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ethics Flashcards

1
Q

What is patient negligence?
A) Carelessness by the healthcare provider
B) Failure of the patient to adhere to medical advice
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

A

a

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT an essential element to prove patient negligence?
A) Duty of care
B) Breach of duty
C) Injury to the patient
D) Intent to harm

A

d

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3
Q

In the context of patient negligence, what does “duty of care” refer to?
A) The patient’s responsibility to follow medical instructions
B) The legal obligation of healthcare providers to act in the patient’s best interest
C) The responsibility of insurance companies to cover medical expenses
D) None of the above

A

b

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4
Q

What is required to establish a breach of duty in a patient negligence case?
A) Proof of harm to the patient
B) Evidence that the healthcare provider failed to meet the standard of care
C) Testimony from the patient’s family
D) A and B

A

b

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5
Q

What is the legal definition of medical malpractice?
A) Intentional harm caused by a physician
B) Any mistake made by a physician
C) Negligence by a healthcare provider resulting in harm to a patient
D) Misdiagnosis of a medical condition

A

c

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a necessary element to prove medical malpractice?
A) Breach of duty
B) Intent to harm
C) Injury or harm suffered by the patient
D) Causation

A

b

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of medical malpractice?
A) A surgeon accidentally nicks a patient’s artery during surgery, causing excessive bleeding
B) A patient develops a rare complication despite receiving appropriate treatment
C) A physician prescribes a medication that causes an allergic reaction, which was not disclosed by the patient
D) A patient fails to follow post-operative instructions and suffers complications

A

a

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8
Q

In a medical malpractice case, the term “standard of care” refers to:
A) The level of care expected from a reasonable and prudent healthcare provider in similar circumstances
B) The patient’s preference for treatment
C) The cost of medical treatment
D) The number of malpractice lawsuits filed against a physician

A

a

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a form of medical malpractice?
A) Miscommunication between healthcare providers leading to a delay in treatment
B) A patient’s dissatisfaction with the outcome of a procedure, even if no negligence occurred
C) A physician’s honest mistake that does not result in harm to the patient
D) Failure to obtain informed consent from the patient before a procedure

A

b

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10
Q

What is plagiarism?
a) A form of academic misconduct
b) Using someone else’s work without proper attribution
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

A

c

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered plagiarism?
a) Quoting a source without proper citation
b) Paraphrasing someone else’s ideas without giving credit
c) Using an idea without citation
d) Summarizing a source with proper citation

A

d

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of plagiarism?
a) Legal action
b) Academic Penalties
c) Loss of reputation
d) Monetary fine

A

d

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13
Q

How can plagiarism be avoided?
a) Citing all sources used in the work
b) Rewriting someone else’s work with minor changes
c) Copy-pasting text directly from a source
d) Use someone else ideas

A

a

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14
Q

Which of the following is an acceptable way to use someone else’s work in your own?
a) Changing a few words in a direct quote
b) Rewriting a paragraph without citation
c) Paraphrasing and citing the original source
d) None of the above

A

c

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15
Q

Who can be accused of plagiarism?
a) Students
b) Researchers
c) Journalists
d) All of the above

A

d

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16
Q

What is the purpose of citing sources in academic writing?
a) To give credit to the original author
b) To provide evidence for your arguments
c) To help readers locate the original sources
d) All of the above

A

d

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered plagiarism in academic writing?
a) Failing to cite a source that is common knowledge
b) Using images from the public domain without attribution
c) Quoting lengthy passages from a source without citation
d) Citing a source incorrectly

A

a

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18
Q

What is the role of academic integrity in preventing plagiarism?
a) Encouraging honest and ethical behavior
b) Discouraging cheating and dishonesty
c) Promoting originality and creativity
d) All of the above

A

d

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19
Q

What is the first step a healthcare professional should take if they suspect a child is being abused?
a) Report to the police
b) Document suspicions in the patient’s medical record
c) Inform the child’s parents
d) Report to the appropriate child protection agency

A

d

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of child abuse?
a) Physical abuse
b) Emotional abuse
c) Neglect
d) School disciplinary action

A

d

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21
Q

In cases of suspected child abuse, who should be the primary focus of a healthcare professional’s concern?
a) The abuser
b) The healthcare institution
c) The child
d) The child’s family

A

c

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22
Q

When documenting suspected child abuse, what should healthcare professionals avoid doing?
a) Including only objective observations
b) Speculating about the cause of injuries
c) Reporting suspicions immediately without investigation
d) Documenting findings in a separate, private record

A

b

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23
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of failing to report suspected child abuse?
a) Legal action against the healthcare professional
b) Promotion within the healthcare institution
c) Increased trust from the community
d) None of the above

A

a

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason healthcare professionals may fail to report suspected child abuse?
a) Fear of retaliation from the abuser
b) Lack of awareness of reporting requirements
c) Concern for the reputation of the healthcare institution
d) Trust in the child’s family to handle the situation

A

d

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25
Q

What is a primary concern regarding the use of genetic engineering in medicine?
A) Increased risk of infectious diseases
B) Ethical implications and potential misuse
C) Excessive cost for patients
D) Limited availability of trained professionals

A

b

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26
Q

What is one potential benefit of genetic engineering in medicine?
A) Elimination of all genetic diseases
B) Ability to create “designer babies” with desirable traits
C) Enhanced understanding of human genetics and disease mechanisms
D) Guaranteed success in all medical procedures

A

c

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27
Q

Which ethical principle suggests that genetic engineering should prioritize the well-being of individuals and communities?
A) Autonomy
B) Beneficence
C) Justice
D) Non-maleficence

A

b

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28
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method of ART?
A) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
B) Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
C) Surrogacy
D) Contraceptive pills

A

d

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29
Q

Which of the following is a major ethical concern associated with ART?
A) Access to treatment
B) Risk of multiple pregnancies
C) Genetic manipulation
D) All of the above

A

d

30
Q

What ethical principle is violated when ART clinics prioritize treatment based on socioeconomic status?
A) Justice
B) Autonomy
C) Non-maleficence
D) Beneficence

A

a

31
Q

In vitro fertilization (IVF) raises concerns about:
A) The welfare of the resulting child
B) The autonomy of the parents
C) Genetic diversity
D) Environmental impact

A

a

32
Q

What ethical principle supports the right of individuals to make informed decisions about ART procedures?
A) Justice
B) Autonomy
C) Non-maleficence
D) Beneficence

A

b

33
Q

Which of the following is a potential consequence of the commercialization of ART?
A) Increased accessibility
B) Reduced financial burden on patients
C) Exploitation of donors and surrogates
D) Ethical transparency

A

c

34
Q

The use of donor gametes (sperm or egg donation) in ART may raise issues related to:
A) Informed consent
B) Access to treatment
C) Risk of genetic disorders
D) Environmental impact

A

a

35
Q

Which of the following ethical frameworks suggests that decisions about ART should prioritize the well-being of future generations?
A) Utilitarianism
B) Deontology
C) Virtue ethics
D) Feminist ethics

A

a

36
Q

What is one of the primary ethical concerns regarding the use of animals in medical research?
A) The cost-effectiveness of animal research
B) The potential for animals to suffer unnecessarily
C) The availability of alternative research methods
D) The lack of public interest in animal welfare

A

b

37
Q

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in assessing the ethical use of animals in research?
A) The potential benefits to human health
B) The potential suffering of animals involved
C) The popularity of the research topic
D) The availability of alternative methods

A

c

38
Q

What is the “3Rs” principle in animal research ethics? (Read this question even if it is not part of the lecture)
A) Replace, Relocate, Reassure
B) Reuse, Reduce, Recycle
C) Reduce, Refine, Replace
D) Revise, Reject, Reconsider

A

c

39
Q

What is the primary purpose of obtaining informed consent from a patient before a medical procedure?
a) To protect the healthcare provider from legal liability
b) To ensure the patient understands the potential risks and benefits of the procedure
c) To expedite the medical treatment process
d) To satisfy regulatory requirements

A

b

40
Q

In which situation may a healthcare provider proceed with treatment without obtaining explicit consent from the patient?
a) When the patient is unconscious and immediate treatment is necessary to save their life
b) When the treatment is experimental and offers potential benefits
c) When the patient is a minor and their parent/guardian gives consent
d) When the healthcare provider believes the treatment is in the best interest of the patient

A

a

41
Q

What is the term used to document if the patient refuses the treatment at any time?
a) Assent
b) Dissent
c) Against Medical Advice
d) Autonomy

A

c

42
Q

In medical ethics, what does the term “capacity” refer to?
a) The physical ability of a patient to undergo a medical procedure
b) The mental ability of a patient to understand information and make decisions
c) The financial ability of a patient to afford medical treatment
d) The legal ability of a patient to consent to medical treatment

A

b

42
Q

Which of the following situations would likely constitute a breach of medical ethics regarding informed consent?
a) A physician fully discloses all potential risks and benefits of a procedure to a competent patient.
b) A physician fails to disclose information about alternative treatments to a patient.
c) A patient with diminished capacity provides consent for a minor procedure after being thoroughly informed.
d) A patient refuses treatment despite being fully informed of the consequences.

A

b

43
Q

Which of the following is an example of implied consent?
a) A patient signs a consent form after being fully informed about a surgical procedure
b) A patient’s silence or passive behavior indicating agreement to a routine physical examination
c) A patient verbally refuses treatment after being informed of the risks and benefits
d) A patient’s legally appointed representative provides consent on behalf of the patient

A

b

44
Q

What does medical licensing primarily ensure?
A) Financial compensation for healthcare professionals
B) Standardization of healthcare practices
C) Promotion of healthcare research
D) Enhancement of healthcare facilities

A

b

45
Q

Which principle emphasizes the importance of respecting a patient’s right to make their own decisions about medical treatment?
a) Beneficence
b) Nonmaleficence
c) Autonomy
d) Justice

A

c

46
Q

What is the purpose of medical licensing exams?
A) To generate revenue for medical institutions
B) To assess the proficiency and competence of healthcare professionals
C) To provide employment opportunities for medical graduates
D) To promote competition among healthcare professionals

A

b

47
Q

How does medical licensing benefit patients?
A) By limiting access to healthcare services
B) By ensuring that healthcare professionals meet minimum standards of competency
C) By making healthcare services more expensive
D) By decreasing the quality of healthcare services

A

b

48
Q

What is medical malpractice?
A) Accidental medical error
B) Negligent treatment by a healthcare provider
C) Intentional harm caused by a healthcare provider
D) Unforeseeable medical complications

A

b

49
Q

Who can be held liable for medical malpractice?
a) Only the treating physician
b) Only the hospital administration
c) Any healthcare provider involved in patient care
d) Only the insurance company

A

c

50
Q

What is the legal definition of medical malpractice in the UAE?
a) Any mistake made by a healthcare provider
b) Negligent or improper treatment by a healthcare provider
c) Patient dissatisfaction with medical care
d) Unforeseeable complications during treatment

A

b

51
Q

What is the role of medical expert testimony in a medical malpractice case in the UAE?
a) It is not required
b) It is optional
c) It is mandatory
d) It is only considered if requested by the defendant

A

c

52
Q

Which of the following is a defense commonly used by healthcare providers in medical malpractice cases in the UAE?
a) Denial of treatment
b) Informed consent
c) Verbal agreement
d) Self-diagnosis by the patient

A

b

53
Q

What is the primary purpose of medical malpractice laws in the UAE?
a)To protect healthcare providers from lawsuits
b)To discourage patients from seeking compensation
c)To ensure patients receive proper medical care
d)To limit the liability of healthcare institutions

A

c

54
Q

Which ethical principle does fee splitting primarily violate?
a) Justice
b) Beneficence
c) Non-maleficence
d) Autonomy

A

a

55
Q

What is the definition of euthanasia?
a. Natural death
b. Assisted suicide
c. Aggressive medical treatment
d. Palliative care

A

c

56
Q

Which form of euthanasia involves a physician actively administering a lethal substance to a patient?
a. Voluntary euthanasia
b. Involuntary euthanasia
c. Active euthanasia
d. Passive euthanasia

A

c

57
Q

In which country is euthanasia legal?
a. UAE
b. Belgium
c. United Kingdom
d. India

A

b

58
Q

What is the key difference between voluntary and involuntary euthanasia?
a. Consent of the patient
b. Age of the patient
c. Type of illness
d. Religious beliefs

A

a

59
Q

Which ethical principle opposes euthanasia based on the belief that all human life is sacred and should be preserved?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non-maleficence
d. Sanctity of life

A

d

60
Q

What is the process of intentionally withholding or withdrawing medical treatment to allow a patient to die naturally?
a. Voluntary euthanasia
b. Active euthanasia
c. Passive euthanasia
d. Involuntary euthanasia

A

c

61
Q

Which country was the first to legalize euthanasia in certain circumstances?
a. Netherlands
b. Switzerland
c. Belgium
d. Luxembourg

A

a

62
Q

Which of the following is a potential concern associated with the legalization of euthanasia?
a. Increased patient autonomy
b. Decreased access to healthcare.
c. Potential for abuse.
d. Improved doctor-patient relationships

A

c

63
Q

What is physician-assisted suicide (PAS)?
a. Euthanasia
b. Suicide prevention
c. Assisted living
d. All of the above

A

a

64
Q

Which term refers to a request for physician-assisted suicide by a competent patient?
a. Euthanasia
b. Assisted suicide
c. Voluntary euthanasia
d. Involuntary euthanasia

A

b

65
Q

What is the primary ethical concern raised by opponents of physician-assisted suicide?
a. Autonomy
b. Beneficence
c. Non-maleficence
d. Sanctity of life

A

d

66
Q

Which medical condition is often cited as a reason for requesting physician-assisted suicide?
a. Diabetes
b. Depression
c. Alzheimer’s disease.
d. Migraines

A

c

67
Q

What does DNAR stand for?
a) Do Not Agitate Recovery
b) Do Not Attempt Resuscitation
c) Delayed Neurological Assessment and Recovery
d) Defer Noted Actions for Resuscitation

A

b

68
Q

When is a DNAR order typically considered?
a) Only in cases of terminal illness
b) When a patient is unconscious and unable to communicate
c) If the patient requests it at any time
d) When the medical team deems resuscitation efforts futile or inappropriate

A

d

69
Q

Who can decide to implement a DNAR order?
a) Only the patient
b) Only the healthcare provider
c) The patient or their legal representative, in consultation with the healthcare team
d) The family members, excluding the patient’s wishes

A

c

70
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding DNAR orders?
a) It means withholding all medical treatments
b) It applies only to elderly patients
c) It specifically refers to not initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
d) It is automatically implemented for all patients in critical condition

A

c

71
Q

What information should be documented when a DNAR order is implemented?
a) Date and time of the decision
b) Reason for the decision
c) Names of individuals involved in the decision-making process
d) All of the above

A

d

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