Ex 4: 1 Apr Vascular Disease Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What is an aortic aneurysm?

A

Aortic aneurysm is a dilation in the wall of the vessel leading to an increase in greater than 50% of the diameter

Symptoms are due to compression of surrounding structures since there is no pain sensation in the vessel itself.

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2
Q

What is the general treatment approach for small aortic aneurysms?

A

Initially treated medically to prevent growth, including blood pressure management and lifestyle changes
- Surgery is generally indicated when the aneurysm approaches 5.5 cm in diameter or the aneurysm diameter begins increasing by 10+mm/yr

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3
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with aortic aneurysm rupture?

A

75% mortality rate

This makes it an extremely dangerous situation requiring monitoring and surgical intervention.

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4
Q

What are the two types of aortic aneurysms?

A

Saccular aneurysms (berry-shaped bulge) and fusiform aneurysms (uniform circumferential dilation)

Both types involve a dilation greater than 50% of the vessel diameter.

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5
Q

What imaging techniques are used to diagnose aortic aneurysms?

A

CT, MRI, angiogram, echocardiogram, and Doppler echocardiogram

These methods provide clear pictures of the aneurysm’s size and structure.

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6
Q

What is aortic dissection?

A

A tear in the intimal layer of the vessel causing blood to seep into the medial layer

It is different from a rupture as it is still relatively contained.

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7
Q

What are the types of aortic dissections based on the Stanford classification?

A

Type A: must involve ascending aorta and can occur in succession with another location in the aorta.
- Type A dissections require emergency surgery.
Type B: does NOT involve ascending aorta.

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of aortic dissection?

A

Sharp, severe pain in the posterior chest or back

This pain is a telltale sign and may require immediate medical attention.

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9
Q

What is the general mortality increase per hour for untreated aortic dissection?

A

1 to 2% increase per hour

Overall mortality is about 25% to 50%.

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10
Q

What is the typical treatment for Type A aortic dissections?

A

Emergency surgery is required, often involving replacement of the ascending aorta

Surgical procedures may include aortic valve replacement and cardiopulmonary bypass.

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11
Q

What are common risk factors for aortic dissection?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Family history
  • Cocaine use
  • Inflammatory diseases
  • Genetic disorders like Marfan syndrome

Other factors include trauma or iatrogenic causes such as cardiac catheterization.

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12
Q

What is the typical long-term survival rate for patients treated medically for Type B aortic dissection?

A

60% to 80% at six years, about 40% to 50% at ten years

Medical management is indicated for uncomplicated Type B dissections.

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13
Q

Fill in the blank: An aortic aneurysm is generally treated surgically when it reaches _______ cm in diameter.
Other surgical indications are family history of dissection and aneurysm growth of >___mm/year

A

5.5
10

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14
Q

True or False: Aortic dissections can be classified using both Stanford and DeBakey classifications.

A

True
- We love to add layers to the confusion :)

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15
Q

What are the 3 classifications of DeBakey? This is a tricky one…

A
  • Type I: **Originates in the ascending aorta **and propagates to the aortic arch
  • Type II: Originates in and is limited to the ascending aorta.
  • Type III: Originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally, but will extend distally.
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16
Q

What is the treatment for uncomplicated Type B aortic dissections?

A

Medical management with close monitoring and blood pressure control

Patients may be treated with beta blockers and vasodilators.

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17
Q

What is the most common complication associated with surgical treatment for aortic dissection?

A

Neurological deficits

These can arise from cardiopulmonary bypass procedures.

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18
Q

What is an iatrogenic cause of aortic dissection?

A

Cardiac catheterizations

Iatrogenic causes refer to conditions caused by medical treatment or procedures.

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19
Q

What are common populations associated with aortic dissection?

A

Men and pregnant women in their third trimester

These groups are at higher risk for developing aortic dissection.

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20
Q

Define an aneurysm.

A

Dilation of all three layers of a blood vessel.

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21
Q

Define a dissection.

A

Blood that enters into the medial layer of the vessel.

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22
Q

What are predisposing factors for an aneurysm?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Older age
  • Male gender
  • Family history
  • Previous dissection
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23
Q

What symptoms are associated with an aortic dissection?

A

Severe, sharp posterior chest pain.

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24
Q

How is an aortic aneurysm typically diagnosed?

A

Imaging techniques such as chest X-ray, Echo, CT, MRI, angiography.

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25
Q

What is the triad of symptoms for a rupturing aneurysm?

A
  • Extreme hypotension
  • Back pain
  • Pulsatile abdominal mass
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26
Q

What is retroperitoneal tamponade?

A

A protective clot formation in the peritoneum that can prevent massive blood loss, especially in instances of dissection.
- Note: Volume resuscitation may be delayed until the rupture is surgically controlled. Maintaining a lower BP reduces risk of losing retroperitoneal tamponade, further bleeding, hypotension, and death

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27
Q

What are the four primary causes of mortality related to thoracic aorta surgery?

A
  • Myocardial Infarction (MI)
  • Respiratory failure
  • Renal failure
  • Stroke
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28
Q

What preoperative evaluations are important for patients undergoing thoracic aorta surgery?

A
  • Cardiac evaluation tests (stress test, echocardiogram)
  • Pulmonary function tests
  • Renal function tests
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29
Q

What is anterior spinal artery syndrome?

A

Ischemia due to lack of blood flow to the anterior spinal artery, affecting motor function.

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30
Q

What are common causes of anterior spinal artery syndrome?

A
  • Aortic aneurysm
  • Aortic dissections
  • Atherosclerosis
  • Trauma
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31
Q

What is the main symptom of a CVA?

A

Sudden onset neurological deficits.

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32
Q

What are the two types of CVA?

A
  • Ischemic
  • Hemorrhagic
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33
Q

List of inherited and modifiable risk factors for stroke
- Sorry the exhaustive list is too much to ask about so have a picture instead.

A
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34
Q

What is a TIA? What makes them exceptionally dangerous, even if they resolve with relatively little issue?

A

Transient ischemic attack, a temporary, self-limited cerebral ischemia.
- Symptoms usually resolve within 24 hours but patients now have a 10x greater risk of subsequent stroke

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35
Q

What diagnostic tests can be used for carotid disease?

A
  • Angiograms: can dx vascular occlusion
  • CT and MRI
  • Transcranial Doppler ultrasound to monitor occlusion in real-time
  • Carotid doppler and ultrasound: to identify bruits and quantify the degree of stenosis
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36
Q

What is the recommended treatment window for TPA administration after a CVA?

A

Within four and a half hours of symptom onset.

37
Q

What is a carotid endarterectomy? At what stage of stenosis is this warranted?

A

A surgical treatment to remove plaque from the carotid artery.
- lumen diameter 1.5mm or >70% blockage

38
Q

What is the significance of maintaining a higher MAP during carotid surgery?

A

To ensure adequate cerebral perfusion and collateral blood flow.

39
Q

What is the risk associated with carotid stenting?

A

Risk of micro mobilization leading to a CVA.

40
Q

What ongoing medical therapy is recommended after treatment for a CVA?

A
  • Antiplatelet medications
  • Blood pressure control
  • Cholesterol medications
  • Lifestyle modifications
41
Q

What is the acceptable blood pressure range to optimize cerebral perfusion during surgery?

A

Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) on the higher side of normal
- Know your patient’s baseline vitals

This helps ensure adequate cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) by keeping MAP elevated while considering intracranial pressure (ICP)

42
Q

What is the formula for calculating cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?

A

CPP = MAP - ICP

This formula is crucial for understanding cerebral blood flow dynamics during surgery.

43
Q

What should be monitored to ensure optimal cerebral oxygenation/perfusion during surgery?

A

Cerebral oximetry

44
Q

What is the main clinical dilemma regarding patients with carotid artery disease?

A

They often have severe coronary artery disease, requiring staged interventions

The most compromised area takes priority for intervention.

45
Q

What physiologic factors affect cerebral oxygen delivery?

A
  • CBF
  • MAP
  • CO
  • Sa02
  • HGB
  • PaC02
46
Q

How does PaCO2 influence cerebral blood flow?

A

Lower levels cause vasoconstriction, higher levels cause vasodilation

Even small changes in PaCO2 can significantly affect vessel size and blood flow.

47
Q

What is the Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) and its significance?

A

ABI < 0.9 indicates peripheral artery disease
- It is calculated as the ratio of systolic blood pressure at the ankle to that at the brachial artery. So (Ankle SBP)/(Brachial Artery SBP)

48
Q

What are common symptoms of peripheral artery disease?

A
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Resting extremity pain
  • Decreased pulses
  • Subcutaneous atrophy
  • Hair loss
  • Coolness
  • Cyanosis
  • Relief w/hanging LE over side of bed (↑hydrostatic pressure)

Symptoms often worsen with exercise due to inadequate perfusion.

49
Q

What diagnostic tools are used for peripheral artery disease?

A
  • Doppler US: provides a pulse volume waveform identifies arterial stenosis
  • Duplex US: can identify areas of plaque formation & calcification
  • Transcutaneous oximetry: can assess the severity of tissue ischemia
  • MRI w/contrast angiography: used to guide endovascular intervention or surgical bypass

These tools help assess arterial stenosis and tissue ischemia.

50
Q

What is the primary treatment for severe peripheral artery disease?

A

Revascularization of the affected vessel by:
* Surgical reconstruction- arterial bypass procedure
* Endovascular repair-transluminal angioplasty or stent placement

This is indicated in cases of severe claudication or ischemia.

51
Q

What causes acute peripheral artery occlusion?

A

Typically due to embolism, often cardiogenic in nature

Common sources include left atrial or left ventricular thrombosis.

52
Q

What are symptoms of acute peripheral artery occlusion?

A
  • Limb ischemia
  • Pain
  • Paresthesias
  • Weakness
  • Decreased periphreal pulses
  • Cool skin
  • Color changes distal to the occlusion

These symptoms indicate reduced blood flow to the affected limb.

53
Q

What is subclavian steal syndrome?

A

A condition where blood flow to the brain stem is compromised due to occlusion of the subclavian artery

This can lead to neurological symptoms and is often diagnosed through arteriogram.

54
Q

What is a common cause of stenosis leading to subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Atherosclerosis

Other risk factors include a history of aortic surgery and Takayasu arteritis.

55
Q

What is the treatment for subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Arteriotomy to clear out the artery
- Arteriotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in an artery.

This restores proper perfusion to the affected areas.

56
Q

What symptoms indicate that a patient may have subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Limb ischemia that worsens with activity
* Syncope
* Vertigo
* Ataxia
* Hemiplegia
* Ipsilateral arm ischemia
Effected arm SBP may be up to 20mmhg lower
Bruit over SCA

Increased oxygen requirements during limb activity lead to ischemia if blood flow is obstructed.

57
Q

What complications may arise from decreased perfusion in patients with subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Dizziness, syncope, and decreased radial pulses

These symptoms result from reduced blood flow to the brain and limbs.

58
Q

What imaging technique is mentioned for visualizing stenosis in subclavian steal syndrome?

A

Angiography

Angiograms can help visualize blood flow and identify areas of stenosis.

59
Q

What is Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Episodic vasospasm of the digits

This condition leads to poor blood flow, particularly in fingers, often triggered by cold exposure.

60
Q

What are the common causes of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Rheumatic diseases, medications, and endocrine disorders

Conditions like scleroderma and lupus can trigger Raynaud’s.

61
Q

What is the primary treatment for Raynaud’s phenomenon? Additional treatments?

A

Calcium channel blockers
- Protection from the cold and alpha-blockers

62
Q

T/F: Raynaud’s affects women more than men.

63
Q

___’s Triad is a list of 3 symptoms associated with DVTs. What are they?

A

Venous stasis (lack of venous bloodflow), vascular (endothelial) injury, and hypercoagulability

64
Q

What are common risk factors for developing DVT? Added picture will list them all so have fun!

A
  • Age over 40
  • Recent surgery
  • Prolonged immobility
  • Cancer

These factors increase the likelihood of venous stasis and thrombosis.

65
Q

What diagnostic tools are used for DVT?

A

Doppler U/S, venography, and impedance plethysmography

These imaging techniques help confirm the presence of deep vein thrombosis.

66
Q

What prophylactic measures are taken to prevent DVT in surgical patients?

A
  • Compression stockings
  • SCD devices
  • Heparin

These interventions aim to enhance venous return and reduce clot formation.

67
Q

What is the first-line treatment for DVT?

A

Anticoagulation therapy with Warfarin, Heparin, LMWH(Lovenox)

Heparin or low molecular weight heparin is often used initially.

68
Q

What is systemic vasculitis? What are the different types?

A

A group of vascular inflammatory diseases characterized by the size of the vessels at the primary site of the abnormality
* Large-artery vasculitis:Takayasu arteritis,Temporal (or giant cell) arteritis
* Medium-artery vasculitis: Kawasaki disease, which usually effects the coronary arteries
* Medium tosmall-artery vasculitis: Thromboangiitis obliterans, Wegener granulomatosis, Polyarteritis nodosa

69
Q

What are the symptoms of temporal arteritis?

A
  • Unilateral headache
  • Scalp tenderness
  • Jaw claudication

Opthalmic Arterial branches may lead to ischemic optic neuritis and unilateral blindness

70
Q

How is temporal arteritis diagnosed?

A

Temporal artery biopsy

Biopsy shows inflammation in the artery in 90% of patients.

71
Q

What is thromboangiitis obliterans also known as?

A

Buerger’s disease
- This condition is characterized by inflammation of small and medium vessels, primarily seen in smokers.
- Autoimmune response triggered by nicotine

72
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for Buerger’s disease? (5)

A

Tobacco use is most predisposing factor
* h/o smoking
* onset before 50
* infrapopliteal arterial occlusive dz
* upper limb involvement
* Absence of risks factors for atherosclerosis (outside of tobacco)

Diagnosis is confirmed with biopsy of vascular lesions. and is most often seen in men <45y/o

73
Q

What is the most effective treatment for thromboangiitis obliterans?

A

Smoking cessation followed by surgical revascularization
- No effective pharmacological intervention

Stopping smoking can significantly improve vascular health in affected individuals.

74
Q

What is the most effective treatment for Raynaud’s disease?

A

Smoking cessation

This treatment helps re-establish perfusion in the vessels

75
Q

What surgical procedure may be necessary for severe ischemia in Buerger’s or Raynaud’s disease?

A

Surgical revascularization

Required if smoking cessation is not adhered to

76
Q

What anesthesia implications should be considered for patients with Burger’s or Raynaud’s disease?

A
  • Meticulous positioning and padding
  • Avoid cold; Warm the room and use warming devices
  • Prefer non-invasive BP and conservative line placement

Avoid cold and keep patients warm

77
Q

What is Polyarteritis nodosa?

A

A vasculitis of small and medium vessels
- Inflammation can lead to glomerulonephritis, myocardial ischemia, peripheral neuropathy and seizures!

78
Q

What are common associations with Polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Hepatitis B and C, hairy cell leukemia

Renal disease is a significant concern

79
Q

What is the primary treatment for Polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide

Treat underlying causes like cancer if present

80
Q

What are the anesthetic implications for patients with Polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Attention to coexisting renal or cardiac disease and and HTN are critical.
- Chronic steroid administration will probably be beneficial.

May require stress dose steroids during surgery

81
Q

What is chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Long-standing venous reflux and dilation in lower extremities

Affects about half the population

82
Q

What are the risk factors for lower extremity chronic venous disease?…it is a lot

A
  • Advanced age
  • Family history
  • Pregnancy
  • Ligamentous laicity
  • Previous venous thrombosis
  • Lower extremity injuries
  • Prolonged standing
  • Obesity
  • Smoking
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • High estrogen levels

Birth control pills increase risk

83
Q

Signs and symptoms for chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Ranges from mild-severe
- Mild sx: telangiectasias, varicose veins
- Severe sx: edema, skin changes, ulceration

84
Q

What is the primary diagnostic tool for chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Ultrasound: Confirmed by showing venous reflux with retrograde blood flow > 0.5 seconds
Other diagnostic criteria: Symptoms of leg pain, heaviness, fatigue

85
Q

What are initial treatment measures for chronic venous insufficiency?

A
  • Leg elevation
  • Avoid prolonged standing
  • Exercise
  • Weight loss
  • Compression stockings

Conservative management is usually sufficient

86
Q

What treatments may be used for significant skin ulceration in chronic venous insufficiency?

A
  • Skin barriers
  • Emollients
  • Steroids
  • Wound management
  • Diuretics
  • Aspirin
  • Antibiotics
  • Prostacyclin analogues
  • Zinc sulphate

If management fails, ablation may be performed

87
Q

What are some methods for chronic venous insuf. ablation?

A
  • Thermal ablation w/laser
  • Radiofrequency ablation
  • Endovenous laser ablation
  • Sclerotherapy
88
Q

What are some contraindications for chronic venous insuf. ablation?

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Thrombosis
  • PAD
  • Limited mobility
  • Congenital venous abnormalities
89
Q

What is the last resort treatment for chronic venous insufficiency?

A

Open surgical intervention

Includes procedures like saphenous vein inversion and ligation