Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Study of what the body does to the drug (metabolism and excretion)

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2
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Study of what the drug does to the body

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3
Q

Pharmaceutics

A

Study of how dosage forms affect the body

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4
Q

Half life (t1/2)

A

Time required for one-half (50%) of medication to be removed from the body

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5
Q

Agonist

A

Goes to the exact spot we want and there is a response

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6
Q

Antagonist

A

Goes to the spot we want and there is no response but it makes it so another agonist cannot bind there

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7
Q

Drug action

A

The processes involved in the interaction between a drug and body cells

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8
Q

Onset of action

A

How fast a medication starts to work

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9
Q

Peak action

A

The maximum therapeutic affect

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10
Q

Duration of action

A

Total amount of time it can give the intended therapeutic response or action without having to repeat the dose

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11
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

Intended/desired effect of a medication

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12
Q

Side effect or adverse affect

A

Unexpected and undesirable reaction that happened at what should have been a therapeutic dose

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13
Q

Allergic reaction

A

Immunologic hypersensitivity reaction resulting from the unusual sensitivity of a patient to a particular medication

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14
Q

Drug interaction

A

Increase or decrease in the effect of the medication caused by one or both of the meds

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15
Q

Trough level

A

The lowest blood level of the medication

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16
Q

Additive effect

A

Two meds with a similar action can “double up” or make the effect more pronounced

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17
Q

Teratogenic

A

A drug that can cause or raise the risk for a birth defect in a baby

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18
Q

Compliance

A

Implementation or fulfillment of a prescribers/caregivers prescribed course of treatment

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19
Q

Noncompliance

A

Informed decision on the part of the patient not to adhere to or follow a therapeutic plan or suggestion

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20
Q

Dependence

A

When removing the medication from the system causes either a physiologic or psychologic withdrawal

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21
Q

Tolerance

A

When you have less of an effect over time to the same amount of the medication

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22
Q

Steady state

A

When the amount removed/eliminated is equal to the amount absorbed

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23
Q

Enteral route

A

Tablets, capsules, liquids, lozenges, anything that goes in the mouth and starts to break down

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24
Q

Parenteral route

A

Anything injectable

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25
Q

Topical route

A

Anything that touches the skin, anything inhaled and suppositories as well as eye and ear preparations

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26
Q

Which organ helps metabolize the majority of medications

A

Liver

27
Q

Which organ helps filter and excrete the majority of medications

A

Kidney

28
Q

What routine blood tests help to evaluate kidney function

A

GFR, Bun/creatinine, CrCl

29
Q

What blood tests help to evaluate liver function

A

ALT,AST

30
Q

Food and drug administration

A

Protect the public by ensuring the safety and efficacy of medications and medical devices

31
Q

Fair trade commission

A

Responsible for “truth in advertising”

32
Q

Drug enforcement agency

A

Along with state laws, investigate and enforce controlled substances legislation

33
Q

Department of health and human services

A

Cabinet level position that deals with anything health/illness related

34
Q

What makes a medication safe as an OTC without a prescription

A

Drug should have limited interactions, low incidence of adverse effects, low abuse potential

35
Q

Cognitive learning

A

Think knowledge, learning and storage of basic information

36
Q

Affective learning

A

Think behavior. This encompasses feelings, thoughts, needs, values and opinions

37
Q

Psychomotor learning

A

Think skill. How you actually do something

38
Q

Prophylactic treatment

A

Based on prevention, the person is healthy

39
Q

Empiric treatment

A

Based on most likely culprit (probability) used when someone is already showing signs of illness

40
Q

Definitive treatment

A

Based on the actual culprit. Culture and sensitivity results

41
Q

Common cross sensitivities

A

Cephalosporins and sulfa drugs

42
Q

If someone has an allergy to both PCN and sulfa, what antibiotic class would be safe for that patient

A

Macrolides and tetracycline

43
Q

Tetracycline special considerations

A

Don’t give to children or during pregnancy. Will cause permanent discoloration to teeth

44
Q

Vancomycin special considerations

A

May cause redmans syndrome (red rash on trunk and chest, drop in BP, fever, chills)
Stop the infusion immediately
Trough level must be 15-20 mcg/ml

45
Q

Fluoroquinolones special considerations

A

Caution in children due to bones , seizures

46
Q

What class of antibiotics require a peak and trough? What is the timing of collecting these specimens?

A

Glycopeptide (vancomycin), aminoglycosides
Peak is collected 30 min after the med is done infusing
Trough is collected 30 min prior to next dose

47
Q

Which medications are especially ototoxic to patients

A

Aminoglycosides- most “mycins”
(Streptomycin, gentamicin, neomycin)

48
Q

If a medication is ototoxic, what other organ should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving the medication? how could they monitor that organ?

A

Kidney
Bun and creatinine, GFR, CrCl

49
Q

What is an atypical microorganism?

A

Chlamydia - treat with doxycycline
Mycoplasma- treat with azithromycin
Legionella

50
Q

What medications are most effective against atypical microorganisms

A

Macrolides (erythromycin,azithromycin)
Tetracycline

51
Q

What is the drug of choice for a patient who has been exposed to anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

52
Q

Drug to drug interactions with antibiotics

A

Oral contraceptives- rendered ineffective
Warfarin- raises INR

53
Q

What medications are used for TB and what are drug to drug interactions

A

Isoniazid/INH- give B6 to prevent neurotoxicity
Rifampin- reddish Orange discoloration of body fluids

54
Q

What is candida and what is the drug of choice for women

A

Candida is yeast
Drug of choice is miconazole

55
Q

What is drug of choice for a thrush infection

A

Oral nystatin

56
Q

Drug to drug interaction for anti fungal medication (azoles)

A

Macrolides= QT problems

57
Q

What is HAART

A

Highly active anti retroviral therapy for HIV
Retroviruses must convert their RNA Into DNA to replicate; meds are given to interfere with this process

58
Q

What are options to prevent HIV infection before or after exposure

A

Prep and pep
Pep must be started 72 hours after exposure

59
Q

What is the current anti viral treatment of hepatitis C and how long does this therapy take

A

Ledispavir/sofosbuvir
Considered effective in 3 months

60
Q

Anti viral treatment options for a herpes infection

A

Facial lesions- acyclovir
Genital lesions- valacyclovir
Either type- famciclovir

61
Q

What are some important anti infective and what are they used to treat or prevent specifically

A

Bacitracin- staph (Mrsa)
Mupirocin- staph (mrsa)

62
Q

What are some common anti fungal medications used to treat tinea infections

A

Clotrimazole (end in azole)

63
Q

What is the treatment for malaria

A

Atovaquone/proguanil (malarone) drug of choice for both treatment and prevention good for last minute travelers because drug is started 1-2 days before traveling