Essentials Of Comtemporary Management Flashcards

1
Q

Education and Experience help managers acquire and develop 3 types of skills: Which is not one of those skills?

A. Conceptual
B. Critical thinking
C. Human
D. Technical

A

B. Critical thinking

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2
Q

Thorough and direct feedback allows managers to develop their _____________ .

EMC

A. Conceptual skills
B. Technical skills
C. Human skills
D. none of the above

A

C. Human skills

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3
Q

All of the following are the four major challenges that standout for managers in today’s world, except?

A. Building a competitive advantage
B. Recruiting top talent
C. managing a diverse workforce
D. utilizing new technologies

A

B. Recruiting top talent

*4th = maintaining ethical standards

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4
Q

Four building blocks of competitive advantage include of all of the following, except?

A. Innovation
B. Responsiveness to Customers
C. Span of control
D. Efficiency

A

C. Span of control
*4th = quality

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5
Q

Organizations need to encourage ____________ because it leads to organizational innovation.

A. Entrepreneurship
B. Ownership
C. Intrapreneurship
D. Bipartisanship

A

C. Intrapreneurship

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6
Q

F.W. Taylor’s scientific management system had ___ principles.

A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

A

A. 4

study workers performing tasks
write rules & SOP’s
carefully select workers for the tasks
establish incentives/rewards for higher performance

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7
Q

__________ is the tendency to experience negative emotions and moods, feel distressed, and be critical of oneself or others.

A. Positive affectivity
B. Negative affectivity
C. Negative personality
D. Positive personality

A

B. Negative Affectivity

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8
Q

Various combinations of the four preferences, which result in 16 unique personality types, of this assessment is called __________?

A. DiSC
B. MMPI
C. MBTI
D. ARC

A

C. MBTI

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator based on theories by Carl Jung.

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9
Q

All of the following are personality dimensions that can be linked to various job-related components, except?

A. Job satisfaction
B. job performance
C. self worth
D. motivation

A

C. self worth
*4th = promotion

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10
Q

William Marston’s Behavioral style is described by the following, except?

A. dominance
B. influence
C. steadiness
D. conservativeness

A

D. conservativeness

  • 4th - conscientiousness (DiSC)
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11
Q

Personal conviction about lifelong goals or objectives.

A. Instrumental value
B. Personal value
C. Religious value
D. Terminal value

A

D. Terminal value

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12
Q

Personal conviction about desired modes of conduct or ways of behaving.

A. Instrumental value
B. Terminal value
C. Religious value
D. Altruistic value

A

A. Instrumental value

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13
Q

What are the following conditions associated with: Highly demanding work under uncertainty, coupled with a sense of powerlessness to achieve the desired results.

A. High stress
B. Burnout
C. Extraversion
D. Escapism

A

B. Burnout

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14
Q

Organizational culture is maintained and transmitted to organizational members through all of the following, except?

ECM p278

A. Values of the founder
B. process of socialization
C. Formal expectations
D. stories and language

A

C. Formal expectations

*4th = ceremonies and rites

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15
Q

_________ are enduring tendencies to feel, think, and act in certain ways.

A. Character traits
B. Emotional traits
C. Personality traits
D. Behavioral traits

A

C. Personality traits

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16
Q

Two attitudes important for understanding managerial behaviors are job satisfaction and _____________.

A. organizational commitment
B. promotional ability
C. High performance
D. Effectiveness

A

A. organizational commitment

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17
Q

The ability to understand and manage one’s own and other people’s moods and emotions?

A. Discipline
B. Integrity
C. Introspection
D. Emotional intelligence

A

D. Emotional intelligence

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18
Q

Supreme Court decision which struck down state laws that banned interracial marriages as unconstitutional.

A. Jones vs Georgia
B. Smith vs Tennessee
C. Loving vs Virginia
D. Myszka vs New York

A

C. Loving v. Virginia

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19
Q

All of the following are ethical rules or principles to analyze the effects of their business decisions, except?

A. Utilitarian rules
B. External rules
C. moral rights rules
D. justice rule

A

B. External rules

*4th = practical rules

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20
Q

Everybody is trying to manipulate the situation to serve their personal ends with no regard for their action on others.

A. Self preservation
B. Florida effect
C. Tragedy of the commons
D. Negative self worth

A

C. Tragedy of the commons

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21
Q

D E I

A

Diversity
Equity
Inclusion

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22
Q

Government policies that create barriers to entry and limit imports of goods by overseas companies.

A. Geographic barriers
B. Political barriers
C. Administrative barriers
D. Market barriers

A

C. Administrative barriers

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23
Q

Economic forces in the general environment include all of the following, except?

A. Interest rates
B. inflation
C. unemployment
D. Debt ratios

A

D. Debt ratios

*4th = economic growth

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24
Q

In societies that have a high degree of ________________, there are many distinctions among individuals and groups.

A. power distance
B. Social stratification
C. Political influence
D. Economic barriers

A

B. social stratification

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25
Q

Societies in which inequalities are allowed to persist or grow over time have ________ power distance?

A. Low
B. Non-existent
C. High
D. None of the above

A

C. High

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26
Q

All of the following are sources of bias that can adversely affect the way managers make decisions, except?

A. Confirmation
B. Availability
C. Representativeness
D. Illusion of Control

A

B. Availability

*4th = Escalating Commitment

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27
Q

A written approach to creative problem solving.

A. Brainstorming
B. Normalizing
C. Delphi technique
D. none of the above

A

C. Delphi Technique

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28
Q

A process managers use to identify and select appropriate goals and courses of action for an organization.

A. Decision making
B. Planning
C. Organizing
D. Leading

A

B. Planning

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29
Q

A cluster of related managerial decisions and actions to help an organization attain one of its goals.

A. Plan
B. Strategy
C. Design
D. Policy

A

B. Strategy

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30
Q

According to Henri Fayol, effective plans should have four qualities.
Which of the following is not one of those qualities?

A. disunity
B. continuity
C. accuracy
D. flexibility

A

A. disunity

*4th = Unity

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31
Q

In the planning process, it is important to ensure that planning across the three levels is ______.

A. Defined
B. Consistent
C. Clear
D. Understood

A

B. Consistent

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32
Q

Time horizons, or periods of time over which plans are applied. Identify 5 years or more, 1-5 years and less than 1 year.

A

Long-term plan, intermediate-term and short-term plans

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33
Q

A plan that is updated and amended every year to take account of changing conditions in the external environment.

A. Standing plan
B. Strategic plan
C. Common plan
D. Rolling plan

A

D. Rolling plan

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34
Q

Policies, rules and standard operating procedures (SOP’s) to control the way employees perform their tasks.

A. Standing plans
B. Rolling plans
C. Long-term plans
D. Short-term plans

A

A. Standing plans

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35
Q

The ability of the CEO and top managers to convey a compelling vision of what they want to achieve to their employees.

A. Formal leadership
B. Complex leadership
C. Ethical leadership
D. Strategic leadership

A

D. Strategic leadership

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36
Q

SWOT Analysis

A

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats

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37
Q

_________ raises costs and thus necessitates premium pricing to recoup those high costs.

A. Low-cost strategy
B. Differentiation strategy
C. Focused low-cost
D. None of the above

A

B. Differentiation strategy

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38
Q

An organization uses its ________ to develop new kinds of products, or it expands the number of locations in which it uses those skills.

A. Organizational skills
B. Technical skills
C. Functional skills
D. Interpersonal skills

A

C. Functional skills

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39
Q

What are the two types of diversification?

A

Related and Unrelated

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40
Q

The corporate-level strategy of expanding a company’s business operations into a new industry in order to produce new kinds of valuable goods or services

A. Unification
B. Diversification
C. Expantion
D. Bilateration

A

B. Diversification

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41
Q

________ can be a major source of cost savings when divisions share the costs of performing a functional activity.

A. Nonrelated diversification
B. Related diversification
C. External diversification
D. Internal diversification

A

B. Related diversification

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42
Q

There are four basic ways to operate in the global environment. Which of the following is not one?

A. Limited Liability Partnerships
B. Licensing and franchising
C. Strategic alliances
D. Wholly owned foreign subsidiaries

A

A. Limited Liability Partnerships

*4th = Importing & exporting

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43
Q

_________ involves inspecting a building to identify deficiencies in systems such as heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning.

A

Retrocommisioning

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44
Q

Organizational structure and ________ are powerful influences on how employees work.

A. influence
B. goals
C. culture
D. guidelines

A

C. Culture

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45
Q

A collection of feelings and beliefs

A. Mood
B. Values
C. Emotions
D. Attitude

A

D. Attitude

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46
Q

Which one of these is NOT an essential managerial task:

A. Preparing
B. Organizing
C. Leading
D. Controlling

A

A. Preparing

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47
Q

Typically, managers first decide to group jobs into departments and they design a ___________ to use organizational resources effectively.

A. Functional structure
B. Product structure
C. Market structure
D. Global structure

A

A. Functional structure

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48
Q

A ______________ lets managers be responsive to the needs of their customers and allows them to act flexibly in making decisions in response to customers’ needs.

A. Product structure
B. Market structure
C. Geographic structure
D. Functional structure

A

B. Market Structure

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49
Q

In a matrix structure, a __________ assigns individuals to a team and evaluates their performance from a functional perspective.

EMC p232

A. Functional boss
B. Product team boss
C. Matrix supervisor
D. Group supervisor

A

A. Functional boss

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50
Q

The matrix system makes the most use of __________ resources.

EMC p232

A. product
B. estimated
C. human
D. marketing

A

C. human

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51
Q

When managers adopt a divisional, matrix, or product team structure, they must use ______________ to achieve organizational goals.

EMC p239

A. coordinating mechanisms
B. Integrating mechanisms
C. Liaison roles
D. rolling leadership

A

B. Integrating mechanisms

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52
Q

What is another description of a task force within an organization?

A. Impromptu committee
B. Ad hoc committee
C. Special committee
D. Extraordinary committee

A

B. ad hoc committee

a committee of managers from various functions or divisions who meet to solve a specific, mutual problem.

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53
Q

An organization’s code of ethics derives from three principal sources in the organizational environment. Which one is NOT one of the three principal sources:

A) societal ethics
B) professional ethics
C) individual ethics
D) legal ethics

A

D) legal ethics

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54
Q

To address recurring problems effectively, managers are increasingly using integrating mechanisms such as ____________.

A. Internal teams
B. External teams
C. Cross-functional teams
D. Product teams

A

C. Cross-functional teams

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55
Q

A formal series of global strategic alliances that one or several organizations create with suppliers, manufacturers, and distributors.

A. Geographic network structure
B. Business-to-Business (B2B) network structure
C. Multidomestic network structure
D. Selective network structure

A

Business-to-Business (B2B) network structure

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56
Q

Effective managers always monitor trends and changes in the ___________________ to try to anticipate problems.

A. Internal environment
B. Global environment
C. Task environment
D. External environment

A

D. External environment

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57
Q

Which of the following is NOT an important type of control system that managers use?

A. Efficiency Control
B. Clan Control
C. Output Control
D. Behavior Control

A

A. Efficiency Control

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58
Q

Objective financial measures, challenging goals and performance standards, and appropriate operating budgets, are the three components of?

A. Input controls
B. Output controls
C. Product controls
D. Market controls

A

B. Output control

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59
Q

____________ control is a type of control managers use to coordinate and motivate employees to ensure they pursue superior efficiency, quality, innovation, and responsiveness to customers.

ECM p259

A. Input
B. Output
C. Product
D. Resource

A

B. Output

*others = behavior & organizational / clan control

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60
Q

All of the following are types of behavior control that managers can use to motivate and shape employee behavior, except?

A. Direct supervision
B. Micromanagement
C. Management by objectives (MBO)
D. Rules and SOP’s

A

B. Micromanagement

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61
Q

A formal system of evaluating employees on their ability to achieve specific organizational goals or performance standards, and to meet operating budgets.

A. Code of Ethics
B. General Orders
C. Management by Objectives
D. Rules and SOP’s

A

C. Management by Objectives

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62
Q

Based on Kurt Lewin’s force field theory of change, which of the following is NOT a state of change?

A. Refreezing
B. Inertia
C. Changing
D. Unfreezing

A

B. Inertia

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63
Q

Managers strive to motivate members of an organization to contribute inputs - through the following, except?

A. Behavior
B. effort
C. persistence
D. Personality

A

D. Personality

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64
Q

Motivation determines a person’s __________ in an organization, a person’s level of ___________, and a person’s level of ________________?

ECM p???

A. goals, input, output
B. behavior, effort, persistence
C. desires, motivation, happiness
D. none of the above

A

B. Behavior, effort, persistence

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65
Q

Behavior that is performed for its own sake. Love of the job - interesting and challenging - performing the job is the reward.

A. Extrinsic motivation
B. Internal motivation
C. Intrinsic motivation
D. Altruistic motivation

A

C. Intrinsic motivation

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66
Q

Behavior that is performed to acquire material or social rewards or to avoid punishment. Source of motivation is the consequence of behavior.

A. Altruistic motivation
B. Extrinsic motivation
C. Internalistic motivation
D. External motivation

A

B. Extrinsic motivation

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67
Q

Behavior that is performed to benefit or help others.

A. Team motivation
B. Altruistic motivation
C. Prosocially motivation
D. Internal motivation

A

C. Prosocially motivation

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68
Q

Managers use _________ to motivate people to contribute their inputs to the organization.

A. Outcomes
B. Outputs
C. Desires
D. Goals

A

A. Outcomes

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69
Q

Alignment between employees and organizational goals as a whole can be described by the _________________.

A. Expectations
B. Rules and Policies
C. Motivation equation
D. All of the above

A

C. Motivation equation
inputs–>performance–>outputs

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70
Q

A person’s perception about the extent to which effort (work) results in a certain level of performance.

A. Desirability
B. Expectancy
C. Achievability
D. Optamism

A

B. Expectancy

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71
Q

All of the following are ways to boost expectancy levels and motivation in employees, except?

A. Express confidence
B. Define expectations
C. providing training to increase expertise
D. increase their levels of autonomy and responsibility

A

B. Define expectations

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72
Q

Managers promote high levels of instrumentality when they link performance to desired ________.

A. Outputs
B. Inputs
C. Outcomes
D. Desires

A

C. Outcomes

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73
Q

How desirable each of the outcomes available from a job or an organization is to a person?

A. Importance
B. Valence
C. Affirmation
D. Favorable

A

B. Valence

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74
Q

When people experience underpayment inequity, which of the following actions would they NOT be motivated to do to restore equity?

A. Increase their inputs by increasing hours worked.
B. Lower their inputs by putting forth less effort on the job
C. Lower their inputs by reducing their working hours
D. Lower their inputs by being absent.

A

A. Increase their inputs by increasing hours worked

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75
Q

Following an online assessment taken by employees, which of the following was listed as their top choice for appreciation?

A. Merit pay increases
B. Quality time
C. Words of affirmation
D. Tangible gifts

A

C. Words of affirmation

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76
Q

What are the two basic kinds of behaviors that many leaders engaged in to influence their employees?

A. consideration, initiating structure
B. Affirmation, friendliness
C. Jovial, reassuring
D. None of the above

A

A. Consideration, Initiating Structure

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77
Q

Of the five types of power available to managers, which type is more informal than the other kinds of power?

A. Expert power
B. Coercive power
C. Reward power
D. Referent power

A

D. Referent power

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78
Q

To use power ethically, managers can inoculate themselves against hubris by practicing ________?

A. Reverence
B. Active listening
C. Humility
D. Understanding

A

C. Humility

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79
Q

Under the Managing Ethics and Diversity chapter, which is listed as the most critical stakeholder group?

A. Managers
B. Employees
C. Suppliers and Distributird
D. Customers

A

D. Customers

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80
Q

An ethical decision should distribute benefits and harm among people in a fair, equitable, and impartial manner.

A. Utilitarian rule
B. Justice rule
C. Practical rule
D. Moral rights rule

A

B. Justice Rule

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81
Q

_____ ethics control self-interested behavior by individuals and organizations

A. Societal
B. Professional
C. Individual
D. Corporate

A

A. Societal

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82
Q

To take advantage of the potential for synergy in groups, managers need to make sure that groups are composed of members who have __________ and knowledge relevant to the group’s __________.

A. Complementary skills, work
B. Personalities, drive
C. Depth, reason
D. none of the above

A

A. Complementary skills, work

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83
Q

This type of informal group can provide a manager valuable insights into the issues and concerns that foremost in employees’ minds and can also signal the need for change?

A. Friendship groups
B. Virtual groups
C. Task forces
D. Interest groups

A

D. Interest groups

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84
Q

In the 5 stages of group development, the __________ stage, group members experience conflict and disagreements.

A. Adjourning
B. Norming
C. Storming
D. Performing

A

C. Storming

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85
Q

Which of the following reasons is NOT one of the three reasons group members conform to group norms?

A. They have internalized the norms and believe they are the right and proper way.
B. They want to win over fellow group members and establish a leadership role.
C. They want to obtain rewards and avoid punishments.
D. They want to imitate group members whom they like and admire.

A

B. Win over/leadership role

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86
Q

Which level of group cohesiveness has shown to be most effective by ensuring that group members actively participate in the group and effectively communicate with one another?

A. Low
B. Moderate
C. High
D. Exceptionally high

A

B. Moderate

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87
Q

In the system named, Business Chemistry, it defines four styles that identify the way people work. Which style is identified as being cautious about risk taking and value stability; they want to learn from experience and look for detailed data to back decisions.

A. Pioneers
B. Drivers
C. Integrators
D. Guardians

A

D. Guardians

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88
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the four building blocks of competitive advantage?

A. Innovation
B. Organizational inputs and outputs
C. Responsiveness to customers
D. Quality

A

B. Org inputs and outputs

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89
Q

What is the third component of the HRM system that can give managers the information they need to make good human resource decisions?

A. Labor Relations
B. Performance Appraisal & Feedback
C. Training & Development
D. Pay & Benefits

A

B. Performance Appraisal & Feedback

*Recruiting, Training, performance appraisal, pay & benefits and labor relations

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90
Q

Which communication method builds trust and rapport, so it motivates employees, strengthen teamwork, and stimulates creativity?

A. Direct-oriented
B. Question-oriented
C. Listening-oriented
D. None of the above

A

B. Question-oriented

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91
Q

Which communication medium is likely to be the best when the message is personal, important, nonroutine, or likely to be misunderstood and in need of further clarification.

A. Personally addressed written communication
B. Impersonal written communication
C. Face-to-face communication
D. Spoken community transmitted electronically

A

C Face-To-Face communication

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92
Q

One function of technology is to increase the ___________ of managers’ information.

A. Accuracy
B. Relevance
C. Completeness
D. Timeliness

A

C. Completeness

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93
Q

Effective managers always monitor trends and changes in the ___________________ to try to anticipate problems.

A. Inputs and Outputs
B. External environments
C. Employee performance
D. Organizational goals

A

B. External environments

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94
Q

___ is an ethical decision and is one that a manager has no reluctance about communicating to people outside the company because the typical person in a society would think it is acceptable.

A. Practical rule
B. Common rule
C. Moral rights rule
D. Justice rule

A

A. Practical Rule

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95
Q

Regarding organizational culture, specifically ceremonies and rites, what category would an awards dinner be in?

A. Rite of passage
B. Rite of enhancement
C. Rite of integration
D. Rite of existence

ECM PG 66

A

B. Rite of Enhancement

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96
Q

At the heart of organizational learning is ___, which is the ability of a decision-maker to discover original and novel ideas that lead to feasible alternative courses of action.

A. Personal mastery
B. Organizational design
C. Creativity
D. Devil’s advocacy

A

C. Creativity

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97
Q

Regarding brainstorming, which is a group problem-solving technique in which managers meet face-to-face to generate and debate a wide variety of alternatives from which to make a decision generally from ___ managers, meet in a closed door session.

A. 2-5
B. 5-15
C. 3-7
D. 2-10

ECM 171

A

B. 5-15

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98
Q

regarding international expansion, the least complex global operations are ___.

A. Licensing and joint ventures
B. Franchising and licensing
C. Exporting and importing
D. None of the above

ECM p208

A

C. Exporting and importing

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99
Q

The ___________ of financial measures of performance is the reason why so many managers use them to assess the efficiency and effectiveness of their organizations.

A. Efficacy
B. Subjectivity
C. Liquidity
D. Objectivity

A

D. Objectivity

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100
Q

Under the Managing Ethics and Diversity chapter, which is listed as the most critical stakeholder group?

A. Managers
B. Employees
C. Suppliers and Distributird
D. Customers

A

D. Customers

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101
Q

_______ is a persons perception about the extent to which their effort will result in a certain level of performance.

A. Reflected outcome
B. Expectancy
C. Valence
D. Instrumentality

A

B. Expectancy

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102
Q

What is an important characteristic of management by objectives?

A. Its hierarchy structure
B. its participatory nature
C. its organized approach
D. its clarifying properties

A

B. Its participatory nature

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103
Q

Of the 4 types of justice in organizations, which is related to an employee’s perception of being treated with dignity and respect?

A. Distributive Justice
B. Informational Justice
C. Procedural Justice
D. Interpersonal Justice

A

D. Interpersonal Justice

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104
Q

Which system of management has team members with two bosses known as “two-boss employees”?

A. Product team structure
B. Matrix structure
C. Market structure
D. Global product structure

A

B. Matrix Structure

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105
Q

Research suggest that the best goals are specific, difficult goals that challenge and stretch managers abilities, but are not out of reach and do not require an impossibly high expenditure of time and energy. Such goals are often called __.

A. Stretch goals
B. Attainable goals
C. In-the-ballpark goals
D. Realistic goals

A

A. Stretch Goals

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106
Q

___ is behavior that is performed to benefit or help others.

A. Intrinsically motivated behavior.
B. Extrinsically motivated behavior.
C. Compassion motivated behavior
D. Prosocially motivated behavior

A

D. Prosocially motivated behavior

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107
Q

Regarding Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which need is satisfied by a manager by granting promotions and recognizing accomplishments

A. Self actualization needs
B. Esteem needs
C. Belonging this needs
D. Safety needs

A

B. Esteem needs

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108
Q

___ is more informal than the other kinds of power.

A) Reward power
B) Coercive power
C) Expert power
D) Referent power

A

D. Referent power

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109
Q

A ___ may be defined as two or more people who interact with each other to accomplish certain goals, or meet certain needs.

A. Company
B. Staff
C. Cohort
D. Group

A

D. Group

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110
Q

Regarding a top management team, which is a group composed of the CEO, the COO, and the vice president of the most important departments of a company. Most have between _______ members.

A. 3-5
B. 5-7
C. 7-9
D. 9-11

A

B. 5-7

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111
Q

Which one of the following types of teams can include members who are not actually employees of the organization itself, an example might include members of a company that is used for outsourcing.

A. Research and development teams.
B. Task forces.
C. Virtual teams.
D. Sellf managed work teams.

A

C. Virtual Teams

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112
Q

Regarding group cohesiveness, there are three major consequences of group cohesiveness. Which one of these is NOT one of them?

A. Individual buy-in
B. Level of participation within a group
C. Level of conformity to group norms
D. Emphasis on group goal, accomplishment

A

A. Individual buy-in

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113
Q

Regarding effective team management, social loafing can occur in all kinds of groups and teams, and in all kinds of organizations. Which one of these is NOT one of the three steps suggested to reduce social loafing?

A. Make individual contributions to a group identifiable
B. Ensure formal or informal leaders are engaged
C. Emphasize the valuable contributions of individual members
D. Keep group size at an appropriate level

A

B. Ensure formal or informal leaders are engaged

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114
Q

Regarding human resource planning, ______ estimates the qualifications and numbers of employees an organization will need, given its goals and strategies.

ECM p390

A. Supply forecasts
B. HRM determinations
C. Demand forecasts
D. Capital determinations

A

C. Demand forecasts

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115
Q

Managers can take steps to reduce some of the uncertainty surrounding external recruitment with multiple different methods. Which one is NOT one of the methods listed?

A. tests
B. temporary jobs
C. internships
D. probationary period

A

D. Probationary period

116
Q

____ is a broad, comparative concept that refers to how an organizations pay incentives compare, in general, to those of other organizations in the same industry employing similar kinds of workers.

A. Salary equalizing
B. Income base
C. Pay level
D. Output average

ECM 405

A

C. Pay Level

117
Q

Some experts estimate that manager spend approximately ___ of their time engaged in some form of communication.

A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 70%
D. 80%

ECM 421

118
Q

___________ means translating a message into understandable symbols or language.

A. encoding
B. decoding
C. medium
D. noise

ECM 420

A

B. encoding

119
Q

In choosing a communication medium for any message, managers need to consider three factors. Which one of these factors is listed as the most important?

A. Information richness
B. Time needed for communication
C. Need for a paper or electronic trail
D. All the above

ECM 423

A

A. Information Richness

120
Q

Attributes of useful information is all except:

A. quality
B. timeliness
C. source
D. completeness

ECM 443

A

C. source

  • (4th is relevance)
121
Q

Which one of the following is not a rule for ethical decision making listed in the book?

A. Utilitarian rule.
B. Moral rights rule.
C. Justice rule.
D. Common-sense rule.

ECM p087

A

D. Common-sense Rule

(Listed as Practical Rule)

122
Q

___ is defined as “the purchase or production of inputs or final products from overseas suppliers to lower cost and improve product quality or design”

A. global outsourcing
B. international purchasing
C. worldwide sourcing
D. transnational outsourcing

ECM 122

A

A. global outsiurcing

123
Q

___ is potentially the most threatening force managers must deal with.

A. Retaining customers
B. Rivalry between competitors
C. Fair work environment
D. Global environment

ECM 124

A

B. Rivalry between competitors

124
Q

Regarding globalization, four types of capital, which one is NOT correct:

A Human capital
B Financial capital
C Resource capital
D Interpersonal capital

ECM p134

A

D. Interpersonal capital

**4th = political capital

125
Q

People responsible for supervising and making the most of an organizations human and other resources to achieve its goals: describes?

ECM p4

A. leaders
B. managers
C. organizers
D. facilitators

A

B. managers

126
Q

Which of the following is not considered an organizations resources?

ECM p4

A. raw materials
B. financial capital
C. know-how
D. business plans

A

D. business plans

*people and their skills, machinery, experience, computers & IT, patents, loyal customers and employees.

127
Q

Organizational performance increases in direct proportion to increases in ___________ and __________.

ECM p5

A. inputs, outputs
B. supply, demands
C. efficiency, effectiveness
D. goals, follow through

A

C. efficiency, effectiveness

128
Q

Organizations are effective when managers choose appropriate ________ and then achieve them.

ECM p6

A. plans
B. employees
C. designs
D. goals

129
Q

Managers help their organizations make the best use of their resources and achieve their goals by the use of four managerial tasks. Which of the following is not one of those tasks?

ECM p6

A. Controlling
B. Guiding
C. Planning
D. Organizing

A

B. Guiding

*4th = Leading, Planning, Organizing, Controlling

130
Q

The outcome of organizing is the creation of a(n) _________________.

ECM p8

A. Hierarchy
B. Chain of Command
C. Organizational Structure
D. Path to Success

A

C. Organizational Structure

131
Q

An outcome of ______________ is a highly motivated and committed workforce.

ECM p8

A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Leading
D. Controlling

A

C. Leading

132
Q

Under the types of rolls identified by Mintzberg, which of the specific roles, under Decisional type, does the following statement describe: Commit organizational resources to develop innovative goods and services; decide to expand internationally to obtain new customers.

ECM p11

A. Negotiator
B. Resource allocator
C. Disturbance handler
D. Entrepreneur

A

D. Entrepreneur

133
Q

Which type of manager has cross-departmental responsibility?

ECM p13

A. Top Managers
B. Middle Managers
C. First Line Managers
D. None of the above

A

A. Top Managers

134
Q

Research has shown that education and experience, help managers acquire and develop three types of skills: which of the following is not one of those skills?

ECM p14

A. Conceptual
B. Interpersonal
C. Technical
D. Human

A

B. Interpersonal

135
Q

_________ skills are demonstrated in the general ability to analyze and diagnose a situation and to distinguish between cause and effect.

ECM p14

A. Human
B. Technical
C. Conceptual
D. None of the above

A

C. Conceptual

136
Q

_________ skills include the general ability to understand, alter, lead, and control the behavior of other individuals and groups.

ECM p15

A. Conceptual skills
B. Human skills
C. Technical skills
D. None of the above

A

B. Human skills

137
Q

Departmental skills that create a ____________ give an organization a competitive advantage.

ECM p16

A. attainable goals
B. strong strategy
C. solid foundation
D. core competency

A

D. core competency

138
Q

A person, with this personality trait, would be unlikely to leave a secure job in an organization and assume the risk associated with the new venture.

ECM p18

A. Openness to experience
B. Risk Averse
C. Internal locus of control
D. External locus of control

A

D. External locus of control

139
Q

Four major challenges standout for managers in today’s world: they are all of the following, except:

ECM p20

A. Managing a diverse workforce
B. Maintain ethical standards
C. Developing inputs and outputs
D. Utilizing new technologies

A

C. Developing inputs and outputs

  • 4th = Building a competitive advantage
140
Q

The following are the building blocks of competitive advantage, except.

ECM p20

A. Efficiency
B. Workmanship
C. Innovation
D. Responsiveness to customers

A

B. Workmanship

*4th = Quality

141
Q

Companies that have speed and flexibility are _______ competitors.

ECM p21

A. strong
B. confident
C. agile
D. resilient

142
Q

Typically, ___________ takes place in small groups or teams; management centralizes control of work activities to team members and creates an organizational culture that rewards risk taking.

ECM p22

A. collaboration
B. innovation
C. brainstorming
D. tunnel vision

A

B. innovation

143
Q

Companies who set goals for reducing wasted resources and their impact on the environment, treating workers with dignity, and promoting community development are demonstrating which standard?

ECM 24

A. Social altruism standards
B. Ethical management standards
C. Social responsibility standards
D. None of the above

A

C. Social responsibility standards

144
Q

Organizations need to encourage _______________ because it leads to organizational innovation.

ECM p27

A. leadership
B. entrepreneurship
C. intrapreneurship
D. social responsibility

A

C. intrapreneurship

145
Q

Frederick W Taylor is best known for defining the techniques of _______________ , the systematic study of relationships between people and tasks for the purpose of redesigning the work process to increase efficiency.

ECM p34

A. corporate management
B. manufacturing management
C. scientific management
D. business management

A

C. scientific management

146
Q

From which management theory is obedience owed to a manager because the manager occupies a position that is associated with a certain level of authority and responsibility.

EMC p37

A. Authoritative management theory
B. Scientific management theory
C. Bureaucratic management theory
D. Fayol’s principles of management

A

C. Bureaucratic management theory

147
Q

Which management researcher argued, that because workers know the most about their jobs, they should be involved in job analysis and managers should allow them to participate in the work development process.

ECM p40

A. Taylor
B. Weber
C. Gilbreths
D. Follet

148
Q

Which management study determined, that the significant finding in particular, was that a manager’s behavior or leadership approach can affect performance.

ECM p41

A. Human Relations Movement
B. Follett study
C. Hawthorne Study
D. X & Y Theories

A

C. Hawthorne Study
Hawthorne effect workers productivity is affected more by observation or attention received then by physical work setting.

149
Q

It is the manager’s task to create a work setting that encourages commitment to organizational goals and provides opportunities for workers to be imaginative and to exercise initiative and self direction. This describes which Theory?

ECM p43

A. Theory X
B. Theory Y

A

B. Theory Y

150
Q

Of the five general personality traits or characteristics, which of the following is not one of them?

ECM 47

A. Extraversion
B. Agreeableness
C. Authoritarian
D. Negative affectivity

A

C. Authoritarian
* remaining two = consciousness and openness to experience

151
Q

Managers who are low on this personality trait continuum do not tend to experience as many negative emotions and moods and are less pessimistic and critical of themselves and others.

ECM p49

A. conscientiousness
B. openness to experience
C. agreeableness
D. negative affectivity

A

D. negative affectivity

152
Q

Managers who are low on this trait continuum may be less prone to take risks and more conservative in their planning and decision-making.

ECM p49

A. Conscientiousness
B. Openness to experience
C. Agreeableness
D. Extraversion

A

B. Openness to experience

153
Q

An _____________ also helps ensure ethical behavior and decision-making in an organization because people feel accountable and responsible for their own actions.

ECM p50

A. Internal Locus of Control
B. External Locus of Control
C. Needs for achievement
D. Self-esteem

A

A. Internal Locus of Control

154
Q

Research suggests that _______ needs for achievement and for power or assets for first line and middle managers.

ECM p51

A. low
B. medium
C. high
D. none of the above

155
Q

__________ values often lead to the formation of norms, which are unwritten, informal codes of conduct, such as behaving honestly or courteously.

EMC p52

A. Terminal
B. Instrumental

A

A. Terminal

156
Q

Manager’s _____________ are fundamental guides to their behavior and efforts at planning, leading, organizing, and controlling.

ECM p53

A. moral compass
B. value systems
C. attitudes
D. moods and emotions

A

B. value system

157
Q

When people are in ___________ moods, they tend to be more detail-oriented and focused on the facts at hand.

EMC p57

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Indifferent
D. none of the above

A

B. Negative

158
Q

_____________ helps managers understand and relate well to other people. It also helps managers, maintain their enthusiasm and confidence and energize employees to help the organization attain its goals.

EMC p59

A. agreeableness
B. conscientiousness
C. emotional intelligence
D. emotional awareness

A

C. emotional intelligence

159
Q

The model that describes when founders higher employees for their new ventures, they tend to be attracted to and choose employees whose personalities are similar to their own.

ECM p62

A. Start-up bias
B. ASA Framework
C. founder tunnel vision
D. Similarity complex

A

B. ASA Framework
attraction-selection-attrition

160
Q

The adage “Do unto others as you would have them do unto you” is a _______________ principle that managers should use to decide which rights to uphold.

EMC p88

A. Justice
B. Practical
C. Moral Rights
D. Utilitarian

A

C. Moral Rights

161
Q

An organizations code of ethics drives from three principal sources in the organization environment: which of the following is not one of those principal sources?

ECM p91

A. Individual ethics
B. Professional ethics
C. Business ethics
D. Society ethics

A

C. Business ethics

162
Q

When managers commit to ______________ , their commitment legitimizes the diversity management efforts of others.

ECM p103

A. inclusion
B. equitable
C. diversity
D. ethics

A

C. diversity

163
Q

Which of the following is not a managerial role in the effective management of diversity?

ECM p104

A. Decisional
B. Reactional
C. Interpersonal
D. Informational

A

B. Reactional

164
Q

The ________ environment contains the forces that have the most immediate and direct effect on managers because they pressure and influence managers daily.

ECM p119

A. task
B. general
C. Both A & B
D. none of the above

165
Q

All of the following are barriers to entry into a task environment. except:

ECM p125

A. Brand loyalty
B. Competitive pricing
C. Economies of scale
D. Government regulations that impede entry

A

B. Competitive pricing

166
Q

The result of globalization is that nations and peoples become increasingly __________ because the same forces affect them in similar ways.

ECM p133

A. dependent
B. connected
C. separated
D. interdependent

A

D. interdependent

167
Q

Which of the following is not one of Hofstede’s developed five dimensions of national culture?

ECM p139

A. Power distance
B. Individualism vs Collectivism
C. Certainty avoidance
D. Achievement vs nurturing orientation

A

C. Certainty avoidance
Uncertainty avoidance
and Long-term vs short-term orientation

168
Q

The decision-making is called ____________________ because the decision-maker does not need to repeatedly make new judgments about what should be done.

EMC 153

A. biased
B. nonprogrammed
C. short-sighted
D. programmed

A

D. programmed

169
Q

_________ decision-making includes decisions using intuition or reasoned judgments and are made in response to unusual or novel opportunities and threats.

EMC p154

A. Programmed
B. Classical Model
C. Nonprogrammed
D. Administrative Model

A

C. Nonprgrammed

170
Q

__________ plagues most managerial decision making.

EMC p157

A. Ambiguous information
B. Risk
C. Time constraints
D. Uncertainty

A

D. Uncertainty

171
Q

Which of the following is not a reason information is incomplete?

EMC p157

A. Incompetency
B. Risk & Uncertainty
C. Ambiguous information
D. Time constraints & information costs

A

A. Incompetency

172
Q

Within the six steps of decision-making model, which of the following is not one of the steps listed.

EMC p160-163

A. Learn from feedback
B. Choose among alternatives
C. Generate alternatives
D. Rely on expert intuition

A

D. Rely on expert intuition

*other 3:
Recognize the need for a decision
Assess alternatives
Implement the chosen alternative

173
Q

In step one of the six step decision-making process, some ______ usually sparked the realization that a decision must be made.

EMC p160

A. risk factors
B. outside influences
C. stimuli
D. alternatives

A

C. stimuli

174
Q

In assessing alternatives, the key to a good assessment of the alternatives is to __________ the opportunity or threat exactly and then specify the criteria that _________ influence the selection of alternatives for responding to the problem or opportunity.

EMC p161

A. describe; will
B. outline; suggest
C. define; should
D. specify; improves

A

C. define; should

175
Q

In general, successful managers, use four criteria to evaluate the pros and cons of alternative courses of action. Which of the following is not one of those listed?

EMC p161

A. Legality
B. Achievability
C. Ethicalness
D. Practicality

A

B. Achievability
*4th = Economic feasibility

176
Q

Within cognitive biases and decision-making, __________ are rules that are often useful because they help decision-makers make sense of complex, uncertain, and ambiguous information.

ECM p164

A. systematic errors
B. biases
C. cognitive ease
D. heuristics

A

D. heuristics

177
Q

Four sources of bias that can adversely affect the way managers make decisions include all of the following, except:

ECM 164-165

A. Illusion of control
B. Representativeness bias
C. Availability bias
D. Confirmation bias

A

C. Availability bias
*4th = escalating commitment

178
Q

Research suggests the confirmation bias is particularly strong when information is presented ________________ , and the individual is asked to revisit their decision as a result of new information.

ECM p164

A. sequentially
B. sporadically
C. clearly
D. ambiguously

A

A. sequentially

179
Q

Which level of managers seem particularly prone to the bias of illusion of control?

ECM p165

A. nonmangerial employees
B. first-line managers
C. mid-managers
D. top managers

A

D. top managers

180
Q

One of the perils of group think, is commitment is often based on an __________, rather than the objective, assessment of the optimal course of action.

ECM p166

A. inspired
B. emotional
C. expected
D. unconditional

A

B. emotional

181
Q

A technique known to counteract group think is.

ECM p167

A. Devil’s Advocacy
B. Strengthen Individual input
C. Diversity among decision makers
D. A & C

182
Q

The quality of managerial decision making ultimately depends on ________ responses to opportunities and threats.

ECM p167

A. unbiased
B. informed
C. critical
D. innovative

A

D. innovative

183
Q

There are five principles for creating a learning organization. Which of the following is not one of the principles?

ECM p168-169

A. Develop personal mastery
B. Promote team learning
C. Build shared vision
D. Implement learning behaviors

A

D. Implement learning behaviors

*other 2 principles:
#2 - Built complex, challenging, mental models
#5 - Encourage systems thinking

184
Q

To encourage creativity at the group level, organizations can use __________ problem-solving techniques, that promote creative ideas, and innovative solutions.

ECM p171

A. individual
B. complex
C. group
D. simplistic

185
Q

There are group decision-making techniques that improve group creativity and problem-solving. Which of the following is not one of the identified techniques?

ECM p171

A. Delphi technique
B. Groupthink
C. Brainstorming
D. Nominal group technique

A

B. Groupthink

186
Q

_____________ avoids production blocking and provides a more structured way of generating alternatives in writing and gives each manager more time and opportunity to come up with potential solutions.

ECM p172

A. Brainstorming
B. Delphi technique
C. Nominal group technique
D. None of the above

A

C. Nominal group technique

187
Q

Planning is both a _____ making and a _____ making process.

ECM 184

A. structural; follow through
B. Problem; problem solving
C. goal; strategy
D. mission; vision

A

C. goal; strategy

188
Q

Henry Fayol identified four qualities of effective planning. All of the following qualities, except:

ECM p186

A. unity
B. continuity
C. accuracy
D. Rigidity

A

D. Rigidity
*4th = flexibility

189
Q

The use of _________ is essential because of the high rate of change in the environment and the difficulty of predicting competitive conditions five years in the future.

ECM p191

A. short-term plans
B. time horizon plans
C. rolling plans
D. shifting plans

A

C. rolling plans

190
Q

A written instruction describing the exact series of actions that should be followed in a specific situation, describes which standing plan?

ECM p191

A. A policy
B. A rule
C. A code
D. A standard operating procedure

A

D. A standard operating procedure

Policy = general guide to action
Rule = formal, written guide

191
Q

In the SWOT analysis, Strengths and Weaknesses are _______ and Opportunities and Threats are _________.

ECM p193

A. external; internal
B. internal; external
C. internal; internal
D. external; external

A

B. internal; external

192
Q

Within the Five Forces Model, which of the forces is described by the following statement:
The more that companies compete against each other for customers, the lower is the level of industry profits.

ECM p195

A. Power of large suppliers
B. The level of rivalry among organizations in an industry
C. The potential for entry into an industry
D. The threat of substitute products

A

B. The level of rivalry among organizations in an industry

193
Q

All of the following are principal corporate-level strategies that managers use to help a company grow and keep it at the top of its industry. Which of the following is not one of those strategies?

ECM p201

A. Vertical integration
B. Diversification
C. International expansion
D. Product specialization

A

D. Product specialization

*4th = concentration on a single industry

194
Q

There are four factors that determine the design of an organizational structure. Which of the following is not one of those factors?

ECM p219

A. Strategy
B. Technology
C. Organizational hierarchy
D. Human Resources

A

C. Organizational hierarchy

*4th = organizational environment

195
Q

Which of the following is an example of job enrichment?

ECM p223

A. Encouraging workers to develop new skills
B. Increasing their promotional ability
C. Allowing workers to monitor and measure their own performance
D. A & C

A

D. A & C

  • others = • empowering workers to experiment to find new or better ways of doing the job
    • allowing workers to decide how to do the work and giving them the responsibility for deciding how to respond to unexpected situations
196
Q

Within the Job Characteristics Model, the following sentence describes which of the five characteristics: The degree to which a worker feels their job is meaningful because of its effect on people inside the organization, such as coworkers, or people outside the organization, such as customers.

EMC p224

A. Skill Variety
B. Task Identity
C. Task Significance
D. Autonomy

A

C. Task Significance

5th = Feedback

197
Q

Which of the following is not a type of Divisional Structure?

ECM p227

A. Engineering
B. Market
C. Geographic
D. Product

A

A. Engineering

198
Q

A product structure puts ________________ managers close to their customers, and that’s the response quickly appropriately to the changing task environment.

ECM p230

A. Group
B. Divisional
C. Regional
D. Top

A

B. Divisional

199
Q

Managers are most likely to use this type of structure when they pursue a multidomestic strategy because customer needs very widely by country or world region.

ECM p231

A. Geographic structure
B. Market structure
C. Product structure
D. Global Geographic structure

A

D. Global Geographic structure

200
Q

A ________ structure, lets managers be responsive to the needs of their customers and allows them to act flexibly in making decisions and response to customers’ changing needs.

ECM P 232

A. Product
B. Matrix
C. Market
D. Geographic

A

C. Market (customers)

201
Q

For managers to operate effectively under rapidly changing customer needs and environments that are uncertain, the most flexible kind of organizational structure available is the _____________.

ECM p232

A. Global Product Structure
B. Global geographic structure
C. Product Market Structure
D. Matrix structure

A

D. Matrix Structure

202
Q

To keep the matrix structure flexible, product teams are ___________ and team members are responsible for making most of the important decisions involved in product development.

ECM p233

A. Empowered
B. Entrusted
C. Instructed
D. Facilitated

A

A. Empowered

203
Q

In a matrix structure, the product team manager act as a __________ , controlling the financial resources and trying to keep the project on time and within budget.

ECM p233

A. leader
B. manager
C. facilitator
D. motivator

A

C. facilitator

204
Q

The functional managers try to ensure that the project is the best it can be to maximize its ____________ appeal.

ECM p233

A. low-cost
B. unique
C. differentiated
D. marketing

A

C. differentiated

205
Q

All of the following are types of control systems, except?

ECM p255

A. Feedforward control
B. Static control
C. Concurrent control
D. Feedback control

A

B. Static Control

*A + Input stage, C + Conversion stage and D + Output stage

206
Q

All of the following are steps in the organizational control process, except?

ECM p256

A. Establish the standards of performance
B. Measure actual performance
C. Evaluate the result and initiate corrective action.
D. Reestablish standards that were not met.

A

D. Reestablish standards that were not met.

*4th = compare actual performance against chosen standards of performance

207
Q

Top managers are most concerned with overall organizational performance in these various financial measures to evaluate it. The most common include all of the following, except?

ECM p260-261

A. Profit ratios
B. Leverage ratios
C. Inflation ratios
D. Activity ratios

A

C. Inflation ratios

*4th = Liquidity ratios

208
Q

The mechanisms that managers use to assess output or performance are all of the following, except?

ECM p260

A. Financial measures
B. Resource accountability
C. Organizational goals
D. Operating budgets

A

B. Resource accountability

209
Q

A budgeting practice that managers, of each group or business division, use to create each year’s budget from a blank worksheet and is designed to cut unnecessary spending is called:

EMC p264

A. Zero sum budgeting
B. Blank slate budgeting
C. Zero-based budgeting
D. Blank check budgeting

A

C. Zero-based budgeting (ZBB)

210
Q

_____ control is an essential part of management.

ECM p265

A. Input
B. Financial
C. Operating
D. Output

211
Q

The balanced scorecard approach to organizational control has operational components, which include all of the following, except?

ECM p268

A. Financial measures
B. Customer service
C. Operational measures
D. Internal business processes

A

C. Operational measures

*4th = an organization’s potential for learning and growth

212
Q

______ control is control by means of a comprehensive system of rules and standard operating procedures (SOPs) that shapes and regulates the behavior of divisions, functions, and individuals.

ECM p268

A. Diplomatic
B. Balanced Scorecard
C. Bureaucratic
D. Policy driven

A

C. Bureaucratic

213
Q

One source of control, increasingly being used by organizations is a strong __________________.

ECM p270

A. code of ethics
B. organizational culture
C. professional influence
D. leadership

A

B. Organizational culture

214
Q

__________ is the control exerted on individuals and groups in an organization by shared values, norms, standards of behavior, and expectations.

ECM p271

A. Peer influence
B. Accountability
C. Clan Control
D. Structure

A

C. Clan Control

215
Q

_________ are ones whose values and norms help and organization build momentum and grow and change as needed to achieve its goals and be effective.

ECM p271

A. Inert cultures
B. Adaptive cultures
C. Improving cultures
D. Respectful cultures

A

B. Adaptive cultures

  • inert cultures = fail to motivate employees and lead to stagnation
216
Q

Within the four steps of the organizational change process, the following sentence describes which step: “Decide what the organizations ideal future state would be”.

A. Assess the need for change
B. Decide on the change to make
C. Implement the change
D. Evaluate the change

A

B. Decide on the change to make
*Identify obstacles to change

217
Q

Which method of implementing change places the emphasis on making the changes quickly and dealing with problems as they arise: it is revolutionary in nature.

ECM p276

A. Top-Down change
B. Bottom-up change

A

A. Top-down change

** bottom-up change is more gradual and evolutionary and uncertainty and resistance are minimized

218
Q

A change evaluation tool known as _____________, that compared performance on specific dimensions, is also a key tool in total quality management (TQM).

ECM p277

A. Optimum performance
B. Pinnacle reference
C. Benchmarking
D. Standard gauging

A

C. Benchmarking

219
Q

All of the following are important theories of motivation, except?

ECM p286

A. Expectancy theory
B. Equity theory
C. Wants theory
D. Goal-setting theory

A

C. Wants theory

*others include - needs theory and learning theories

220
Q

Psychological forces that determine direction of a persons behavior in an organization, a persons level of effort, and a persons level of persistence in the face of obstacles.

ECM p286

A. Attitude
B. Mood
C. Motivation
D. Dedication

A

C. Motivation

221
Q

_______ is a person’s perception about the extent to which performance at a certain level will result in the attainment of outcomes.

A. Reflected outcome
B. Expectancy
C. Valence
D. Instrumentality

A

D. Instrumentality

222
Q

The highest level of needs, in Maslow‘s hierarchy of needs, is described as: The needs to realize one’s full potential as a human being.

ECM p293

A. Esteem needs
B. Belongingness needs
C. Safety needs
D. Self-actualization needs

A

D. Self-actualization needs

223
Q

A need theory that distinguishes between needs related to the nature of the work itself and needs related to the physical and psychological context in which the work is performed, and proposes that the nature of work needs must be met for motivation and job satisfaction to be high.

ECM p294

A. Needs Theory
B. Expectancy theory
C. Motivator-Hygiene theory
D. Equity theory

A

C. Motivator-Hygiene theory

224
Q

Equitable treatment, because it empowers and retains an organizations workforce, is not only ___________ , but also good for business.

ECM p299

A. fair
B. ethical
C. justified
D. meaningful

A

B. ethical

225
Q

There are three types of goals in the goalsetting theory; _______ goals, are goals that about one-half of the people can attain and have less motivational power.

ECM p300

A. easy
B. moderate
C. difficult
D. vague

A

B. moderate

226
Q

Like the goals themselves, _________ also help ensure that efforts are focused in the right direction and that people do not get sidetracked along the way.

ECM p300

A. outlines
B. action plans
C. SOPs
D. policies

A

B. action plans

227
Q

Operant conditioning theory provides four tools, which of the following is not one of those tools to motivate employees.

ECM p301

A. Punishment
B. Positive discipline
C. Extinction
D. Positive reinforcement

A

B. Positive discipline
*4th = Negative reinforcement

228
Q

Social learning theory includes all of the following types of learning, except:

ECM p303

A. Vicarious learning
B. Self-efficacy learning
C. Instinctive learning
D. Self-reinforcement learning

A

C. Instinctive learning

229
Q

When reviewing ways to encourage or thank employees for good work, more than 46% of on-site employees and 39.5% of remote workers chose __________ as their top choice for appreciation.

ECM p306

A. Tangible gifts
B. Acts of service
C. Quality time
D. Words of affirmation

A

D. Words of affirmation

230
Q

From a motivation standpoint, stock options are used not so much to reward past individual performance but, rather, to motivate employees to work in the _______ for the good of the company as a whole.

ECM p308

A. present
B. future
C. intended goals
D. ideal setting

231
Q

When comparing managers and leaders within an organization, leaders exhibit some of the following, except:

A. Provide meaning and purpose
B. Seek innovation rather than stability
C. Attract, retain and motivate employees
D. Establish and implement procedures and processes

A

D. Establish and implement procedures and processes

232
Q

A person who views their role more as a motivator and listener, someone who empowers followers to act as collaborators and innovators within the organization, defines which type of leader?

ECM p321

A. Authoricratic leader
B. Transformational leader
C. Servant leader
D. Democratic leader

A

C. Servant leader

233
Q

Effective managers, use their ________ power to show appreciation for employees good work and efforts.

ECM p323

A. Coercive
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward

234
Q

Managers who rely heavily on ___________ power tend to be ineffective as leaders, and sometimes even get fired or sent to prison.

ECM p323

A. Coercive
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward

A

A. Coercive

235
Q

_______ power is a function of the personal characteristics of a leader; it is the power that comes from employees and coworkers respect, admiration, and loyalty.

ECM p325

A. Coercive
B. Referent
C. Expert
D. Reward

A

B. Referent

236
Q

Empowerment is the process of giving employees at all levels the authority to do all of the following, except.

ECM p326

A. Make decisions
B. Improve quality
C. Establish organizational goals
D. Cut costs

A

C. Establish organizational goals

  • 4th = be responsible for their own outcomes
237
Q

Within the trait model of leadership, the following statement describes which trait?
• contributes to managers effectively influencing employees and persisting when faced with obstacles or difficulties

ECM p327

A. Intelligence
B. Dominance
C. High energy
D. Self-confidence

A

D. Self-confidence

238
Q

The following statement describes which behavior a leader performs within the behavior model of leadership?
• The leader shows their employees that they trust, respect, and care about them.

ECM p 328

A. Consideration behaviors
B. Initiating structure behaviors

A

A. Consideration behaviors

239
Q

The following statement describes which behavior a leader performs within the behavior model of leadership?
• behavior that managers engage in to ensure that work gets done, employees perform their jobs acceptably, and they organization is efficient and effective.

ECM p 328

A. Consideration behaviors
B. Initiating structure behaviors

A

B. Initiating structure behaviors

240
Q

Which of the following is not a situational characteristic of how favorable a situation is for leading:

ECM p330

A. Task structure
B. Goal attainment
C. Position power
D. Leader-member relations

A

B. Goal attainment

241
Q

Regarding McClelland’s needs for achievement, affiliation, and power, research suggests that high needs for ___ and for ___ are assets for first line and middle managers.

ECM p294

A. Achievement; Affiliation
B. Achievement; Power
C. Affiliation; Power
D. None of the above

A

B. Achievement; Power

242
Q

According to the contingency model of leadership for managers to be effective, either managers need to be placed in leadership situations that ____ their style or situations need to be changed to ____ the managers.

ECM p331

A. drive; motivate
B. fit; suit
C. accommodate; accommodate
D. change; strengthen

A

B. fit; suit

243
Q

Houses path-goal theory identifies four kinds of leadership behaviors. Which of the following is not one of those identified behaviors?

ECM p333

A. Directive behaviors
B. Supportive behaviors
C. Participative behaviors
D. Forecasting behaviors

A

D. Forecasting behaviors

*4th = Achievement-oriented behaviors

244
Q

All of the following are contingency models of leadership, except?

ECM p335

A. Leader substitutes model
B. Leadership Traits model
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Fiedler’s contingency model

A

B. Leadership Trait model

245
Q

The ways in which transformational leaders can influence their followers include all of the following, except?

ECM 337

A. being a charismatic leader
B. Intellectually stimulating employees
C. being open and honest with employees
D. By engaging in developmental considerations

A

C. being open and honest with employees

246
Q

Managers, exercising, transactional leadership use their ______ and __________ powers to encourage high-performance.

ECM p338

A. referent, legitimate
B. expert, referent
C. coercive, reward
D. legitimate, coercive

A

C. coercive, reward

247
Q

____________ also plays a crucial role in how leaders relate to and deal with their followers, particularly when it comes to encouraging followers to be creative.

ECM p340

A. Referent power
B. Consideration behaviors
C. Emotional intelligence
D. Task oriented behaviors

A

C. Emotional Intelligence

248
Q

For team development and performance to succeed, team members need to develop “soft skills”. These are the people related skills that get team members connected with each other and aligned on carrying out their shared purpose. They include all of the following, except?

ECM p353

A. communicating
B. collaborating
C. directing
D. empathizing

A

C. directing

*other include - organizing and solving interpersonal problems

249
Q

__ is a job change that entails no major changes in responsibility or authority levels.

ECM p392

A. Lateral move
B. Transfer move
C. Team move
D. Voluntary move

A

A. Lateral move

250
Q

__ is identifying the task, duties, and responsibilities that make up a job and the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to perform the job.

A. Job description
B. Career position
C. Task overview
D. Job analysis

ECM p391

A

D. Job analysis

251
Q

Which is not something members of a small group tend to do?

EMC p362

A. Interact more with each other and find it easier to coordinate their efforts
B. Find it easier to share information
C. Splitting work to be performed into particular tasks
D. Be more motivated, satisfied, and committed

A

C. Splitting work to be performed into particular tasks

*4th = be better able to see the importance of their personal contributions for group success

252
Q

Four building blocks of competitive advantage include all EXCEPT:

ECM p253

A. Effectiveness
B. Quality
C. Responsiveness to customers
D. Innovation

A

A. Effectiveness

253
Q

Financial measures of performance include all EXCEPT:

ECM p260/261

A. Profit ratios
B. Liquidity ratios
C. Activity ratios
D. Input ratios

A

D. Input ratios

254
Q

The purpose of devils advocacy is to identify all the reasons that might make the preferred alternative ___.

ECM p167

A. Unacceptable
B. Unattainable
C. Implausible
D. Unprofitable

A

A. Unacceptable

255
Q

__ is defined as “norms that are considered to be central to the functioning of society and social life”

ECM p138

A. Folkways
B. Myths
C. Valence
D. Mores

256
Q

Time horizons on plans: Most organizations have an annual planning cycle that is usually linked to the ____.

ECM p191

A. Annual workshop
B. Annual financial budget
C. Annual benefits year
D. Annual tax cycle

A

B. Annual financial budget

257
Q

__ is someone responsible for managing a specialist function, such as finance or marketing.

ECM p235

A. Line manager
B. Specialist manager
C. Staff manager
D. Divisional manager

A

C. Staff manager

258
Q

At the ___ stage, managers use the feedforward control to anticipate problems before they arise so problems do not occur later during the conversion process.

ECM p254

A. Input
B. Conversion
C. Output
D. Final

259
Q

Of the five stages of group development, which of the following is not a listed stage?

ECM p364

A. Forming
B. Adjusting
C. Norming
D. Adjourning

A

B. Adjusting

*Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing & Adjourning

260
Q

In regards to group conformity and deviance, a group needs a certain level of deviance to ensure that ________ norms are discarded and replaced with _________ ones.

ECM p367

A. unacceptable, acceptable
B. unethical, ethical
C. dysfunctional, functional
D. non-working, working

A

C. dysfunctional, functional

261
Q

Which of the following is not a major consequence of group cohesiveness?

ECM p368

A. Level of group identity
B. Level of conformity to group norms
C. Level of participation within the group
D. Emphasis on group goal, accomplishment

A

A. Level of group identity

262
Q

Of the four factors that lead to group cohesiveness, which one is not correct?

ECM p370-372

A. Success
B. Group size
C. Effectively managed diversity
D. Effectively managed goals

A

D. Effectively managed goals

*4th = Group Identity & Healthy Competition

263
Q

The system, which was named Business Chemistry, defines ways in which people work. Which of the following is NOT a defined way?

ECM p371

A. Pioneers
B. Guardians
C. Drivers
D. Instigators

A

D. Instigators
*4th = Integrators

264
Q

Social loafing can be reduced by all of the following, except.

ECM p374-5

A. Make individual contributions to a group identifiable
B. Ensure group members are conforming to the norms of the group
C. Emphasize the valuable contributions of individual members
D. Keep group size and at an appropriate level

A

B. Ensure group members are conforming to the norms of the group

265
Q

In the HRM, performance appraisal and feedback component is kind of a ___________ that can be used with management by objectives.

ECM p387

A. evaluation system
B. motivating system
C. reward system
D. control system

A

D. control system

266
Q

________ forecasts estimate the qualifications and numbers of employees an organization will need, given its goals and strategies.

ECM p390

A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Future
D. None of the above

267
Q

________ forecasts estimate the availability and qualifications of current employees now and in the future, as well as the supply of qualified workers in the external labor market.

ECM p390

A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Future
D. None of the above

268
Q

Which of the following is not a guideline for giving effective performance feedback that contributes to employee motivation, and performance?

ECM p404

A. Approach performance appraisal as an exercise in problem-solving and solution finding, not criticizing
B. Express confidence in employees ability to improve
C. Praise instances of high-performance and areas of a job in which a worker excels
D. Include personal criticisms and treat employees with respect

A

D. Include personal criticisms and treat employees with respect

269
Q

There are principles, in what has been described as “digital body language”, in regards to online behaviors. Which of the following is not one of those principles of behavior?

ECM p417

A. Value others visibly
B. Use care in communicating
C. Managers and employees should collaborate well
D. Make an effort to connect ‘offline’

A

D. Make an effort to connect ‘offline’

*4th = communicators need to foster and show trust

270
Q

Communication does not take place unless a __________ understanding is reached.

ECM p418

A. clear
B. concise
C. common
D. customary

271
Q

What is identified as a critical point in communication?

ECM p420

A. transmission
B. encoding
C. noise
D. decoding

A

D. decoding
“make sense of the message”

272
Q

_____________ communication builds, trust and report, so it motivates employees, strengthens, teamwork, and stimulates creativity.

ECM p422

A. Response-oriented
B. Listener-oriented
C. Question-oriented
D. Receiver-oriented

A

C. Question-oriented

273
Q

Which type of communication media (medium) that is highest in information richness?

ECM p424

A. Impersonal written communication.
B. Personally addressed written communication
C. Spoken communication electronically
D. Face-to-face communication

A

D. Face-to-face communication

274
Q

Which of the following is not one of the seven communication skills for managers as senders of messages?

ECM p430

A. Send messages that are clear and complete
B. Using medium that the receiver monitors
C. Filter messages and limit distortion
D. Ensure that a feedback mechanism is built into messages

A

C. Filter messages and limit distortion

• encode messages and symbols that the receiver understands.
• Select the median that is appropriate for the message
• Avoid filtering and information distortion
• provide accurate information to ensure that misleading rumors are not spread

275
Q

Which of the following is not one of the communication skills for managers as receivers?

ECM p433

A. Be patient
B. Pay attention
C. Be empathetic
D. Be a good listener

A

A. Be patient

276
Q

Which of the following is not one of the stages of production?

ECM p442

A. Acquisition of inputs
B. Research and development
C. Control of conversion processes
D. Disposal of goods and services

A

B. Research and development

277
Q

Accuracy and reliability determine the ________ of information.

ECM p443

A. usefulness
B. applicability
C. quality
D. dependability

A

C. quality

278
Q

Which of the following is not used to determine the usefulness of information?

ECM p444

A. Timeliness
B. Relevance
C. Accuracy
D. Completeness

A

C. Accuracy

*4th = quality

279
Q

Managers need information for all of the following reasons, except?

ECM p445

A. To communicate up the hierarchy
B. To make affective decisions
C. To control activities of the organization
D. To coordinate the activities of the organization

A

A. To communicate up the hierarchy

280
Q

CRM systems have interconnected components. which of the following is not one of those components?

ECM p452

A. Sales and selling
B. Marketing
C. Customer satisfaction
D. After-sales service and support

A

C. Customer satisfaction

281
Q

Which of the following is not a facilities layout production model?

ECM p457

A. Product layout
B. Maneuverable layout
C. Process layout
D. Fixed-position layout

A

B. Maneuverable layout

282
Q

Because people often respond well to being given greater autonomy and responsibility, the use of ____________ can increase productivity and efficiency.

ECM p459

A. A Task Force
B. empowered self managed teams
C. empowered work teams
D. diverse work groups

A

B. empowered self managed teams

283
Q

Which of the following is not a way to improve efficiency in the manufacturing process?

ECM p462

A. Improve quality.
B. Use process re-engineering
C. Adopt flexible manufacturing technologies
D. Establish and maintain high levels of inventory

A

D. Establish and maintain high levels of inventory

284
Q

Regarding attributes of useful information, ___ and ____ determine the QUALITY of information.

ECM p443

A. accuracy; strength
B. accuracy: reliability
C. accuracy; specificity
D. accuracy; precision

A

B. accuracy: reliability

285
Q

Regarding completeness of information, information that is COMPLETE gives managers all the information they need to exercise control, achieve coordination, or make a/an ____

ECM p444

A. Effective decision
B. Choice to delegate
C. Request for additional information
D. Response when required

A

A. Effective decision

286
Q

Which one of the following is not a rule for ethical decision making listed in the book?

A. Utilitarian rule.
B. Moral rights rule.
C. Justice rule.
D. Common-sense rule.

ECM p087

A

D. Common-sense rule.

*4th = practical rule