4 Mar Blood Disorders (Exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

What is von Willebrand disorder?

A

The most common hereditary bleeding disorder with a strong genetic component.

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2
Q

List three symptoms of von Willebrand disorder.

A
  • Easy bruising
  • Recurrent epistaxis
  • Prolonged menstrual bleeding
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3
Q

What is the treatment for most cases of von Willebrand disorder?

A
  • DDAVP (0.3mcg/kg in 50mL of NS admin over 15-20min) for type 1 (pt makes factor but not enough around). Its max effect is in 30min and can last for 6-8hrs
  • Specific factor concentrates like cryo for high-grade cases that don’t respond to DDAVP.
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4
Q

What should be monitored closely in patients receiving DDAVP?

A

Sodium levels.
- Water retention can lead to hyponatremia!!

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5
Q

What is the significance of prolonged bleeding time in von Willebrand disorder?

A

It is a key lab finding since PT and PTT are usually normal.

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6
Q

What is DDAVP?

A

A synthetic vasopressin used to treat bleeding issues.

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7
Q

What is the starting dose of DDAVP for treating bleeding?

A

0.3 micrograms per kilogram.

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8
Q

What side effects can occur with DDAVP treatment?

A
  • Headaches
  • Hypertension
  • Hypotension
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9
Q

What can happen if sodium levels drop too low in patients on DDAVP?

A
  • Headaches
  • Mental status changes
  • Seizures
  • Death
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10
Q

What is the role of hematology consults in managing von Willebrand disorder?

A

To analyze labs and determine missing factors before surgery.

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11
Q

What are the classifications of von Willebrand factor disorder?

A

Type 1 (mild), Type 2 (moderate), Type 3 (severe).

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12
Q

What is cryoprecipitate used for?

A

To raise fibrinogen levels.
- 1 unit raies fibrinogen levels by 50mg/dL
- There is approximately 2500mg of fibrinogen in 1 unit of cryo

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13
Q

What does F VIII concentrate contain?
Is it higher or lower risk for infection when compared to cryo? Why?

A
  • Factor VIII (duh), and vWF
  • Lower risk than cryo because it undergoes viral attenuation (cryo does not)
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14
Q

List the acquired bleeding examples (What we do to patients). (4)

A
  • Heparin
  • Warfarin
  • Fibrinolytic
  • Antiplatelets
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15
Q

True or False: Heparin inhibits thrombin and activates antithrombin III.
What labs do you monitor to track heparin’s effect?

A

True.
- Note: Heparin will not work well in patients who have ATIII deficiency
- PTT and ACT

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16
Q

What factors does Warfarin inhibit?
How do we attempt to revese its effect?

A
  • 2, 7, 9, and 10
  • Give Vit K to reverse but understand that it can take 6-8 hours to see an effect.
  • For a more rapid reversal, give prothrombin complex, and recombinant VIIa and FFP!
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17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fibrinolytics (TPA/SK/UK)?

A

Breaks down fibrin to dissolve clots by converting plasminogen into plasmin.

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of anti-fibrinolytics?

A
  • Inhibition of plasminogen into plasmin
  • tranexamic acid, ε–aminocaproic acid, and…
    aprotinin (TOO EXPENSIVE)
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19
Q

What is a random S/E of TXA (in toxicity)?
What are the correct doses of TXA for adults? Pedi?

A

Loss of color vision
- 1-2g for adults
- 15-20mg for pedi

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20
Q

What condition is characterized by widespread thrombosis and consumption of clotting factors?

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC).

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21
Q

T/F: Antifibrinolytic therapy is indicated in DIC.

A

False: Antifibrinolytic therapy generally is contraindicated in DIC owing to potential for catastrophic thrombotic complications

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22
Q

What is the treatment for antithrombin III deficiency?

A

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) to provide antithrombin III.

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23
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?

A

An autoimmune condition where heparin causes a decrease in platelets.

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24
Q

Fill in the blank: The normal sodium level ranges from _______.

A

135 to 145.

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25
Q

What should be avoided before taking patients with von Willebrand’s disease to the operating room?

A

Missing hematology consult.

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26
Q

What is the recommended approach for vascular access in patients with bleeding disorders?

A

Use ultrasound guidance.

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27
Q

What are the common acquired bleeding sources?

A
  • Heparin
  • Lovenox
  • Antiplatelet agents
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28
Q

What does the use of protamine achieve?

A

Reverses heparin effects.

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29
Q

Describe the financial aspect of using DDAVP versus specific factor concentrates.

A

DDAVP may be more cost-effective in some cases compared to specific factor concentrates.

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30
Q

What is the importance of fluid intake control in patients on DDAVP?

A

To prevent severe complications like seizures and death.

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31
Q

What is the normal sodium level range?

A

135 to 145

Sodium levels outside this range can lead to symptoms.

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32
Q

How do patients with chronic hyponatremia typically respond to treatment compared to those with acute changes?

A

Patients with chronic hyponatremia tend to do a lot better than those with acute changes.

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33
Q

What is the administration method for cryoprecipitate?

A

Usually provided in 2 to 10 units depending on the facility.

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34
Q

What is the effect of each unit of cryoprecipitate on fibrinogen levels?

A

Raises fibrinogen levels by about 50 mg/dL.

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35
Q

What is a potential risk when pooling blood products?

A

Increased risk of reactions and infection.

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36
Q

What does factor eight concentrate contain?

A

Factor eight and von Willebrand factor.

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37
Q

When is it common to give a preoperative dose of factor eight?

A

Before surgery and possibly repeated during surgery.

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38
Q

What might indicate complications during surgery related to bleeding?

A

Surgeon mentions oozing or difficulty accessing/visualizing areas.

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39
Q

What should be ensured before taking a patient to surgery?

A

Coagulation factors are normalized.

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40
Q

What is the risk of performing a spinal epidural in a patient with coagulopathy?

A

Risk of epidural hematoma.

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41
Q

What is a significant concern with vascular access in patients with bleeding risks?

A

Increased risk of trauma during access procedures.

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42
Q

What is an alternative to arterial lines for monitoring in high-risk patients?

A

Non-invasive cardiac output monitors.

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43
Q

What is a common cause of acquired bleeding in patients?

A

Heparin and other anticoagulant medications.

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44
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Heparin?

A

Inhibits thrombin and activates antithrombin III.

45
Q

What should be monitored in patients receiving systemic heparinization?

A

PTT draw every eight to twelve hours.

46
Q

What is the antidote for Coumadin?

A

Vitamin K.

47
Q

What is the time frame for vitamin K to reverse Coumadin’s effects?

A

6 to 8 hours.

48
Q

What might be used for acute reversal of Coumadin besides vitamin K?

A

Blood products such as factor seven, FFP, cryoprecipitate, and prothrombin complex concentrates.

49
Q

What is the primary action of fibrinolytic agents?

A

Prevent the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, causing clots to dissolve.

50
Q

What are common anti-fibrinolytic agents used in practice?

A

Amicar (ε–aminocaproic acid) and tranexamic acid (TXA).

51
Q

What is a key distinction between TXA and fibrinolytic agents?

A

TXA does not break down clots; it helps keep them together.

52
Q

What is the recommended monitoring for patients on low molecular weight heparin?

A

Routine monitoring is usually not performed.

53
Q

What is a common source of bleeding in surgical patients that is not surgical related?

A

Anticoagulant medications.

54
Q

What is the original indication for TxA?

A

It was designed for women with extreme period bleeding.

55
Q

Name two other indications for TxA.

A
  • Epistaxis
  • Oral surgery
56
Q

What is Amicar primarily used for?

A

Almost exclusively for cardiac surgery.

57
Q

What is the adult dosing range for TxA?

A

One to two grams.

58
Q

What is the pediatric dosing for TxA?

A

15-20 milligrams per kilogram.

59
Q

What is the discussed toxic side effect of TXA?

A

Loss of color vision

60
Q

What is a critical consideration when discontinuing anti-platelet agents?

A

Consider getting platelet function panels.

61
Q

What is the mortality rate associated with DIC?

A

Extremely high.

62
Q

What initiates the process of DIC?

A

Widespread activation of the coagulation system.

63
Q

What happens to clotting factors during DIC?

A

They are burned through, initially leading to widespread thrombosis.

64
Q

What is a key sign of DIC?

A

Reduction in platelet count.

65
Q

What tests are commonly used to assess DIC?

A
  • PT
  • PTT
  • Thrombin time
  • FDP (fibrin degradation products)
66
Q

What is the primary treatment approach for DIC?

A

Targeted at the underlying cause.

67
Q

What is Factor V Leiden?

A

A prothrombotic disorder where the factor V gene is mutated, leading to excessive clotting.
- Factor V is resistant to aPC, thus the negative feedback loop from IIa is less responsive.
- Or in other words, Activated protein C cannot easily stop factor V Leiden from making more fibrin.

68
Q

Under what condition does Factor V Leiden typically cause issues?

A

During pregnancy.

69
Q

What anticoagulant is commonly used for patients with Factor V Leiden?

70
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)? How often does it occur?

A

An autoimmune disease occurring after heparin exposure.
- Occurs in 5% of patients on heparin therapy (Most often after exposure to unfractionated heparin, but is rarely seen with LMWH)

71
Q

What is the typical onset period for thrombocytopenia in HIT?

A

Five to fourteen days after heparin exposure.

72
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

A low platelet count, typically less than 100,000.

73
Q

What should be done if a patient develops HIT?

A

Discontinue heparin immediately.
- Evidence suggests that HIT is mediated by immune complexes (composed of IgG antibody, platelet factor 4 [PF4], and heparin)

74
Q

What alternative anticoagulants are used for patients with HIT?

A
  • Agatroban
  • Bivalirudin
75
Q

What complication can arise from patients with HIT?

A

Increased risk of thrombosis.

76
Q

What is the Apache score used for?

A

To evaluate patients with sepsis and DIC.

77
Q

What is a significant risk factor for DIC in pregnancy?

A

Amniotic fluid imbalances.

78
Q

What is the general approach to managing anticoagulation in patients receiving Lovenox?

A

Coordinate timing around doses for procedures.

79
Q

What is the usual timeframe for PF4/heparin immune complexesto clear from a HIT patient’s system?

A

Three months

80
Q

What tests are commonly checked instead of a CBC in the operating room?

A
  • Coags
  • H and H
  • Basic chemistries
81
Q

When might a CBC be checked in the operating room?

A

Widespread bleeding

82
Q

What should be considered if a patient does not respond to Heparin?

A

Antithrombin three deficiency

83
Q

What is one of the largest sources of antithrombin?

84
Q

What should be done if a patient’s ACT does not change after administering Heparin?

A

Repeat the dose

85
Q

What is the treatment for antithrombin three deficiency?

86
Q

True or False: FFP is a clotting agent that can help anticoagulate a patient with antithrombin three deficiency.

87
Q

What is a common initial treatment for systemic heparinization during cardiac bypass?

A

30,000 units of heparin

88
Q

What should be done if a second bolus of Heparin does not yield results?

A

Consider antithrombin three deficiency

89
Q

What might a surgeon complain about if a patient continues to clot after receiving Heparin?

A

The patient is still clotting.
- Not a serious card.

90
Q

Fill in the blank: If a patient has widespread bleeding, a _______ might be checked in the operating room.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: The treatment for antithrombin three deficiency is giving _______.

92
Q

What should be monitored when administering heparin?

93
Q

What is the effect of protamine on heparin?

A

Rapidly reversible

Protamine forms a stable complex neutralizing heparin.

94
Q

How do LMWHs compare to UFH in VTE prophylaxis?

A

More effective

LMWHs have a more predictable pharmacokinetic response.

95
Q

What is fondaparinux used for?

A

To treat VTE

It is a synthetic Factor Xa inhibitor.

96
Q

What should be done if HIT is suspected?

A
  • D/C heparin STAT
  • Determine next anticoagulation agent

Alternative non-heparin anticoagulation must be administered.

97
Q

What is the hallmark finding of HIT?

A

Decrease in PLT < 100,000

Usually 5-14 days after initial heparin therapy

98
Q

What are antifibrinolytic agents?

A
  • Tranexamic acid
  • ε–aminocaproic acid
  • Aprotinin
99
Q

S/E of TXA toxicity?

A

Loss of color vision

100
Q

What is the consequence of Factor V Leiden?

A

Resistant of Factor V to the action of activated protein C (More fibrin is produced so more clotting occurs)

101
Q

What is a common anticoagulation option for patients with Factor V Leiden?

A
  • Warfarin
  • Unfractionated heparin infusion
  • LMWH (lovenox)
102
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Coumadin?

A

Interferes with hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors

103
Q

What is the effect of DDAVP regarding coagulation?

A

Stimulates the release of vWF by endothelial cells

104
Q

What are common clinical features of vWF disorder?

A
  • Easy bruising
  • Recurrent epistaxis
  • Menorrhagia
105
Q

What is the common treatment for vWF disorder?

A

Correct the deficiency of vWF

This can be done using desmopressin or transfusion of specific factor.

106
Q

What is a potential side effect of DDAVP?

A
  • Headache
  • Rubor
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Water intoxication
107
Q

What is the impact of cryoprecipitate in treatment?

A

Raises fibrinogen levels by 50 mg/dL per unit

108
Q

What should be restricted after administering DDAVP?

A

Water intake for 4 to 6 hours

109
Q

What lab findings are typically seen in DIC?

A
  • Reductions in PLT
  • Prolongation of PT
  • Prolongation of PTT
  • Prolongation of thrombin time (TT)
  • Elevated concentrations of soluble fibrin degradation products