Criminal Justice Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

You are practicing for a role you hope to occupy before you occupy it, sociologist refer to this as ________________.

A. Modeling behavior
B. Socialized behavior
C. Anticipatory socialization
D. Ethical socialization

A

C. Anticipatory socialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Members of groups, even in small, homogeneous societies, distinguish rules along the certain lines. Which of the following is NOT one of the lines followed?

A. Morality
B. Ethical
C. Etiquette
D. Religion

A

B. Ethical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What definition of morality do the following statement describe: “morality” refers to a code of conduct that would be accepted by anyone who meets certain intellectual and volitional conditions, especially the condition of being rational.

CJE p6

A. Literal sense
B. Normative sense
C. Relative sense
D. Descriptive sense

A

B. Normative sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is not a stage in the occupational career of the criminal justice practitioner?

A. Indoctrination
B. Encounter
C. Choice
D. Metamorphosis

A

A. Indoctrination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Punishing minor violations of the law deters prospective offenders from engaging in more serious types of crimes describes what policing model?

A. Crime Control model
B. Community policing model
C. Due Process model
D. Broken window model

A

D. Broken window model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which ethical system is associated with saying that moral behavior arises from enlightened self-interest?

A. Virtue ethics
B. Deontological ethics
C. Utilitarian ethics
D. Ethical egoism

A

D. Ethical egoism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

______________ , morality must focus on the potential effects of individual actions because, in a given set of circumstances, it is the “likely effects” that determine whether the behavior is right or wrong.

A. Act Utilitarians
B. Ethical egoists
C. Narcissist
D. Rule Utilitrians

A

A. Act Utilitarians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____________ are saying that following rules helps ensure the maximum good (utility).

A. Act Utilitarian
B. Kantian Ethicists
C. Rule Utilitarians
D. Ethical Egoists

A

C. Rule Utilitarians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In Kantian ethics, a ___________ is morally permissible only if it could be willed as a universal law. If it fails this test, then it is morally impermissible for you to act on it.

A. Imperative
B. Maxim
C. Law
D. Belief

A

B. Maxim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is not one of the objections to the Modified Divine Theory of ethics?

A. Omnipotence objection
B. Omnibenevolence objection
C. Divine theory objection
D. Religious Pluralism Objection

A

C. Divine Theory Objection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

From ancient times through the Enlightenment, _________ ethics was the preeminent system of ethics in Western philosophy.

A. Divine Command Theory
B. Kantian
C. Virtue
D. Teological

A

C. Virtue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At the core of virtue ethics are three important concepts:

They are?

A

arête (virtue)
phronesis (practical wisdom)
eudaemonia (flourishing or happiness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Moral dilemmas have certain shared characteristics; which of the following is not one of the characteristics?

A. Moral agent present
B. Moral impairative
C. Possibility of harm occurring
D. A decision that has implications for a agent and others

A

B. Moral imperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Within the categories of Moral Dilemmas, the story and example given in, “Sophie’s Choice” illustrates a(n) _____________ dilemma.

A. Self-Imposed
B. Ontological
C. Epistemic
D. Obligation-based

A

B. Ontological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

_____________ consists of rules or principles taken from several systems of ethics, and combined into an overarching view of morality.

A. Complex-Identity morality
B. Bilateral morality
C. Imperative morality
D. Common-sense morality

A

D. Common-sense morality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Among the roles that practitioners play in the criminal justice process, _________ wield both the most power and are the most visible.

A. Police Officers
B. Prosecutors
C. Judges
D. Corrections officers

A

C. Judges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Normative ethics involves making assessments about _____________ (whether of behavior or of character).

A. Ethics
B. Judgements
C. Morality
D. Dilemmas

A

C. Morality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is one of the most important theories ever developed in moral psychology, by Lawrence Kohlberg?

A. Broken Windows Theory
B. Crime Control Theory
C. Theory of Moral Reasoning
D. Theory of Moral Development

A

D. Theory of Moral Development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Our capacity for _______________, guided by our emotions, can address increasingly complex moral situations, as we have learned from previous experience.

A. Moral insights
B. Moral judgement
C. Moral theory
D. Moral learning

A

B. Moral judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The moral agent is supremely confident in his or her judgement but is unable to articulate reasons to support it, describes what process of moral reasoning?

A. Moral ineffectiveness
B. Moral dumbfoundedness
C. Moral deliberation
D. Moral reason affect

A

B. Moral dumbfoundedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____________________, can influence not only my moral judgements but also my feelings about morality itself, which leads to moral growth.

A. Law of noncontradiction
B. Moral reasoning
C. Consistency reasoning
D. Moral dumbfoundedness

A

C. Consistency reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“Woman’s” morality has been described as a(n) ____________ and suggests that the source of morality is found in the fundamental relationships and dependencies in which humans are involved.

A. Feminine ethics
B. Ethic of care
C. Maternal ethics
D. Ethic of relationship

A

B. Ethic of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most common form of moral reasoning is _____________________, where one attempts to establish truth of a particular moral claim on the basis of one or more general principles.

A. Moral deliberation
B. Moral responsibility
C. Moral discussion
D. Moral cogitation

A

A. Moral deliberation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is described as a set of rules that philosophers and others have developed to help guide our thinking, not the content of what we are thinking about?

A. Consistency of reasoning
B. Normative principles
C. Principles of moral reasoning
D. Derivative moral judgement

A

C. Principles of moral reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A stated claim in the form of a general moral principle (GMP) and a set of factual claims (FCs) - that in combination are called _________________.

A. Moral Dilemma Claims
B. Moral Reasoning Claims
C. Normative claims
D. Identity errors

A

C. Normative claims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

_______________ relates to maintaining a consistent perspective when resolving dilemmas.

A. Unwarranted assumptions
B. Double standards
C. Mine-is-better thinking
D. Consistency in thinking

A

D. Consistency in thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If you are unable to articulate a substantive and reasonable objection, you’re potentially engaging in _________________.

A. Double standards
B. Unwarranted assumptions
C. Moral prudentialism
D. Mine-is-better thinking

A

D. Mine is better thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which specific rule of moral reasoning to avoid errors applies to the following statement: either selectively considering or twisting evidence to serve our interests.

A. Moral conventionalism
B. Hasty conclusions
C. Double standards
D. Oversimplifications

A

C. Double standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The solution for ________________ is being careful. When “boiling down” the case, don’t “water it down”.

A. Tu Quoque
B. Hasty conclusions
C. Slippery slopes
D. Oversimplification

A

D. Oversimplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In ethics, snap judgements are known as _________________ and involve one rendering a judgement about the ethics of behavior without fully or carefully examining all aspects of the case.

A. Hasty conclusions
B. To Quoque
C. Oversimplification
D. None of the above

A

A. Hasty conclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This error often occurs when the accused argues that his or her accusers are guilty of the same wrongdoing and therefore have no legitimate basis for their accusations.

A. Moral conventionalism
B. Moral prudentialism
C. To Quoque
D. None of the above

A

C. To Quoque (“you also”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This error in moral reasoning says that morality is a product of numbers: if a large portion of one’s group is engaging in a particular behavior, that alone makes the behavior acceptable.

A. Error of moral prudentialism
B. Error of moral legalism
C. Error of moral conventionalism
D. None of the above

A

C. Error of moral conventionalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Proponents of Ethical Egoism do not recognize _________________ as an error in moral reasoning.

A. Moral prudentialism
B. Moral legalism
C. Moral conventionalism
D. None of the above

A

A. Moral prudentialism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

______________ is considered an error in reasoning, due to the person making the argument usually does not establish that the undesirable consequences must occur.

A. Red herrings
B. Oversimplification
C. Slippery Slope
D. Hasty conclusions

A

C. Slippery slope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A(n) _____________ involves appealing to certain popular prejudices and biases shared by members of a group to inflame prejudices and lead members to accept a certain moral conclusion.

A. Moral legalism
B. Red Herrings
C. Argument to the people
D. Moral conventionalism

A

C. Argument to the people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The problem of ______________ in moral reasoning is that diverts attention from the real issue(s).

A. Slippery slopes
B. Oversimplifications
C. Red Herrings
D. Double standards

A

C. Red Herrings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

There are VII items to fill-in on the Template for Analysis:
Which item is missing from the following list: Facts, Details, Issue, Ideals, Obligations, ____________, Conclusion.

A. Results
B. Assumptions
C. Consequences
D. Distortion

A

C. Consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Using the Template for Analysis, when you identify the ___________, you have articulated the target of your analysis, around which you will build evidence to support your conclusion.

A. Facts
B. Issue
C. Ideals
D. Obligations

A

B. Issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

While _______________ suggest unattainability, they nonetheless are culturally identified goals that members of the group strive to achieve.

A. Obligations
B. Consequences
C. Moral ideals
D. None of the above

A

C. Moral ideals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

________________ identify the optimal conditions under which choices are made confer how we should behave or how a certain goal is achieved.

A. Substantive moral ideal
B. Procedural moral ideal
C. A and B
D. None of the above

A

B. Procedural moral ideal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When it comes to obligations, regardless of the degree of ___________ that develops, with relationships come responsibilities.

A. Assessment
B. Intimacy
C. Nature
D. Respect

A

B. Intimacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

___________ are types of obligations that involve strict adherence to promises made, such as when one signs a contract and may have not only moral implications if they are violated, but legal implications as well.

A. Implied obligations
B. Substantive obligations
C. Fidelity obligations
D. None of the above

A

C. Fidelity Obligations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of obligation is described by the following example?: You have an obligation to help a sibling in a time of need because of the relationship between the two of you.

A. Nonfidelity obligation
B. Fidelity obligation
C. Substantive obligation
D. Exclusionary obligation

A

A. Nonfidelity obligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The potential outcomes of our behavior are the ______________ they may generate and should be included in any assessment you undertake of the ethics of behavior.

A. Obligations
B. Ideals
C. Consequences
D. Reasoning

A

C. Consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A typical ______________ analysis of the ethics of behavior emphasizes the importance of the short-term consequences while ignoring possible long-term effects.

A. Rule Utilitarians
B. Ideal Moral reasoning
C. Act Utilitarians
D. Effects assessment

A

C. Act Utilitarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The following (3) tenets describe which type of consequence?: (1) the good consequences are inseparable from the bad, (2) the good consequences outweigh the bad, and (3) the bad consequences are not directly intended.

A. Implicit Opposites
B. Principle of the Double Effect
C. Indirect consequences
D. Direct consequences

A

B. Principles of the Double Effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

You should consider the ________ as a guide that helps you proceed through the process of moral reasoning with the goal of reaching a solid conclusion.

A. Template
B. Framework
C. Structure of Reasoning
D. Ethical guidelines

A

A. Template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Police ethics is a multilayered phenomenon that should be approached as such: it involves different elements, each of which contributes a piece to the larger puzzle of police ethics. Which of the following is not one of those elements?

A. Communities
B. Politicians
C. Individuals
D. Organizations

A

B. Politicians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

________ and legitimacy connect the police with those being policed, and as recent years have shown, when those connections fray or are severed, the community distrust the police and may outright reject the ______________ of the department.

A. Trust, confidence
B. Confidence, importance
C. Validity, legitimacy
D. Trust, legitimacy

A

D. Trust, legitimacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The issues and dilemmas confronting police officers tend to arise from these sources, except:

A. Recruitment, selection, training
B. Functions of police
C. Culture of policing
D. Tactics of policing

A

B. Functions of policing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The problem is that unethical (or even illegal) behavior by police officers is too often attributed to ________________.

A. Egocentrism
B. Lowered standards
C. Rotten apples
D. Corruption

A

C. Rotten apples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Police departments, because they are complex organizations, have a ___________ and a ___________ that influence the behavior of the individuals working in them.

A. Culture, demeanor
B. Design, structure
C. Climate, standard
D. Structure, culture

A

D. Structure, culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In the ‘Rotten Barrel Theory’, barrels can indeed become rotten if officers don’t regard certain forms of misconduct as serious, ________________ , or silently tolerate misconduct by peers.

A. perceive the misconduct as normative behavior
B. regard discipline as too severe
C. regard discipline as too lenient
D. B and C

A

D. B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Scholars suggest that community expectations about police departments’ integrity and ethics exert pressure on police organizations which affects a departments’ ability to ________, _________, or ________ questionable behavior by officers.

A. Expose, defend, correct
B. Resist, confront, combat
C. Tolerate, accept, defend
D. Defend, deny, accept

A

B. resist, confront, combat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When police recruitment goes about screening in those who have both the necessary skill sets and the proper values, they are applying ____________________.

A. Values-predisposition perspective
B. Value-seeking perspective
C. Value-neutral perspective
D. None of the above

A

A. Values-predisposition perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What two types of content was discovered through analyzing academy war stories told to trainees by instructors?

A. Funny, scary
B. True, false
C. Manifest, latent
D. None of the above

A

C. Manifest, Latent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

____________ are symbols of power that provoke challenges, criticism, and taunts from citizens, especially juveniles and minorities.

A. Badge and gun
B. Rifle and shotgun
C. Uniform and gun
D. Lights and sirens

A

C. Uniform and gun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The stage of the Occupational Career that the officer adopts the self-conception of “cop”.

A. Encounter
B. Introduction
C. Metamorphosis
D. Choice

A

C. Metamorphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The Hypothetical Imperative

Kant distinguished the categorical imperative, which he termed a ___ that guides behavior, from the hypothetical imperative, which he termed a ___ that guides behavior.

A. Formal principle; Material principle
B. Material principle; Formal principle

A

A. Formal principle; material principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Police Culture is a(n) ____________ that developed as officers, individually and collectively, confronted the situations they did, including the ever-present potential of violence against them.

A. Occupational norm
B. Rational response
C. Occupational phenomenon
D. Foundational belief

A

C. Occupational phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Police officers share a culture, which includes _______________ into which they are socialized.

A. A set of values, attitudes, and behavioral norms
B. A set of rules, beliefs and sop’s
C. a set of behaviors, reactions and compromises
D. None of the above

A

A. A set of values, attitudes, and behavioral norms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Steven Ellwanger identified the “core values” of the police culture. Which of the following is not one of those identified core values.

A. Using force
B. Loyalty
C. Marksmanship
D. Discretion

A

C. Marksmanship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The teleological line of reasoning regarding ‘gratuities’ police officers could receive: acceptance of gratuities is not wrong in itself, but the possible ___________ of bias, favoritism, and bribery are overwhelmingly negative.

A. Influence
B. Consequences
C. Accepting
D. Normalizing

A

B. Consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Regarding gratuities, Kania argues that it is the intent of the ______________ that matters most and determines the ethical quality of the exchange.

A. giver
B. receiver
C. A & B
D. None of the above

A

B. receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

According to Sherman, ___________ found in the officer’s work environment produce opportunities and incentives that encourage unethical behavior.

A. Moral experiences
B. Contingencies
C. Apologia
D. Stages

A

B. Contingencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In the final component of Sherman’s “moral career”, he describes a progression from being an ethical police officer to “becoming bent”. What is this component called?

A. Apologia
B. Stages
C. Contingencies
D. Moral experiences

A

B. Stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

__________ are among the most important intermediaries in patrol officers’ work environments.

A. Mid-Managers
B. Citizens
C. Criminal offenders
D. First-line supervisors

A

D. First-line supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Unethical and illegal police conduct is helped when formal, ___________________ break down.

A. Regulations
B. Discipline
C. Internal control mechanisms
D. Police culture

A

C. Internal control mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Ethical issues raised by the use of Preemployment Psychological Evaluation (PPE) relate to the following issues: which issue is not one that is described?

A. Informed consent by the candidate
B. Limitations on the evaluation
C. Applicability to police functions
D. Normative standards for psychological testing

A

C. Applicability to police functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is a downside to using sting operations as a police tactic to “fight crime”?

A. High risk to Officers involved
B. Raising issues of entrapment
C. Bolstering arrest statistics
D. A & B

A

D. A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

To decide if entrapment has occurred, courts use two “tests”. Which of these tests, does the following sentence describe:
The court focuses on the actions and intent of the police.

A. Subjective test for entrapment
B. Objective test for entrapment
C. A & B
D. None of the above

A

B. Objective test for entrapment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The Reid Technique consists of three components, which of the components listed below is not one that is described.

A. A behavioral-analysis interview with the arrestee
B. Interrogation of the arrestee
C. Factual analysis
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The most important part of the Reid Technique is a structured interrogation. How many steps should only occur if the PI is “reasonably certain” of the arrestee’s guilt?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

A

C. 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Of the nine steps in the structured interrogation of the Reid Technique, which of the choices describes the next to last step (step #8)?

A. Overcoming objections
B. Presenting an alternate question
C. Converting an oral confession to a written confession
D. Having the arrestee orally relate various details of the offense.

A

D. Having the arrestee orally relate various details of the offense.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the three types of confessions that Wrightsmann and Kassin identified are obtained not as a result of police pressure to confess?

A. Coerced-internalized false confessions
B. Voluntary False confessions
C. Coerced-compliant false confessions
D. None of the above

A

B. Voluntary False confessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Escaping an aversive situation, avoiding explicit or implied threats, or gaining a reward describes which false confession typology?

A. Voluntary false confession
B. Coerced-internalized false confession
C. Coerced-compliant false confession
D. None of the above

A

C. Coerced-compliant false confession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Confessors of this typology of false confessions evidence what Kassin labeled “memory distrust syndrome”.

A. Voluntary False Confessions
B. Coerced-compliant False Confessions
C. Coreced-internalized false confessions
D. None of the above

A

C. Coreced-internalized false confessions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Police perjury can be traced to several contributing factors. Which of the following is not a contributing factor?

A. The “blue wall of silence”
B. The power of the noble cause
C. The political pressure placed on policing agencies to deliver results
D. None of the above

A

C. The political pressure placed on policing agencies to deliver results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Researchers have identified three common types of lies. Which of the following is not an identified lie?

A. White (prosocial) lies
B. Black (antisocial) lies
C. Blue (ingroup) lies
D. Red (intrinsic) lies

A

D. Red (intrinsic) lies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Social scientists speak of the current historical period as one dominated by the “surveillance society” or the “____________________”.

A. Big brother society
B. Maximum security society
C. Eye in the sky society
D. Systematic surveillance society

A

B. Maximum security society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Surveillance focuses on gathering details about people, and it is also _________________ and intentional.

A. Intrusive
B. Systematic
C. Covert
D. Purposeful

A

B. Systematic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Implicit bias does not require __________; it only requires knowledge of a stereotype to produce discriminatory actions.

A. Racism
B. Animus
C. Thought
D. Action

A

B. Animus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Selective thinking where one tends to notice evidence confirming one’s beliefs and ignores contradictory evidence; describes which bias?

A. Explicit bias
B. Implicit bias
C. Confirmation bias
D. Post hoc bias

A

C. Confirmation bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Kevin Macnish listed seven guiding principles for surveillance to be ethical, based on the guiding principles from _______________.

A. Ethical Surveillance theory
B. Proportionality theory
C. Just war theory
D. Crime Control theory

A

C. Just war theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Of Kevin Macnish seven guiding principles for surveillance to be ethical, which is characterized by the following description: surveillance should not be undertaken for salacious, trivial, or ignoble causes.

A. Correct intent
B. Proportionality
C. Last resort
D. Just cause

A

D. Just cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The courtroom workgroup consists of members who work to process and dispose of criminal cases each day in courts across the nation. Which of the following is not a member of this workgroup.

A. Judges
B. Bailiffs
C. Prosecutors
D. Defense attorneys

A

B. Bailiffs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The courtroom workgroup and the _________________ it fosters constitutes the reality in courtrooms everywhere.

A. Adversarial justice
B. Negotiated justice
C. Ethical justice
D. None of the above

A

B. Negotiated justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The courtroom workgroup achieves several goals, as they work collaboratively to dispose of cases. Which of the following is not one of those goals?

A. Efficiency
B. Shared power
C. Ethical justice
D. Reduced uncertainty at sentencing

A

C. Ethical justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Within courtroom workgroups, the greater the _____________ of members, the greater the cooperation among them.

A. Familiarity
B. Similarity
C. Stability
D. All of the above

A

B. Similarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Within the ABA’s Standards for Prosecution Function - 13 “best practices”, Part 1 makes it clear that prosecutors occupy three roles: which of the following is not one of those roles?

A. Zealots for justice
B. Officers of the court
C. Administrators of Justice
D. Zealous advocates for the people

A

A. Zealots for justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Part III of the ABA’s Standards, covers prosecutorial relationships, and it stresses that prosecutors should develop strong relationships with the listed parties based on certain characteristics. Which of the following is not a basis for relationship?

A. Legal rules
B. Professional courtesy
C. Trust
D. Sound judgement

A

B. Professional courtesy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

In Part V of the ABA standards for the prosecution function; if the prosecutor has “_____________” with a defendant’s mental competence, those concerns should be expressed to defense counsel and, if necessary, to the court.

A. Reasonable doubt
B. Reasonable suspicion
C. Reasonable concerns
D. Reasonable certainty

A

C. Reasonable Concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Prosecutors engage in misconduct for two reasons. Which of the following is not one of those reasons?

A. It works
B. It goes undetected
C. Sanctions for engaging in it are minimal
D. None of the above

A

B. It goes undetected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Once an error of prosecutorial misconduct occurred, the appeals court uses one of two approaches to investigate the impact of the PM on the case. Which of the following is not an approach used?

A. Harmless error approach
B. Effect-on-the-verdict approach
C. Guilt-based approach
D. None if the above

A

A. Harmless error approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The standards for defense attorneys, as listed in the ABA’s Model Standards, are ___________, meaning, they are ideals that defense attorneys should strive to achieve; they are not fixed rules.

A. Goal driven
B. Aspirational
C. Guiding principles
D. Interpretive

A

B. Aspirational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

In the ABA’s function of defense counsel, it says that defense counsel should engage in efforts to ___________ and __________ the administration of justice.

A. Confirm, protect
B. Reform, improve
C. Expose, protect
D. Improve, protect

A

B. Reform, improve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

CJE pg 7

Normative ethics tries to develop standards for morally acceptable conduct and uses ___ to justify the standards.

A. common sense
B. rational and moral agents
C. moralism
D. logic and reason

A

D. Logic and reason

98
Q

CJE page 9

An inherit capacity to show benevolence towards others is called ___.

A. Psychological altruism
B. Psychological egoism
C. Moral relativism
D. Absolutist mentality

A

A. Psychological altruism

99
Q

In the ABA’s Standards for Defense Counsel, Part IX of the standards offers guidance for defense counsel relating to ____________.

A. Attorney/Client privilege
B. Conduct during litigation
C. Relationships with clients
D. Post-Conviction Appeals

A

D. Post-Conviction appeals

100
Q

These types of attorneys “employ whatever tactics are necessary for victory and believe they aren’t accountable for the tactics because they are being used to “zealously” represent clients.

A. Competent attorneys
B. Hard core litigators
C. Rambo attorneys
D. Zealous attorneys

A

C. Rambo attorneys

101
Q

Within the Canons of the ABA’s Model Code of Judicial Conduct, it says in Canon 1 that judicial behavior shall promote core ideals of the judiciary. Which of the following is not an example given?

A. Impartiality
B. Inclination
C. Integrity
D. Independence

A

B. Inclination

102
Q

Between 1990 and 2016, the total correctional population grew by about 51%. It is about 6.15 million people that are in prison, jail, probation or parole. On average, about 1 in every ____ adults in this country was under some form of correctional supervision.

A. 25
B. 38
C. 50
D. 78

103
Q

When one considers legal punishment, one should understand that it is both _____________ and _____________.

A. Costly, ineffective
B. Effective, expensive
C. Burdensome, condemnatory
D. Unethical, ineffective

A

C. Burdensome, condemnatory

104
Q

Consequentialist believe there are three socially desirable ends of legal punishment. Which of the following is not one of the three?

A. Punitive
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation

A

A. Punitive

105
Q

From 1972 to April 2018, a total of ________ offenders in 27 states who had been sentenced to death were exonerated and released from death row.

A. 150
B. 162
C. 200
D. 15

106
Q

Which state leads the nation with 538 executions between 1976 and year-end of 2017?

A. Missouri
B. Oklahoma
C. Texas
D. Florida

107
Q

The United Nations General Assembly passed its Universal Declaration of Human Rights, and in this Declaration lists _____ basic rights that all people enjoy.

A. 10
B. 25
C. 30
D. 45

108
Q

At the core of this doctrine is the notion that punishment is an imposition on, not a benefit gained by, offenders.

A. Penal equality
B. Inmate reform
C. Rights of the incarcerated
D. Penal austerity

A

D. Penal Austerity

109
Q

Within the Occupational Culture of Correctional Officers, a typology of CO’s are identified. Which of the following is not a listed typology?

A. Loners
B. Hard Liners
C. People Workers
D. Sympathetic officers

A

D. Sympathetic officers

110
Q

The simulation conducted in 1971, by Phillip Zimbardo, that vividly revealed the effects of imprisonment on guards and inmates alike is known as?

A. Correctional Ethics study
B. Prison Corruption experiment
C. Stanford Prison experiment
D. Misuse of authority study

A

C. Stanford Prison experiment

111
Q

As described by Zimbardo, Situational dynamics commonly found in prisons can influence negative, unethical or even illegal behavior. Which of the following is a dynamic described by Zimbardo?

A. Bystander Apathy
B. Group Conformity
C. Deindividuation
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

112
Q

In a _____, while there is the same conflict between two (or more) obligations, neither is overridden.

A. Ontological dilemma
B. Epistemic dilemma
C. Self-imposed dilemma
D. Other-imposed dilemma

A

A. Ontological dilemma

113
Q

Within sentencing provisions, the allowance of attachment of additional sanctions that include house arrest, electronic monitoring, residential treatment plans and “boot camps” for juveniles are known as ____________________ .

A. Primary sanctions
B. Ethical sanctions
C. Intermediate sanctions
D. Community based sanctions

A

C. Intermediate sanctions

114
Q

Which Supreme Court case from 1916 set a precedent for creating probation statutes across the country?

A. US v Townsville Corrections
B. ex parte United States
C. US v Kinghts
D. None of the above

A

B. ex parte United States (242 US 27)

115
Q

The current model of probation, “neighborhood-based supervision” stresses ____________ based supervision of offenders and establishing meaningful and professional relationships with them.

A. Interactive
B. Zip-code
C. Honor
D. Stringent

A

B. Zip-code

116
Q

Because Electronic Monitoring allows tracking of the physical location of offenders, it is considered a ____________ intermediate sanction.

A. Punitive
B. Controlling
C. Restrictive
D. Intrusive

A

C. Restrictive

117
Q

The Supreme Court ruled in 1993, that judges are responsible for determining whether the reasoning or methodology underlying forensic testimony is __________________.

A. Admissible as evidence
B. Scientifically valid
C. Reasonably prudent
D. All of the above

A

B. Scientifically valid

118
Q

The American Academy of Forensic Sciences identifies 10 disciplines as constituting the Forensic Sciences. John Barbara created a classification scheme for forensic science disciplines that encompasses four broad areas. Which of the following is not one of his four areas?

A. Comparative disciplines
B. Analytical disciplines
C. Crime Scene Investigations
D. Pathological disciplines

A

D. Pathological disciplines

*4th = digital forensics

119
Q

_________ violations occur in forensic labs when practitioners fail to follow established protocols for analyzing evidence.

A. Procedural
B. Legal
C. Ethical
D. Obligatory

A

C. Ethical

120
Q

Within Forensic Science, whether a discipline is repeatable, reproducible, and accurate describes ______________________.

A. Validity as applied
B. Foundational validity
C. Scientific validity
D. Validity of science

A

B. Foundational validity

121
Q

Of the explanations in social sciences, which is described as focusing on a particular case to fully understand and document what occurred in a single instance.

A. Idiographic explanation
B. Nomothetic explanation
C. Probabilistic explanation
D. None of the above

A

A. Idiographic explanation

122
Q

In Human Subject Involved Research (HSIR), The Belmont Report provides “basic ethical principles” governing HSIR. Which of the following is not one of those guiding principles?

A. Justice
B. Honesty
C. Beneficence
D. Respect for persons

A

B. Honesty

123
Q

The Belmont Report presented applications in practice, including those relating to ____________, assessing risks and benefits, and ___________________.

A. Confidentiality, protections
B. Informed consent, selecting participants
C. Compensation, recovery
D. None of the above

A

B. Informed consent, selecting participants

124
Q

Crucial to ensuring that human subjects are respected and aware of possible benefits and risks is __________________.

A. Transparency
B. Inferred consent
C. Honesty
D. Informed consent

A

D. Informed consent

125
Q

As a result of the 1991 adoption of the “Common Rule” into the Code of Federal Regulations, 45 CFR 46, a total of ____ federal agencies agreed to follow the Common Rule.

A. 10
B. 18
C. 23
D. 27

126
Q

Institutional Review Boards (IRB’s) that are responsible for approving HSIR, typically consist of a panel containing a minimum of ____ researches (the panel may be larger).

A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8

127
Q

_____________ can reduce stress and other harms caused to subjects involved in social science research.

A. Informed consent
B. Transparency
C. Debriefing
D. None of the above

A

C. Debriefing

128
Q

which one of these is not part of the template for analyzing and reaching a conclusion about ethics of behavior?

A. Facts
B. Obligations
C. Ideals
C. Summary

A

C. Summary

129
Q

David Klinger developed a/an __ perspective that explained the influence of neighborhood based factors on officer behavior.

A. “neighborhood rights”
B. “element of choice”
C. “ecology of patrol”
D. “environmental choice”

A

C. “ecology of patrol”

130
Q

Regarding the rotten barrels theory, this culture is created by ___ an imposed ___ through the organizational ranks.

A. upper management / downward
B. middle management / downward
C. supervisors / upward
D. police officers / upward

A

A . upper management / downward

131
Q

Many of the institutions within which social scientists work have increasingly developed a(n) __________________ that stresses obtaining extramural funding.

A. Corporate engagement
B. Commercialized culture
C. Entrepreneurial culture
D. Enterprise culture

A

D. Enterprise culture

132
Q

As part of an annual ethics review process, investigators have to annually update all financial interests over _________ that developed during the previous 12 months.

A. $1000
B. $2500
C. $5000
D. $10,000

133
Q

One who studies people in their own environments using methods such as participant observation and face-to-face interviews.

A. Social scientist
B. Urbanologist
C. Ethnographers
D. Environmental researcher

A

C. Ethnographers

134
Q

Those risks embedded in the larger setting, say, the inner city of Detroit or a conflict zone in the Middle East.

A. Inherent risk
B. Situational risk
C. Environmental risk
D. Ambient risk

A

D. Ambient risk

135
Q

If a researcher is found to have committed scientific misconduct and is subject to debarment, the maximum amount of time the researcher can be excluded from receiving federal funding is ____.

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

A

C. 3 years

136
Q

There is a _____ limitation on bringing forward allegations of research misconduct.

A. 3 years
B. 6 years
C. 9 years
D. No time limit

A

B. 6 years

137
Q

___ found in the officers work environment produce opportunities, and incentives that unethical behavior.

A. Apologia
B. Contingencies
C. Stages
D. Moral Experiences

A

B. Contingencies

138
Q

Which one of these four is a “moral crossroad” where one is forced to decide what the way forward will look like.

A. Apologia
B. Contingencies
C. Stages
D. Moral Experiences

A

D. Moral Experiences

139
Q

Discussing the organizational environment of policing, research consistently shows it is the __ who creates the “rules of the road” for officers.

A. frontline supervisors
B. Agency culture
C. Mid-managers
D. Chief of police

CJE p167

A

D. Chief of Police

140
Q

The __ requires reviewing records of the case, to assess the factual guilt or innocence of the defendant in light of the untainted evidence in the record.

A. Guilt-based approach
B. Effect-on-the-verdict approach
C. Deceptive efforts approach
D. Common sense approach

A

A. Guilt-based approach

141
Q

Consequentialist justifications for legal punishment include three socially desirable ends of legal punishment. Which one of these is not one of those four?

A. Deterrence
B. Incapacitation
C. Rehabilitation
D. Rights of Forfeiture

A

D. Rights of Forfeiture

142
Q

regarding felony cases through the judicial system, how many are settled via negotiated plea agreements?

A. 65%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 95%

143
Q

Scholars describe jails and prisons examples of _______.

A. correctional genres
B. institutional corrections
C. alternative housing
D. absolutist methods

A

B. institutional corrections

144
Q

________ emphasized, larger organizational directives and interpersonal skills as important to being a CO. While following rules and procedures closely, they also accounted for circumstances while not straying too far from procedure to cover for themselves.

A. Rule enforcer
B. Hardliner
C. People workers
D. Synthetic officers

A

D. Synthetic officers

145
Q

According to deontological ethics, one’s ethical behavior is determined by:

A. the possible outcomes and/or consequences for one’s self.
B. the possible positive consequences for a group outweigh the possible negative consequences.
C. the obligations of one’s duty in a relationship
D. specific religious views.

A

C. the obligations of one’s duty in a relationship

146
Q

Specialized training, autonomy, and of great social value best describe which of the following?

a) profession
b) occupation
c) expert
d) job

A

a) profession

147
Q

Which of the following best defines ethics?

A. rules followed by society or a group as to what is right and wrong
B. generally uniform and abstract principles
C. general rules and statements
D. governed by social norms

A

B. generally uniform and abstract principles

148
Q

One way to “know” things is through what others know and have told us without us actually experiencing it. This is called

CJE p383

A. Agreement reality
B. Experiential reality
C. Augmented reality
D. Virtual reality

A

A. Agreement reality

149
Q

Pertaining to professional ethics, one reason why professional ethics are so important because most professionals have a __ over their clients.

A. Informational advantage
B. Technical advantage
C. Legal advantage
D. Common-sense advantage

CJE p015

A

A. Informational advantage

150
Q

Regarding the relationship between morality and ethics, while ___ tends to be fluid and variable over time and across place, ___ tends to be stable.

A. Ethics; morality
B. Ethics; values
C. Morality; ethics
D. None of the above

CJE p016

A

C. Morality, ethics

151
Q

Regarding the occupational career of the practitioner, specifically the stages of the occupational career, which stage will the individual begin experiencing a “subtle shift in values” of his or her occupational career.

A. Choice
B. Introduction
C. Encounter
D. Metamorphosis

CJE p020

A

B. Introduction

152
Q

Regarding the crime control model, and the due process model, which one of the following is not from the crime control model?

A. Police powers
B. Efficiency
C. Presumption of guilt
D. Legal guilt established

CJE p023

A

D. Legal guilt established

or established guilt

153
Q

Regarding virtue ethics, The __ person also does what is right, but does so reluctantly.

A. Temperate person
B. Continent person
C. Virtuous person
D. Prudent person

CJE p050

A

B. Continent person

154
Q

Regarding moral dilemmas in corrections, officers must constantly account for the whereabouts of the inmates since ____ is the single greatest threat to the security of the institution.

A. violence
B. firearms
C. escape
D. riots

CJE p077

155
Q

Regarding the structure of moral arguments, in general, moral arguments typically consist of three components. All of the following are components EXCEPT:

A. General moral principle.
B. Deductive analysis.
C. Factual claims.
D. Derivative moral judgment.

CJE p098

A

B. Deductive analysis

156
Q

Being aware of ___, the morally salient facts in any situation, is a crucial first step to moral reasoning.

A. Moral dilemma
B. Moral issues
C. Moral task
D. Moral problem

CJE p087

A

B. Moral issues

157
Q

Kohlberg’s Levels and Stages of Moral Reasoning has three stages. Which one of these is NOT one of them?

A. Pre-conventional Morality
B. Conventional Morality
C. Prime Conventional Morality
D. Post-conventional Morality

CJE p095

A

C. Prime Conventional Morality

158
Q

Ethics, also known as “_____”, is one of several major branches of philosophy devoted to the systematic study of what is right and wrong.

A. Moral philosophy
B. Moral code
C. Meta-morals
D. Moral relations

CJE p007

A

A. Moral Philosophy

159
Q

Regarding modern police work, Marx argues that police work fits into two dimensions, defined by (1) the nature of the ___ — deceptive and non-deceptive, and (2) the nature of the ___ — overt or covert.

A. Job; Operation
B. Operation; Job
C. Work; Situation
D. Work; Operation

CJE p180

A

D. Work; Operation

160
Q

Regarding the conditions of confinement, the conditions should not be such that the basic dignity of the inmate is jeopardized through all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Humiliation
B. Intimidation
C. Exploitation
D. Embarassment

CJE p290

A

D. Embarassment

161
Q

According to the traditional consequentialist thought, for deterrence to work, punishment must be swift, certain and severe. Swiftness is also known as:

A. Celerity
B. Urgency
C. Bolany
D. Just desserts

CJE p258

A

A. Celerity

162
Q

______ occurs when one has conflicts between two (or more) obligations and the person cannot decide which obligation is the more important under the current circumstances.

A. Ontological dilemma
B. Epistemic dilemma
C. Morphacentric dilemma
D. Out-of-bounds dilemma

CJE p065

A

B. Epistemic dilemma

163
Q

A template for analysis includes all the following except:

A. Facts
B. Details
C. Obligations
D. Responsibilities

CJE p118

A

D. Responsibilities

164
Q

Occupational culture of corrections officers: _____ were identified by Farkas as those who closely followed rules and procedures out of fear of being criticized:

A. Rule enforcers
B. Loners
C. Hard liner
D. Synthetic officers

CJE p295

165
Q

“Memory distrust syndrome” is associated with the following legal limits during interrogation:

A. Coerced-internalized false confessions
B. Coerced-compliant false confessions
C. Voluntary false confessions
D. Reid-focused confession

CJE p189

A

A. Coerced-internalized false confessions

166
Q

I don’t think it’s unfair to also accept the proposition that ___ sometimes come to believe they are “agents of good” in the criminal justice system, that their actions, and there’s alone, determine whether “justice” has been served.

A. police officers
B. prosecutors
C. judges
D. defense attorneys

CJE p225

A

B. prosecutors

167
Q

Managers can take several steps to ensure adequate tolerance of deviance in groups, so that group members are willing to deviate from dysfunctional norms, and, when deviance occurs in their group, reflect on the appropriateness of the violated norm and change the norm of necessary. Which one of the following is NOT one of the steps?

CJE p367

A. Managers can be role models for the groups
B. Managers should let employees know there are always ways to improve and replace existing norms
C. Managers can remove someone who refuses to cooperate with the norms after providing them ample opportunity to conform to the norms
D. Managers should encourage members of the group and teams to periodically assess the appropriateness of their norms

A

C. Managers can remove someone who refuses to cooperate with the norms after providing them ample opportunity to conform to the norms

168
Q

“Punishment should not be justified as a deserved evil, but rather as an attempt, by someone who cares, to improve a wayward person.”

CJE p267

A. Rights Forfeiture Theory
B. Moral Education Theory
C. Consequentialist Theory
D. Retributism Theory

A

B. Moral Education Theory

169
Q

This focuses more on questions arising from the day-to-day operations of prisons and focuses on the behavior of two key groups of practitioners, correctional officers and treatment staff.

CJE p282

A. Prisons as punishment
B. Prisons for punishment
C. Prison management
D. Prison ethical systems

A

B. Prisons for punishment

170
Q

When increased use of incarceration fails to achieve that primary goal, the solution has been to make imprisonment available to a/an ____ group of offenders while also making it harsher on inmates.

CJE p283

A. Even wider
B. More narrow
C. Isolated
D. Unorthadox

A

A. Even wider

171
Q

During the 1990s, a ___ prisons and jails movement developed in this country that sought to restrict or end inmate access to personal items, computers, weightlifting equipment, etc.

CJE p283

A. “No-games”
B. “No-bull”
C. “No-frills”
D. “No-BS”

A

C. “No-frills”

172
Q

Under the section prison AS punishment, regarding assessment of who should go to prison, using ___ criteria to predict risk would seem preferrable, since those criteria account for the fact that criminality may be a stage in, rather than a permanent feature of, an offender’s life.

CJE p288

A. Psychological-based
B. Offender-based
C. Evidence-based
D. Profile-based

A

C. Evidence-based

173
Q

Regarding conditions of confinement, the doctrine of ______, or the view that conditions inside prison should be no better than those an inmate would experience on the outside.

CJE p289

A. Penal enhancement
B. Penal austerity
C. Penal dichotomy
D. Penal norms

A

B. Penal austerity

174
Q

Regarding conditions of confinement, the conditions of confinement should not be such that the basic dignity of the inmate is jeopardized through humiliation, intimidation or ____.

CJE p290

A. Exploitation
B. Embarassment
C. Suffering
D. Ridicule

A

A. Exploitation

175
Q

Regarding Prisons as Punishment and Abolition, McLeod states that “..abolition involves developing a network of alternative ______ that are not penal in nature and an ethic that recognizes the moral wrong inherent with any action that includes caging, chaining, or controlling people by penal force.

CJE p291

A. Systematic framework
B. Criminal justice framework
C. Regulatory framework
D. Institutional framework

A

C. Regulatory framework

176
Q

A position one occupies in a hierarchy of such positions, each of which has attached to it different levels of power and prestige. It can be ascribed or achieved.

CJE p4

A. role
B. position
C. status
D. place

177
Q

The study of ethics is divided into three major areas. Which of the following is not one of the three areas?

CJE p7

A. Metaethics
B. Experienced ethics
C. Normative ethics
D. Applied ethics

A

B. Experienced ethics

178
Q

_______ involves the study of the origin, meeting, and logic behind the principles that shape ethics. It also examines abstract, notions such as whether there are universal truths.

CJE p7

A. Professional ethics
B. Normative ethics
C. Metaethics
D. Applied ethics

A

C. Metaethics

179
Q

_______ ethics tries to develop standards for morally acceptable conduct and uses logic and reason to justify standards.

CJE p7

A. Professional
B. Normative
C. Metaethics
D. Applied

A

B. Normative
(The Golden Rule)

180
Q

_______ ethics examines, specific controversial issues, such as abortion, euthanasia, eating meat, or capital punishment.

CJE p7

A. Professional
B. Normative
C. Metaethics
D. Applied

A

D. Applied

181
Q

________ ethics is involved with developing rules and standards concerning the behavior of people who are professionals, such as doctors and lawyers.

CJE p7

A. Professional
B. Normative
C. Metaethics
D. Applied

A

A. Professional

182
Q

Psychologist suggest that people are moral for several reasons. Which of the following is not one of the reasons listed?

CJE 9

A. Fear of punishment
B. Desire for praise
C. To appear dignified
D. To understand happiness

A

D. To understand happiness

*achieve happiness, simply fit in with the group

183
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three major systems of normative ethics?

CJE p10

A. Virtue ethics
B. Moral ethics
C. Deontological ethics
D. Teleological ethics

A

B. Moral ethics

184
Q

Which of the following is not one of the core (cardinal) virtues, identified by Plato?

CJE p12

A. Honesty
B. Wisdom
C. Courage
D. Justice

A

A. Honesty
* 4th = temperance

185
Q

Virtue theory also stresses that virtuous characteristics developed through moral education, especially during ___________ .

CJE p12

A. adolescents
B. adulthood
C. childhood
D. prepubescents

A

C. childhood

186
Q

All of the following are reasons why professional ethics are important, except.

CJE p15-16

A. Most professionals have an informational advantage over their clients and it ensures that the professional does not exploit the client’s trust.
B. When professionals are new and inexperienced, it provides direction for what to watch out for and tell them what to do.
C. It outlines their obligations to their profession (ie medicine, law)
D. Serves as a countervailing (balance) to organizational influence or the power of authority.

A

C. It outlines their obligations to their profession (ie medicine, law)

** Play a role in disciplining those who engage in unethical conduct

187
Q

The systematic study of what is right and wrong.

CJE p16

A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. Mores
D. Folkways

A

B. Ethics

Includes reflections on the moral rules, including justification for them

188
Q

The statement, by Milton Rokeach, “an enduring organization of beliefs concerning preferable modes of conduct or end-states along a continuum of importance.” describes what?

CJE p18

A. Belief system
B. Value system
C. Moral system
D. Ethics system

A

B. Value system

189
Q

Using the value-predisposition perspective, research has identified several values consistent with police officers, they include the following, except?

CJE p19

A. work having social significance
B. “The Nobel Cause”
C. Utilitarianism
D. Authority over others

A

D. Authority over others

** see their work as being important or having a point and crime fighting

190
Q

The following value perspective suggests that through socialization, an agency “fuses” the practitioner to the organization by providing him or her “the rules, perspectives, prescriptions, techniques, and tools necessary to participate in the organization”.

CJE p19

A. Values-learned perspective
B. Values-predisposition perspective
C. Occupational career
D. Value-indoctrination perspective

A

A. Values-learned perspective

191
Q

How the practitioner reacts to the values that she has learned, is known as?

CJE p20

A. Learned values
B. Moral career
C. Occupational career
D. Experienced career

A

B. Moral career

192
Q

One way to try and ensure ___________ is through negative sanctions imposed on those engaging in the prescribed behavior.

CJE p22

A. conformity
B. compliance
C. accordance
D. observance

A

A. conformity

193
Q

The broad statement that lying is acceptable if and only if the lie does not significantly affect the emotional or physical well-being of the person being lied to. Is an example of a(n) _______________ .

CJE p31

A. Ethical principle
B. Moral principle
C. Value principle
D. All of the above

A

B. Moral principle

194
Q

The morally good person is one possessing positive character, traits, called ____________ , and therefore will act in a in accord with them.

CJE p31

A. values
B. morals
C. virtues
D. ethics

A

C. virtues

195
Q

The concept of __ is certainly the most significant contribution of psychology to behavioral economics.

TFS p300

A. risk aversion
B. loss aversion
C. gain propensity
D. loss propensity

A

B. loss aversion

196
Q

Ethical egoism has criticisms that have been argued. Which of the following is not one of those criticisms?

CJE p33

A. Pursuing one’s personal “greatest good” often conflicts with another’s pursuit of their greatest good
B. Personal self interest outweighs consequences
C. It cannot resolve inherent contradictory obligations
D. Treating people differently without justification

A

D. Personal self interest outweighs consequences

197
Q

Proponents of act utilitarianism, identify justifications for their theory. Which of the following is not one of their justifications.

CJE p34

A. The theory calls for one to maximize the overall (net) utility of behavior
B. The theory rejects rigid “rule-based moralities” that identify whole classes of actions as right or wrong, but also provide exceptions.
C. The theory “shows how moral questions can be objectively true answers.”
D. The theory requires impartiality and equal consideration of all peoples needs and interests.

A

D. The theory requires impartiality and equal consideration of all peoples needs and interests.

198
Q

Fixed rules, generate greater utility because they prevent more disutility than they create.

CJE p36

A. Act Utilitarianism
B. Rule Utilitarianism
C. Ethical Egoism
D. None of the above

A

B. Rule Utilitarianism

199
Q

The ___________ is a product of our reason and our needs and wants.

CJE p39

A. Hypothetical imperative.
B. Categorical imperative
C. Moral reasoning
D. Consequential reasoning

A

B. Categorical imperative

200
Q

Kant developed four formulations of the categorical imperative (CI).
Which of the following is not one of those formulations?

CJE p39

A. The formula of universal law
B. The formula of humanity has an end in itself
C. The formula of ethical reasoning
D. The formula of the realm of ends

A

C. The formula of ethical reasoning

  • 4th = Formula of autonomy
201
Q

Critics of the Divine Command Theory have identified certain objections. Which of the following is not one of those objections?

CJE p46

A. “Independence objection”
B. “Divinity objection”
C. “Omnipotence objection”
D. “Omnibenevolence objection”

A

B. “Divinity objection”

4th = Autonomy objection
5th = religious pluralism objection

202
Q

_______ is a habit that involves feelings and actions that comprise the middle ground between excess and deficiency.

CJE p52

A. Value
B. Virtue
C. Ethics
D. Morals

203
Q

The _____________ consist of human behavior that is the product of free will and rational choice.

CJE p61

A. Ethical arena
B. Moral arena
C. Existential arena
D. Virtual arena

A

B. Moral arena

204
Q

In a moral dilemma, where a decision results in the feelings of guilt or remorse, these negative emotions consist of two components, the ___________ and the __________.

CJE p63

A. experiential, cognitive
B. impressionable, real
C. imagined, experienced
D. accepted, denied

A

A. experiential, cognitive

205
Q

In prison, _________ may be likened to a commodity, the cost of which is negotiated between inmates and officers, and among officers themselves through informal arrangements, obligations, and relationships.

CJE p77

A. security
B. behavior
C. cooperation
D. order

206
Q

When I use the same reasoning to resolve similar cases, the same way, I am engaging in what philosophers call ____________, which is important. It can, for example, influence not only my moral judgments, but also my feelings about morality itself, which leads moral growth.

CJE p93

A. moral reasoning
B. moral dumbfoundedness
C. law of noncontradiction
D. consistency reasoning

A

D. consistency reasoning

207
Q

Valid moral arguments include a stated claim in the form of a general moral principle (GMP) and a set of factual claims (FCs) - that in combination are called ________.

CJE p99

A. identified errors
B. principles of moral reasoning
C. normative claims
D. substantiated claims

A

C. normative claims

208
Q

As some have suggested, trainees should emerge from the police Academy with certain competencies, including all of the following, except:

CJE p152

A. Excellent marksmanships skills
B. Unbiased decision-making
C. An understanding of diversity
D. Good oral, written, and listening skills

A

A. Excellent marksmanships skills

*a team orientation is another

209
Q

In the academy, values-based testing typically involves instructors sharing their experiences with novices via ___________ , or memorable personal experiences that typically include elements of danger, hardship, or adventure.

CJE p152

A. lecture
B. scenarios
C. war stories
D. all of the above

A

C. war stories

210
Q

The __________ expressed by trainees during the months of monitoring by the FTO matter at least as much, if not more, then the trainee’s technical competence.

CJE p156

A. ethics
B. views
C. norms
D. values

211
Q

Police work is appealing too many because it is _____________ , occurs outdoors, and is socially significant (the “noble cause”).

CJE p157

A. fun
B. challenging
C. nonroutine
D. exciting

A

C. nonroutine

212
Q

Enforcement of departmental ethical standards shifts to a system of oversight that includes standard operating procedures (SOPs) and other means (e.g., internal affairs) backed by sanctions. This is how police ethics is __________, not how police ethics is ___________ by officers.

CJE p159

A. formed, reinforced
B. learned, reinforced
C. enforced, learned
D. applied, retained

A

C. enforced, learned

213
Q

Stephen Ehlinger identified “core values” of the police culture. Which of the following is not one he identified?

CJE p159

A. “using force”
B. “autonomy”
C. “justice”
D. “discretion”

A

B. “autonomy”

  • others = “time”, “loyalty”, “fringe benefits”
214
Q

The ____________ position on police receiving gratuities, is that a gratuity is wrong because it constitutes unjustified enrichment for services that are already compensated by the public.

CJE p162

A. Teleological
B. Deontological
C. Virtue based
D. none of the above

A

B. Deontological

215
Q

A ___________ orientation to police gratuities is an acceptance of gratuities, is not wrong in itself, but the possible consequences of bias, favoritism, and bribery are overwhelmingly negative. Therefore, accepting any inaugurate activity should be prohibited.

CJE p162

A. Teleological
B. Deontological
C. Virtue based
D. none of the above

A

A. Teleological

216
Q

Regarding police gratuities, when mismatches occur in perceptions, it is the perception of the ________ that is critical for categorizing the exchange as ethical.

CJE p163

A. giver
B. recipient
C. outsider
D. policy

A

B. recipient

217
Q

There are possible positive and negative aspects to “sting”operations. Which of the following is not a positive aspect?

CJE p182

A. Conviction record is impressive
B. High risk to the personal safety of officers
C. Enhances images of police as “crime fighters”
D. Improves, collaboration between police and prosecutors

A

B. High risk to the personal safety of officers

218
Q

The scientist accepts the reality of something she has not personally experienced, or observed, regardless of what others have told her. She accepts this reality because certain standards have been met. Those standards are the rules of scientific ___.

CJE p383

A. Method
B. Inquiry
C. Inquiry
D. Research

A

B. Inquiry

219
Q

The courts have concluded that lies, trickery, and deceit used by police interrogators are acceptable if the deception did not _________ a confession.

CJE p186

A. force
B. pressure
C. coerce
D. deny

220
Q

Within Macnish’s framework for ethical surveillance, he argued that for surveillance to be ethical it must first be for a _________ .

CJE p201

A. good reason
B. moral good
C. public safety
D. just cause

A

D. just cause

221
Q

Kleinig suggest several possible goals for police ethics training, they include all of the following, except:

CJE p205

A. to increase ethical awareness in policing
B. to reinforce moral resolve in recruits/officers
C. to sensitize the moral resolve of participants
D. to impart Moral expertise

A

A. to increase ethical awareness in policing

222
Q

__________ policing can be defined as “any tactic that develops and uses information in advanced analysis to inform forward-thinking crime prevention”.

CJE p209

A. Proactive
B. Prognostic
C. Predictive
D. Productive

A

C. Predictive

223
Q

In working collaboratively to dispose of cases, the courtroom work group achieve several goals, including _____________ , reduced uncertainty at sentencing, and shared power.

CJE p218

A. justice
B. efficiency
C. closure
D. results

A

B. efficiency

224
Q

Three factors affect the dynamics of the work group: familiarity, similarity, and _____________.

CJE p218

A. trust
B. flexibility
C. stability
D. dexterity

A

C. stability

225
Q

In defense counsel’s relationship with clients, counsel should not simply follow _________ procedures learned from previous cases, but instead consider the procedural and investigative steps to take and motions to file relevant in each case.

CJE p232

A. standard
B. given
C. rote
D. obvious

A

C. rote (mechanical or habitual repetition)

226
Q

Between 1990 and 2016, the total correctional population grew by about _____ — about 2 million people, or roughly the population of Houston, TX.

CJE p 253

A. 31%
B. 45%
C. 51%
D. 58%

227
Q

There are multiple theories of justification for punishing criminals. Which of the following is not a theory that was identified?

CJE Ch 9

A. Retributivism Theory
B. Recidivism Theory
C. Rights Forfeiture Theory
D. Utilitarianism Theory

A

B. B. Recidivism Theory

*4th = Moral Education Theory

228
Q

Among the 196 United Nations’ recognized countries on this planet, _____ (30%) of them have capital punishment in either law or practice; among Western, industrialized, liberal democracies, the United States is the only one.

CJE p267

A. 38
B. 48
C. 58
D. 68

229
Q

The ethical issues involving correctional officers arise, primarily from their supervisory activities, and include __________ and ________ .

CJE p293

A. excessive force, bribery
B. power, control
C. silence, consent
D. reciprocity, corruption

A

D. reciprocity, corruption

230
Q

Good COs possess certain skills that help them overcome the fear and distrust on the part of inmates, and foster respect. Which of the following is not one of the good skills listed?

CJE p293

A. be resilient
B. be selfless
C. be aggressive
D. Be decisive

A

C. be aggressive

** good communicator, good problem solver, open-minded, dedicated to the position.

231
Q

About ____ of all prison inmates will be released through mandatory or discretionary parole or end-of-sentence.

CJE p297

A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 95%

232
Q

Types of prison corruption include all of the following, except:

CJE p300

A. misuse of authority
B. the trafficking and smuggling of contraband
C. theft or embezzlement
D. assisting with plans of escape

A

D. assisting with plans of escape

233
Q

Prisons are state operated and administered (typically) by a state-level agency, such as department of corrections, housed in the _______ branch of government.

CJE p308

A. judicial
B. executive
C. legislative
D. penal

A

B. executive

234
Q

Beginning in the 1970s state legislatures adopted new sentencing provisions that allowed for the attachment of additional sanctions to probation and parole agreements. These additional punishments are known as _______________ .

CJE p321

A. ethical sanctions
B. rehabilitative sanctions
C. improved sanctions
D. intermediate sanctions

A

D. intermediate sanctions

235
Q

Even with the mass incarceration boom of the past 40 years, __________ remains the most common court-imposed criminal sanction for felony offenders in this country.

CJE p322

A. parole
B. community-based-corrections
C. probation
D. judicial reprieve

A

C. probation

236
Q

Which supreme court case set a precedent for creating probation statutes across the country?

CJE p323

A. US vs Augustus
B. Gregg vs Georgia
C. ex parte United States
D. none of the above

A

C. ex parte United States

237
Q

The American correctional Association recommends ____ hours per year of in-service training for PPOs.

CJE p327

A. 16
B. 24
C. 32
D. 40

238
Q

_________ violations occur in forensic labs when practitioners failed to follow established protocols for analyzing evidence.

CJE 359

A. Legal
B. Regulatory
C. Ethical
D. Professional

A

C. Ethical

239
Q

Risk/benefit assessments are concerned with the ___________ and magnitude of possible harm and _____________ benefits.

CJE p389

A. design, expected
B. possible; patent
C. probabilities, anticipated
D. common, reasoned

A

C. probabilities, anticipated

240
Q

Which of the following is not a measure used to prevent scientific misconduct during research?

CJE p408

A. training
B. whistleblowing
C. implementing a code of ethics
D. adopting reproducible research tools

A

C. implementing a code of ethics

  • 4th = changing measures of success