Ex5 Flashcards

1
Q

How long is the external auditory canal?

A

2 1/5 cm ( 1 in)

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2
Q

What gland produces cerumen?

A

Apocrine

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3
Q

What kind of environment does cerumen provide?

A

Acidic pH that inhibits the growth of microorganisms

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4
Q

What transmits sounds from the tympanic membrane to the oval window in the inner ear?

A

Ossicles

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5
Q

What separates the external, ear from the middle ear?

A

Tympanic membrane

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6
Q

What pulls the tympanum in at the center (umbo)

A

Malleus

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7
Q

What part of the tympanic membrane is more flaccid?

A

The superior portion

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8
Q

The Eustachian tube drains into what?

A

Posterior aspect of the inferior turbinate

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9
Q

The cochlea transmits sound impulses to where?

A

CN viii

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10
Q

Where are equilibrium receptors in the middle ear found?

A

Semicircular canals and vestibule

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11
Q

What are know an tastebuds?

A

Fungifrom

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12
Q

What are parroted gland outlets that open on the buccaneers mucosa opposite the second molar on each side of the upper jaw?

A

Stensens ducts

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13
Q

What are outlets of the submandibular glands that open on each side of the frenulum ?

A

Wharton ducts

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14
Q

Development of the inner ear occurs when?

A

First trimester

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15
Q

What is different about a child’s Eustachian tube?

A

Shorter, wider, and more horizontal

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16
Q

Sphenoid sinuses are present when?

A

5 years

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17
Q

Front sinus develop when?

A

7 to 8 years

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18
Q

During pregnancy what may cause increased vascularity off the upper respiratory tract. Capillaries of the nose, pharynx and Eustachian tube become engorged.

A

Estrogen

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19
Q

What percent of adults older that 65 have hearing loss?

A

A third

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20
Q

Age related hearing is associated with what?

A

Degeneration of hair cells in the organ of courti, loss of cortical neurons, and degeneration of chochlear conductive membrane

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21
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss first occurs with what kind of sounds?

A

High frequency

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22
Q

Conductive hearing loss may be a result of what?

A

Excess bone deposition, causing the fixation of the stapes to the oval window, cerumen impact ion, sclerotic tympanic membrane

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23
Q

Loss of olfaction begins around age?

A

60

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24
Q

Loss of taste beings deteriorating around age?

A

50

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25
what cells in the organ of courti detect sound vibrations and send the info to CN VIII?
hair cells
26
What bones form the nasal bridge ?
frontal and maxillary
27
what forms the nasal floor?
hard and soft palate
28
what forms the nasal roof?
frontal and sphenoid bones
29
the inferior meatus drains the?
nasolacrimal duct
30
the middle meatus brains the ?
paranasal sinus
31
the superior meatus drains the?
posterior ethmoid sinus
32
what results from blunt trauma and necrosis of the underlying tissue?
cauliflower ear
33
A lateral posterior angle of more than____of the auricle ?
10%
34
a low set auricle may indicate?
chromosomal aberrations or renal disorders
35
a purulent, foul smelling discharge is assoiacted with what?
otitis externa, perforated acute otitis media, foreign body.
36
a bloody or serous discharge is suggestive of what?
skull fracture
37
what way do you pull the auricle when doing and otoscopic exam ?
up and back
38
wet cerumen is a genetic trait and is found in who?
whites and blacks
39
dry cerumen is found as a grayish flake and is seen in who?
asians and native americans
40
when should you not perform water irrigation?
otitis externa
41
no movement with positive and negative pressure may be a sign of?
acute otits media or otitis media with effusion
42
when doing a whisper test the patient should be able to repeat back to you what percent of the sounds you made
50%
43
the weber test helps assess what?
unilateral hearing loss
44
air conducted sound would be heard ______as long as bone conducted?
twice
45
what is meniere disease?
loss of hearing, tinnitus, vertigo
46
nasal flaring is associated with what?
respiratory distress
47
a foreign body in the nose is associated with what?
unilateral thick, green, malodorous discharge
48
blood discharge from the nose may be caused by what two things?
epistaxis, trauma
49
what are signs of cocaine use?
rhinorrhea, hyperemia, and edema of the nasal mucosa
50
localized redness in the vestibule is associated with what?
furuncle
51
turbinates that appear bluish gray is assorted with ?
allergies
52
crusting over the anterior portion of the nasal septum may occur at the site of?
epistaxis
53
deep fissures at the corners of the moth may indicated a what deficiency in what? (chelosis)
riboflavin def
54
circumoral pallor is associated with what?
scarlet fever
55
round, oval or irregular bluish gray macule on the lips and buccal mucosa is associated with what?
Peutz-jeghers syndrome
56
clenching the teeth tests what?
CN VII
57
what class is when the molars have a customary relationship but the one of occlusion is incorrect because of rotated or malpositioned teeth?
I
58
what class is when lower molars are distally positioned ?
II
59
what class is when the lower moles are medially positioned ?
III
60
leucoedema is seem in almost all of this race?
blacks
61
what is a diffuse filmy grayish surface with white streaks, wrinkles, or milky alteration?
leuoedema
62
a red spot on the buccal mucosa at the opening of the stensens duct is associated with what?
parotitis (mumps)
63
what is a localized gingival enlargement?
Epulis
64
gingival enlargement is common in what things?
pregnantcy, puberty, vitamin C def, lukemia.
65
protrudence of the tongue tests what CN?
XII
66
a smooth red tongue with a slick appearance may indicate what?
vitamin b12 def
67
a hairy tongue with yellow brown to black elongated papillae on the dorm sometimes follows what?
antibiotic therapy
68
what nerves are being tested when checking the uvula?
IX X
69
deviation of the uvula to one side may indicate one of two things?
vagus nerve paralysis or peritonsillar abscess (unaffected side for both)
70
a bony protuberance is that occurs bilateral on the lingual surface of the mandible?
torus
71
how do you reduce the gag reflex?
moisten the blade with warm water
72
what are the symptoms of strep pharyngitis
no cough, exudate on tonsils, tender and enlarged anterior node, enlargement of the tonsils
73
what is macroglossia associated with?
hypothyroidism
74
what is the most common inflammatory skin disorder?
eczematous dermatitis
75
what is associated with thick lichen field pruurtic plaques
chronic eczematous dermatitis
76
what is associated with pruitis wheeping vesicles. erythmetaous ?
cut eczematous dermatitis
77
what is a deep infection of the pilosebaceous unit
furuncle
78
what causes a furnacel?
staph
79
what is no well demarcated borders, with lymphageitic steaks and regional lymphadenopathy
cellulitis
80
tinea involves what?
stratum cornium
81
what is associated with a chrisms tree like pattern?
pityriasis rosea
82
what is characterized by well circumscribed, dry, silvery scaling
psoriasis
83
what is a chronic and recurrent disease of keratin synthesis ?
psoriasis
84
what is associated with, rhinopehyma, telangiectasia, papule in the center of the face area
rosacea
85
brown thickening of the skin with a velvety texture
acanthosis nigricans
86
mc form of skin cancer
basal cell carcinoma
87
what is associated with a shiny nodule that is pearly?
basal cell carcinoma
88
what is an elevated growth with a central depression, warlike, irregular borders?
squamous cell carcinoma
89
lethal form of skin cancer ?
melanoma
90
what does ABCDE stand for for melanoma ?
asymmetry, boarders, color, diameter, evolution
91
bluish purple lesion assorted with aids
kaposis sarcoma
92
what is sudden rapid, patch loss of hair, ?
alopecia areata
93
what is the loss of hair from tight hair styles?
traction alopecia
94
what is growth of hair in woman in male distribution
hirsutism
95
what is an infection between the nail fold and the nail plate? rippling of nails
paronychia
96
yellow nail with no pitting, hyperkeratioic debris
onychomycosis
97
what is a central depression of the nail with lateral elevations, associated with iron def, syphillis, dermatoses?
koilonchia (spoon nails)
98
what is a transverse depression in the nail bed?
beau lines
99
white banding is associated with what?
cirrhosis, CCHF, dibetes
100
what is pitting onycholysis, discoloration and sublingual thickening/
psoriasis
101
honey colored crush
impetigo
102
ice pick scarring
acne vulgaris
103
kopek spots
measles (rubeola)
104
pinkish red maculopaular lesions =
german measles (rubella)
105
loss of scalp hair due to physical manibukation
trichotillomania