarone) drug of choice for both treatment and prevention good for last minute travelers because drug is started 1-2 days before traveling