25 Mar Neuro Disease Assessment (Exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the normal range for intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

5-15 mmHg

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2
Q

What is cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) influenced by?

A

Arterial blood carbon dioxide levels, brain oxygen levels, and intracranial pathologies

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3
Q

What is the Monroe-Kelly hypothesis?

A

An increase in one intracranial compartment must be offset by a decrease in another to avoid ICP increase

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4
Q

List the herniation syndromes discussed.

A
  • Subfalcine herniation
  • Transtentorial herniation
  • Uncal herniation
  • Cerebellar tonsillar herniation
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5
Q

What can cause increased intracranial pressure?

A
  • Tumors
  • Hematomas
  • Infections
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6
Q

What methods are used to decrease ICP?

A
  • Elevating the head of the bed
  • Ventilation to reduce PA CO2
  • Using external ventricular drains (EVDs)
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7
Q

What are hyperosmotic drugs like mannitol used for?

A

To increase serum osmolality and reduce ICP

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8
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

A progressive autoimmune demyelination of central nervous system fibers

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9
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

An autoimmune disease where antibodies are generated against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, causing muscle weakness

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10
Q

What is Eaton-Lambert syndrome?

A

A syndrome involving antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels, causing muscle weakness

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11
Q

What are the common treatments for hydrocephalus?

A
  • Diuretics
  • Surgical interventions like VP shunts
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12
Q

What types of strokes are there?

A
  • Ischemic
  • Hemorrhagic
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13
Q

What is the Spetzler-Martin AVM grading system used for?

A

To assess arteriovenous malformations based on size and venous drainage patterns

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14
Q

What are the symptoms of Chiari malformation?

A

Headaches, neck pain, balance issues, and possibly syringomyelia

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15
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis (AKA Bourneville Disease)?

A

A genetic condition with benign tumors in various body regions

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16
Q

What anesthesia considerations are important for patients with von Hippel-Lindau disease?

A

Managing exaggerated hypertension and avoiding neuraxial anesthesia

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17
Q

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale used for?

A

To categorize the severity of traumatic brain injury

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18
Q

What are anti-epileptic drugs used for?

A

To manage seizures by decreasing neuronal excitability

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19
Q

Fill in the blank: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated as _______.

A

MAP - ICP

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20
Q

True or False: Hydrocephalus can be treated with serial lumbar punctures.

A

True

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21
Q

What is the treatment for cerebral aneurysms?

A
  • Coiling
  • Stenting
  • Bypassing aneurysms
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22
Q

What is the impact of increased PA CO2 on cerebral vessels?

A

It leads to cerebral vessel dilation and increased cerebral blood flow

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23
Q

What are the effects of transtentorial herniation?

A

Compresses the brainstem, causing altered mental status and respiratory compromise

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24
Q

What are the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Tremors
  • Rigidity
  • Akinesia
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25
Q

What is the role of corticosteroids in managing increased ICP?

A

To increase blood-brain barrier integrity and reduce intracranial swelling

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26
Q

What is the primary treatment for ischemic strokes?

A

Thrombolytics and revascularization within 90 minutes

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27
Q

What is the main reason for increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

A

Increased ICP can occur due to:
* Tumors
* Intracranial hematomas
* Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow
* Infectious processes

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28
Q

What is the primary function of the intracranial vault?

A

The intracranial vault is compartmentalized to protect the brain by containing increases in ICP regionally.

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29
Q

What is the function of the faux Cerebri?

A

The faux Cerebri is a fold of dura that separates the two cerebral hemispheres.

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30
Q

What is transnatorial herniation?

A

Transnatorial herniation occurs when supratentorial contents push down against the tentorium cerebelli, potentially compressing the brainstem.

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31
Q

What are the symptoms of uncus herniation?

A

Symptoms of uncus herniation include:
* Ipsilateral ocular motor nerve dysfunction
* Pupillary dilation
* Ptosis
* Lateral deviation of the affected eye

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32
Q

What is the outcome of cerebellar tonsil herniation?

A

Cerebellar tonsil herniation can lead to medullary dysfunction, cardio instability, and death.

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33
Q

How can tumors increase ICP directly?

A

Tumors can increase ICP directly by occupying space and increasing volume.

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34
Q

What is one way that tumors can increase ICP indirectly?

A

Tumors can cause cerebral edema, leading to increased pressure in the cranial vault.

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35
Q

What is an external ventricular drain (EVD)?

A

An EVD is a device used to relieve intracranial pressure by draining cerebrospinal fluid.

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36
Q

What is the initial non-invasive method to decrease ICP?

A

Elevating the head of the bed.

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37
Q

What role do corticosteroids play in managing ICP?

A

Corticosteroids increase the integrity of the blood-brain barrier and decrease intracranial swelling.

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38
Q

What is multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A

Multiple sclerosis is a progressive autoimmune demyelination of central nervous fibers.

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39
Q

What age range is commonly associated with the onset of multiple sclerosis?

A

The onset of multiple sclerosis typically occurs between 20 to 40 years of age.

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40
Q

What factors can trigger an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis symptoms?

A

Triggers for exacerbation can include:
* Stress
* Temperature swings
* Postpartum period

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41
Q

What are common symptoms experienced by patients with multiple sclerosis?

A

Common symptoms include:
* Motor weakness
* Sensory disorders
* Visual impairments
* Autonomic instability

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42
Q

True or False: All patients with multiple sclerosis experience the same severity of symptoms.

A

False

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43
Q

What is the purpose of a ventriculostomy?

A

A ventriculostomy is performed to relieve increased intracranial pressure by draining cerebrospinal fluid.

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44
Q

Fill in the blank: Increased intracranial pressure can be caused by _______.

A

tumors, hematomas, or infection

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45
Q

What is the significance of the Centurion cerebelli?

A

The Centurion cerebelli separates supratentorial and infratentorial spaces.

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46
Q

What can happen if an external ventricular drain (EVD) is ineffective?

A

If ineffective, the patient may require a surgical procedure called a VP shunt.

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47
Q

What is delayed hydrocephalus?

A

Delayed hydrocephalus is a condition where fluid buildup occurs weeks after initial treatment.

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48
Q

What are the main symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Motor weakness, sensory disorders, visual impairments, autonomic instability

Autonomic instability can include heart rate changes and postural hypotension.

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49
Q

What is the current treatment approach for Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Corticosteroids, immunomodulators, targeted antibodies, IVIG

IVIG stands for intravenous immunoglobulins.

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50
Q

What assessments are needed for pre-anesthetic consideration in Multiple Sclerosis patients?

A

Assess existing deficits, pulmonary function testing, general labs (BMP, CBC), liver function testing, glucose levels, electrolytes

Liver function testing is crucial due to the heavy liver load from certain medications.

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51
Q

Why is temperature management critical in Multiple Sclerosis patients during surgery?

A

Temperature swings can exacerbate the disease process

Maintaining normothermia is essential to avoid triggering exacerbations.

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52
Q

What anesthetic options are acceptable for patients with Multiple Sclerosis?

A

Regional anesthesia, peripheral nerve blocks

Avoid succinylcholine due to the risk of hyperkalemia.

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53
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

An autoimmune disease with antibodies against nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

It causes muscle weakness, particularly in cranial nerves.

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54
Q

What are common triggers for exacerbations in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Stress, pain, insomnia, infection, surgery

These factors can worsen muscle weakness.

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55
Q

What is the primary treatment for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g., pyridostigmine)

Pyridostigmine increases circulating acetylcholine levels.

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56
Q

What is Eaton Lambert Syndrome and its association with cancer?

A

A syndrome with antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels, highly associated with small cell lung carcinoma

Over 60% of patients with Eaton Lambert have this type of lung cancer.

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57
Q

What are the primary symptoms of Eaton Lambert Syndrome?

A

Progressive weakness, dysautonomia, ocular involvement

Similar symptoms to Myasthenia Gravis but with a different underlying mechanism.

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58
Q

What is Muscular Dystrophy?

A

A disorder of muscle fiber degeneration caused by the breakdown of the dystrophin glycoprotein complex

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common and severe form.

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59
Q

What are common symptoms of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Progressive muscle wasting, kyphoscoliosis, respiratory weakness

Average lifespan is about 20-25 years, primarily due to cardiopulmonary complications.

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60
Q

What key anesthetic considerations are necessary for patients with Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Baseline labs including pulmonary function testing and CK levels, pre-op EKG, echocardiogram, caution with neuromuscular blockers

Monitoring is essential to avoid over-dosing on paralytics.

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61
Q

True or False: Patients with Myasthenia Gravis are at risk for prolonged muscle weakness from neuromuscular blockers.

A

True

Careful dosing is required to avoid exacerbating their condition.

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62
Q

Fill in the blank: The drug _______ is used to increase circulating acetylcholine in Myasthenia Gravis patients.

A

[pyridostigmine]

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63
Q

What is the significance of IVIG in treating autoimmune diseases like Myasthenia Gravis?

A

It provides healthy antibodies to replace dysfunctional autoimmune antibodies

However, it is very expensive and has a risk of blood-borne infections.

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64
Q

What is hyper metabolic syndrome and how does it relate to muscular dystrophy?

A

A syndrome similar to malignant hyperthermia, presenting with muscle symptoms

It is not generally as deadly as malignant hyperthermia.

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65
Q

What is hyper metabolic syndrome?

A

A syndrome similar to malignant hyperthermia, presenting with fever, tachycardia, and can progress to severe complications like V fib and cardiac arrest

Triggered by certain anesthetics, it requires careful management to avoid exacerbation.

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66
Q

What should be avoided in patients with hyper metabolic syndrome?

A

Volatile anesthetics and succinylcholine

These agents can exacerbate muscle membrane instability.

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67
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A

The most common form of myotonia, characterized by prolonged muscle contractions post-stimulation

Onset is typically in early adulthood, affecting various muscle groups and potentially leading to aspiration risks.

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68
Q

What are the symptoms of myotonic dystrophy?

A

Muscle wasting, especially in the face, hands, and respiratory muscles

It can also affect the cardiac conduction system, with about 20% of patients having mitral valve prolapse.

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69
Q

What is the treatment for myotonic dystrophy?

A

Managed with quinine, propanolol for arrhythmias, and steroids

There is no cure for myotonic dystrophies.

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70
Q

What are the three major dementia syndromes?

A
  • Alzheimer’s (70% of cases)
  • Vascular dementia (25%)
  • Parkinson’s dementia (5%)

These syndromes require careful assessment of cognitive dysfunction and may involve advanced directives for medical decision-making.

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71
Q

What is the primary treatment for Parkinson’s disease?

A

Levodopa, which converts to dopamine and crosses the blood-brain barrier

Other treatments may include anticholinergics and deep brain stimulators.

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72
Q

What are the common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Tremors
  • Rigidity
  • Akinesia

Patients often exhibit a ‘pill rolling’ maneuver with their hands and may experience cognitive decline.

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73
Q

What is the preferred anesthesia type for dementia patients?

A

Regional anesthesia

This is to minimize opioid requirements and reduce complications in older populations.

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74
Q

What are the common symptoms of brain tumors related to increased intracranial pressure?

A
  • Headaches
  • Confusion
  • Mobility impairment
  • Autonomic dysfunction

Vomiting can also occur, further increasing intracranial pressure.

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75
Q

What type of brain tumor is an astrocytoma?

A

A tumor of astrocytes, which are the most common glial cells in the central nervous system

Astrocytomas can vary in aggressiveness and prognosis.

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76
Q

What is a common benign brain tumor?

A

Meningioma

Usually has a good prognosis if surgically resected.

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77
Q

What is the management for patients with brain tumors undergoing surgery?

A

Monitor glucose and electrolytes, assess neurological status, and administer stress doses of steroids

Patients are often on anti-seizure medications due to the risk of seizures.

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78
Q

What is the role of deep brain stimulators in Parkinson’s disease?

A

To stimulate dopaminergic fibers and increase dopamine release

It may require disabling during surgery to avoid interaction with cautery.

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79
Q

What are the potential risks for patients with Parkinson’s disease during anesthesia?

A

Aspiration risk and respiratory compromise

Special attention should be given to their pulmonary status and medication interactions.

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80
Q

Fill in the blank: Myotonic dystrophy can lead to an increased risk of _______.

A

aspiration

Due to muscle weakness affecting respiratory and swallowing functions.

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81
Q

True or False: All myotonic disorders are triggered by stress and extremes of temperature.

A

True

Particularly cold temperatures can exacerbate symptoms.

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82
Q

What is the significance of a patient’s advanced directives in surgical decisions?

A

Guides medical decision-making and intervention preferences

Especially important for dementia patients who may not provide informed consent.

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83
Q

What is a common risk associated with autonomic dysfunction?

A

Risk and manifestation on EKG, postural tachycardia, labile heart rates, labile blood pressures

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84
Q

What should be monitored before a craniotomy?

A

Fresh labs, EKG, CT, and MRI trends

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85
Q

What is the purpose of administering mannitol preoperatively?

A

To reduce intracranial volume and pressure on the brain

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86
Q

What are the two main types of strokes?

A
  • Ischemic strokes
  • Hemorrhagic strokes
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87
Q

What percentage of strokes are ischemic?

A

88%

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88
Q

What is the leading cause of death and disability worldwide?

A

Stroke

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89
Q

What are the major arteries supplying blood to the brain?

A
  • Internal carotid arteries
  • Vertebral arteries
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90
Q

What is the Circle of Willis?

A

A structure that provides collateral circulation to multiple areas of the brain

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91
Q

What are the neurological deficits associated with anterior cerebral artery occlusion?

A

Contralateral leg weakness

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92
Q

What symptoms are associated with middle cerebral artery occlusion?

A
  • Contralateral hemiparesis
  • Aphasia
  • Contralateral visual deficits
93
Q

What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A

A focal neurological deficit that resolves generally within 24 hours

94
Q

What is the first step if a stroke is suspected?

A

Obtain a non-contrast CT

95
Q

What does the prognosis of an ischemic stroke depend on?

A

The time of treatment from the onset of symptoms

96
Q

What is the TOAST classification used for?

A

Classifying different types of ischemic strokes based on the originating factor

97
Q

What is the first-line treatment for ischemic stroke?

A

Oral aspirin

98
Q

What is the time frame for administering TPA for ischemic stroke?

A

3 to 4.5 hours post onset

99
Q

What is revascularization in the context of stroke treatment?

A

A procedure performed to remove a clot using interventional radiology

100
Q

What is required for patients undergoing surgery after starting a new anticoagulant?

A

Elective cases must be canceled for three months

101
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Bleeding inside the intracranial vault that impairs brain perfusion

102
Q

What are the subtypes of hemorrhagic strokes?

A
  • Intracerebral hemorrhage
  • Epidural hematoma
  • Subdural hematoma
  • Subarachnoid hematoma
  • Intraventricular hemorrhage
103
Q

What is the most reliable predictor of outcomes in hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Blood volume in the hemorrhage and change in level of consciousness

104
Q

What does conservative treatment for hemorrhagic stroke include?

A
  • Reducing intracranial pressure
  • Controlling blood pressure
  • Seizure precautions
  • Careful monitoring
105
Q

What are common symptoms of cerebral aneurysms?

A
  • Photophobia
  • Confusion
  • Hemiparesis
  • Coma
106
Q

What are the risk factors for cerebral aneurysms?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Female gender
  • Cocaine use
107
Q

How can a cerebral aneurysm be diagnosed?

A
  • CT
  • MRI
  • Lumbar puncture for CSF analysis
108
Q

What is photophobia?

A

Sensitivity to light

109
Q

What is hemiparesis?

A

Weakness on one side of the body

110
Q

What are some risk factors for aneurysms?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Female gender
  • Cocaine use
111
Q

How is an aneurysm diagnosed?

A
  • CT scan
  • MRI
  • Lumbar puncture for CSF analysis
112
Q

What is the recommended timeframe for intervention after an aneurysm rupture?

A

Within 72 hours

113
Q

What medications are patients with an aneurysm generally placed on?

114
Q

What is Triple H therapy for subarachnoid hemorrhage vasospasm?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Hypervolemia
  • Hemodilution
115
Q

What is the initial treatment in Triple H therapy?

A

Hypertension

116
Q

What is the Hunt and Hess classification used for?

A

To gauge the mortality of patients with aneurysms

117
Q

What are AVMs?

A

Arteriovenous malformations, direct arterial to venous connections

118
Q

How are AVMs typically diagnosed?

A
  • Angiograms
  • MRIs
119
Q

What are the treatment options for AVMs?

A
  • Radiation
  • Embolization
  • Surgical resection
120
Q

What is Chiari malformation?

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum downward through the foramen magnum

121
Q

What is the only real treatment for Chiari malformation?

A

Surgical decompression

122
Q

What are the key anesthesia considerations for tuberous sclerosis?

A
  • Airway compromise
  • Cardiac involvement
  • Kidney involvement
123
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid leading to increased intracranial pressure

124
Q

What are the preferred diuretics for treating hydrocephalus?

A
  • Furosemide
  • Acetazolamide
125
Q

What is the surgical treatment for chronic hydrocephalus?

A

Insertion of a VP shunt

126
Q

What defines a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

A

Injury to the brain from external force, classified as penetrating or non-penetrating

127
Q

What scale is used to categorize the severity of TBI?

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

128
Q

What is a primary injury in TBI?

A

Injury occurring at the time of insult

129
Q

What are secondary injuries in TBI?

A
  • Neuroinflammation
  • Cerebral edema
  • Hypoxia
  • Electrolyte imbalances
130
Q

What is the first step in managing a severe TBI in the ER?

A

Obtain a CT scan

131
Q

What is the significance of a lumbar puncture in diagnosing aneurysms?

A

Presence of blood in CSF can indicate an aneurysm

132
Q

What is the role of interventional radiology in aneurysm treatment?

A

Coiling or stenting of the aneurysm

133
Q

What is the significance of vasospasm post subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

It occurs due to inflammatory mediators released after the hemorrhage

134
Q

What is the Spetzler-Martin AVM grading system?

A

Grades AVMs based on size, surrounding brain tissue, and venous drainage patterns

135
Q

What are the four types of Chiari malformation?

A
  • Type I: Downward displacement of cerebellum
  • Type II: Arnold Chiari with myelomeningocele
  • Type III: Rare, occipital encephalocele
  • Type IV: Not compatible with life
136
Q

What are the common symptoms of Chiari malformation?

A
  • Headaches
  • Visual disturbances
  • Ataxia
137
Q

What is the anesthesia consideration for patients with neurofibromatosis?

A

Avoid neuraxial anesthesia due to higher likelihood of spinal tumors

138
Q

What should be assessed in patients undergoing anesthesia?

A

Morbidity, degree of injury, imaging, severity of damage, baseline labs, neuro exam

Important to understand the patient’s overall condition and potential complications.

139
Q

What is the preferred type of venous access for emergency surgery?

A

Essential venous catheter

An a-line may also be necessary for monitoring.

140
Q

What type of blood may be given if there isn’t time for typing?

A

Uncrossmatched blood

This is often critical in emergency situations.

141
Q

Why should an NG tube or OG tube be avoided in trauma cases?

A

Risk of nasal skull fracture

Insertion could exacerbate injuries.

142
Q

What is the primary focus during surgery for traumatic brain injuries?

A

Correcting intraoperative issues

Continuous monitoring and adjustments may be necessary.

143
Q

What are common causes of seizures?

A
  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hyperthermia
  • Intoxication

These conditions can lead to transient seizure activity.

144
Q

What defines epilepsy?

A

Recurrent seizures due to congenital or acquired factors

Differentiates from single-event seizures.

145
Q

What should be assessed preoperatively in patients with seizure disorders?

A

Source of seizures, control with medications

Important for planning anesthesia and surgery.

146
Q

What is the role of anti-epileptic drugs?

A

Decrease neuronal excitability and enhance inhibition

Helps in managing seizure disorders.

147
Q

What may patients on enzyme-inducing drugs require?

A

Higher doses of hepatically cleared medications

Due to increased metabolism of these drugs.

148
Q

What should be ready when intubating a patient having a seizure?

A

RSI and suction

Preparedness is crucial for airway management.

149
Q

Fill in the blank: Seizures are a transient, _______ discharge of neurons in the brain.

A

proximal synchronous

This definition helps in understanding seizure mechanisms.

150
Q

True or False: All patients with seizures should have their anti-seizure medications reviewed preoperatively.

A

True

Ensures proper management during anesthesia.

151
Q

What factors modulate cerebral blood flow (CBF)?

A
  • Cerebral metabolic rate
  • Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)
  • Arterial blood carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
  • Arterial blood oxygen (PaO2)
  • Various drugs and intracranial pathologies
152
Q

What is the normal range for intracranial pressure (ICP)?

153
Q

What does the Monro-Kellie hypothesis state?

A

Any increase in one component of intracranial volume must be offset by a decrease in another component to prevent an elevated ICP

154
Q

What happens when compensatory mechanisms fail due to increased ICP?

A

Cerebral ischemia occurs

155
Q

What are the two main types of herniation syndromes?

A
  • Subfalcine Herniation
  • Transtentorial Herniation
156
Q

What is a common cause of increased ICP related to tumors?

A
  • Direct size of tumors
  • Indirectly causing edema
  • Obstructing CSF flow
157
Q

What are methods to decrease ICP?

A
  • Elevation of the head
  • Hyperventilation
  • CSF drainage
  • Hyperosmotic drugs
  • Diuretics
  • Corticosteroids
  • Cerebral vasoconstricting anesthetics
  • Surgical decompression
158
Q

What is the typical age of onset for Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

20-40 years

159
Q

What are common symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  • Motor weakness
  • Sensory disorders
  • Visual impairment
  • Autonomic instability
160
Q

What are preanesthetic considerations for patients with Multiple Sclerosis?

A
  • Assess existing deficits
  • Pulmonary function tests if respiratory compromise
  • Monitor glucose and electrolytes
  • Temperature management
161
Q

What triggers exacerbations in Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?

A
  • Pain
  • Insomnia
  • Infection
  • Surgery
162
Q

What is the primary treatment for Myasthenia Gravis?

A
  • Ach-E inhibitors (Pyridostigmine)
  • Immunosuppressive agents
  • Steroids
  • Plasmapheresis
  • IVIG
163
Q

What are the effects of Eaton-Lambert Syndrome?

A
  • Progressive limb-girdle weakness
  • Dysautonomia
  • Oculobulbar palsy
164
Q

What is the most common and severe form of Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

165
Q

What are pre-anesthetic considerations for patients with Muscular Dystrophy?

A
  • CBC, BMP, PFTs
  • Pre-op EKG, echocardiogram
  • Caution with ND-NMBs
166
Q

What is myotonia?

A

Prolonged contraction after muscle stimulation

167
Q

What are common symptoms of Dementia?

A
  • Cognitive dysfunction
  • Potential aspiration risk
168
Q

What are the three major dementia syndromes?

A
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Vascular dementia
  • Parkinson’s
169
Q

What are common symptoms of brain tumors?

A
  • Increased ICP
  • Papilledema
  • Headache
  • AMS
  • Mobility impairment
  • Vomiting
  • Autonomic dysfunction
  • Seizures
170
Q

What is the prognosis for Meningiomas?

A

Good prognosis with surgical resection

171
Q

What are pre-anesthesia considerations for patients with brain tumors?

A
  • Review history & physical
  • Inquiry about previous therapies
  • Continue steroids
  • Monitor glucose levels
172
Q

What is a common complication associated with prolonged respiratory compromise in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Need for post-op respiratory support

173
Q

Fill in the blank: The combined volume of brain tissue, CSF, and intracranial blood is ______ mL.

174
Q

True or False: Hyperosmotic drugs decrease serum osmolarity to decrease ICP.

175
Q

What is radiation damage associated with?

A

Lethargy and AMS

AMS refers to altered mental status.

176
Q

What neurological effects can chemotherapy have?

A

Neurological effects including cognitive changes and peripheral neuropathy

Patients may experience symptoms like memory issues and nerve pain.

177
Q

Why are patients often on steroids?

A

To minimize cerebral edema.

178
Q

What must be monitored while continuing steroids?

A

Glucose levels.

179
Q

What are common medications used for patients with supratentorial lesions?

A

Anticonvulsants.

180
Q

What may autonomic dysfunction manifest as?

A

EKG changes, labile heart rate, and blood pressure.

181
Q

What diagnostic tests are commonly performed?

A

CBC, BMP (glucose), EKG, CT/MRI.

182
Q

What is mannitol used for?

A

To reduce intracranial volume and pressure.

183
Q

What does CVA stand for?

A

Cerebral Vascular Accident.

184
Q

What is the leading cause of death and disability worldwide?

185
Q

What are the two main types of strokes?

A
  • Ischemia (88% of cases)
  • Hemorrhage (12% of cases).
186
Q

What supplies blood to the brain?

A
  • Internal carotid arteries
  • Vertebral arteries.
187
Q

What is the Circle of Willis?

A

A structure that provides collateral circulation to multiple areas of the brain.

188
Q

What causes an ischemic stroke?

A

Occlusion of a vessel that perfuses a region of the brain, causing brain cell necrosis.

189
Q

What characterizes a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?

A

Sudden focal vascular neurologic deficit that resolves within 24 hours.

190
Q

What percentage of patients who experience a TIA will subsequently suffer a stroke?

191
Q

What is needed to distinguish ischemic stroke from intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

A STAT non-contrast CT.

192
Q

What factors affect ischemic stroke prognosis?

A

Time from onset to thrombolytic intervention (<90 min).

193
Q

List the TOAST classification groups for ischemic stroke causes.

A
  • Large artery atherosclerosis
  • Small vessel occlusion
  • Cardioaortic embolic
  • Other etiology
  • Undetermined etiology.
194
Q

What is the recommended initial treatment for ischemic stroke?

A

PO Aspirin.

195
Q

What must be initiated within 3-4.5 hours post-onset for ischemic stroke?

A

IV or intra-arterial tissue plasminogen activator (TPA).

196
Q

What is revascularization in the context of ischemic stroke treatment?

A

A procedure in interventional radiology to administer thrombolytics or perform thrombectomy.

197
Q

What are the two most reliable predictors of outcome in hemorrhagic CVA?

A
  • Blood volume
  • Change in level of consciousness (LOC).
198
Q

What are the subtypes of hemorrhagic strokes based on blood location?

A
  • Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
  • Epidural hematoma
  • Subdural hematoma
  • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Intraventricular hemorrhage.
199
Q

What is the conservative treatment for hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Reduction of ICP, blood pressure control, seizure precautions, and monitoring.

200
Q

What does surgical treatment for hemorrhagic stroke involve?

A

Evacuation of the hematoma.

201
Q

What should be assessed pre-operatively in cerebrovascular disease?

A

History, deficits, imaging, treatments, and co-existing diseases.

202
Q

What imaging techniques are used for cerebrovascular disease assessment?

A
  • Carotid U/S
  • CT/MRI head & neck
  • Echocardiogram.
203
Q

What is the risk for vasospasm post-subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?

A

3-15 days.

204
Q

What triggers vasospasm after SAH?

A

Free hemoglobin (hgb) reduces nitric oxide availability and increases endothelin 1.

205
Q

What is Triple H therapy?

A

Hypertension, Hypervolemia, Hemodilution.

206
Q

What are congenital brain abnormalities?

A

Defects in the development or structure of the CNS.

207
Q

What is Chiari Malformation?

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum.

208
Q

What are the types of Neurofibromatosis?

A
  • Type 1 (most common)
  • Type 2
  • Schwannomatosis (rare).
209
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Excessive CSF accumulation causing increased ICP.

210
Q

What are the main treatments for hydrocephalus?

A
  • Diuretics (furosemide, acetazolamide)
  • Serial lumbar punctures
  • Surgical treatment (VP shunt, ETV).
211
Q

What is the Glasco-Coma Scale used for?

A

Categorizing the severity of traumatic brain injury (TBI).

212
Q

What is the primary injury in TBI?

A

Injury occurring at the time of the insult.

213
Q

What are secondary injuries in TBI?

A
  • Neuroinflammation
  • Cerebral edema
  • Hypoxia
  • Anemia
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Neurogenic shock.
214
Q

What must be done for severe TBI patients?

A

Intubation and mild hyperventilation to control ICP.

215
Q

What is a seizure?

A

Transient, paroxysmal, synchronous discharge of neurons in the brain.

216
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

Recurrent seizures due to congenital or acquired factors.

217
Q

What is the role of antiepileptic drugs?

A

Decrease neuronal excitability and enhance inhibition.

218
Q

What should be reviewed pre-anesthesia for seizure patients?

A

Source of seizures and control level.

219
Q

What is the main concern regarding patients on enzyme-inducing medications?

A

They require higher doses of hepatically-cleared medications.

220
Q

What is the primary risk factor for Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Advanced age.

221
Q

What is the triad of symptoms for Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Skeletal muscle tremor
  • Rigidity
  • Akinesia.
222
Q

What are common treatments for Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Levodopa
  • Anticholinergics
  • MAOIs
  • Deep brain stimulator.
223
Q

What is the major risk factor for cerebral aneurysms?

A

Hypertension.

224
Q

What are the symptoms of cerebral aneurysms?

A
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Confusion
  • Hemiparesis
  • Coma.
225
Q

What is the recommended intervention time for cerebral aneurysms after rupture?

A

Within 72 hours for best outcomes.

226
Q

What is an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)?

A

An arterial to venous connection without intervening capillaries.

227
Q

What are the treatment options for AVMs?

A
  • Radiation
  • Angio-guided embolization
  • Surgical resection.
228
Q

What is Tuberous Sclerosis also known as?

A

Bourneville Disease.

229
Q

What does Tuberous Sclerosis cause?

A

Benign hamartomas, angiofibromas, and other malformations.