Essay Rule Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What kind of extrajudicial statement must an atty not make

A

One that they (1) know or reasonably should not will be disseminated by means of public communication AND
(2) will have a substantial likelihood of materially prejudicing the proceeding

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2
Q

What is an atty allowed to state to public about a case?

A

Permitted references include:

the identity of the parties
the offense or defense involved in the case

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3
Q

what references are an atty not allowed to make to the public about a case?

A

Prejudicial references
Examples-
(1) improper opinion about how the jury should render their verdict
(2) alleging improper conduct on prosecutor’s part

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4
Q

False or reckless statements about judicial officers and candidates (ABA vs. CA)

A

ABA : atty must not (1) knowingly false or with reckless disregard as to truth or falsity (2) make a statement about the qualifications or integrity of a judge, hearing officer, public legal official or about a candidate for a judicial or legal office.
CA: only applies to judicial officials and candidates

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5
Q

Duty of fairness to opposing party and counsel

A

ABA and CA: an atty must not unlawfully obstruct another party’s access to evidence or unlawfully alter, destroy, or conceal a document having potential evidentiary value, or counsel or assist another in doing so

*exception ABA - person is a client or the client’s agent or family member

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6
Q

What must a prosecutor reasonably believe they have to bring a case?

A

probable cause

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7
Q

When will the omitted child doctrine apply?

A

only if the child was born or adopted after the execution of the testamentary instrument

***so one who doesn’t fit this has to argue mistake by clear and convincing evidence, and reformation

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8
Q

Anti lapse statute

A

(1) if a beneficiary predeceases T, the gift lapses
(2) the anti-lapse statute says that if the predeceasing beneficiary is kin of T, the gift is saved for the beneficiary’s living descendants via substitution

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9
Q

Conflicts with current clients rule

A

Atty generally must not accept or continue representation of current client if
(1) directly adverse to another client
(2) significant risk that the representation will be materially limited by the attys own interest or the attys responsibilities to another client, former client, or 3d person

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10
Q

What is logical relevance?

A

E tends to prove or disprove a disputed fact of consequence in the action

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11
Q

What is legal relevance?

A

E’s probative value is not substantially outweighed by other dangers (like unfair prejudice)

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12
Q

Nonhearsay purposes

A

(1) as a verbal act
(2) to show its effect on the hearer
(3) as circumstantial evidence of state of mind

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13
Q

What is habit evidence and when is it admissible?

A

it describes one’s regular response to a specific set of circumstances

admissible when other character evidence is not; to prove that on an occasion the person acted in accordance with the habit

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14
Q

Effect on contract reformation if party was negligent in failing to review the contract for a mistake?

A

majority view is that reformation will not be denied due to a party’s negligent failure to review

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15
Q

When is rescission appropriate?

A

when there is no enforceable K (i.e when it is voidable) Often shown by a failure of the parties to have a true meeting of the minds

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16
Q

What is a K misunderstanding

A

a type of mutual mistake where the K language has at least two different meetings, and there is no K unless both parties intended the same meaning

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17
Q

CA service of process outside of US

A

(1) as the court directs; or
(2) if the court finds that the service is reasonably calculated to give actual notice, as directed by the foreign country’s law or by the foreign authority in response to a letter of request

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18
Q

Traditional bases for in personum jurisdiction

A

(1) domicile
(2) presence in state when served
(3) consent

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19
Q

Basis for general jurisdiction

A

(1) jurisdiction authorized by state law and
(2) D must be at home in the state

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20
Q

What does committing a tort in a state do for jurisdiction?

A

It may provide a basis for exercising specific in persunum jurisdiction over the D

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21
Q

when is alienage jurisdiction not permitted?

A

when aliens are on both sides of the case

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22
Q

what defense to negligence should I always discuss even if not really relevant

A

plaintiff’s contributory negligence
assumption of risk

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23
Q

what is abatement CA

A

when the estate does not have enough to pay all claims against it, this is the process of reducing the gifts to satisfy claims to the estate

*Testator may put an order of abatement in the will, but without one residuary will abate first.

*CA’s statutory protection of omitted spouses and children take priority and can take before other claims to the estate

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24
Q

Whats the math on an intestate spouse who dies leaving one or more children with their still living spouse?

A

surviving spouse takes (1) 1/3 of the deceased spouse’s SP and (2) their own half of the CP and their deceased spouse’s half of the CP

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25
Q

Quasi community property elements

A

(1) property acquired by either spouse while living outside of CA
(2) that would have been CP had the spouse been domiciled in CA at the time

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26
Q

What happens to quasi CP during life?

A

treated as SP, may transfer title, etc.

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27
Q

What happens to quasi CP at death?

A

(1) if title is unaltered at death, treated the same as CP - each spouse owns 1/2

28
Q

what is the illusory transfer doctrine? and what can surviving spouse do about it?

A

(1) transfer of quasi CP to a 3rd party for less than substantial consideration and without surviving spouse’s consent and
(2) decedent reserved any right to income, revoke, consume, invade, or dispose of the property transferred

may compel 3rd party to restore 1/2 of the property or its value to decedent’s estate

29
Q

Assumption of risk defense (torts) is it a partial or a complete defense?

A

complete - knowingly and voluntarily assuming risk negates liability on D

30
Q

when must a motion for relief from judgment be made?

A

within a reasonable time not more than one year from the entry of judgement

31
Q

what is the economic loss rule?

A

***no recovery in a strict liability products action if a defect causes damages only to the product itself (not to persons or other property)

*** no recovery under negligence if injury is purely economic loss

32
Q

If a prosecution failed to disclose information, when may an appellate ct overturn the conviction based on that failure?

A

when that info creates a reasonable probability of a different outcome in the trial had the information been disclosed

33
Q

When will a landowner be entitled to a zoning variance?

A

when owner suffers hardship due to variance and the variance will protect the public interest

34
Q

when may court grant JMOL?

A

only if they find that a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient evidentiary basis to find for that party

35
Q

When may an appellate court consider error in jury instructions even when neither party objected to them at the time?

A

if the error effects substantial rights

36
Q

when may a final pretrial order be amended?

A

only to prevent manifest injustice

37
Q

what do you need to show for negligent infliction of emotional distress?

A

a physical injury

38
Q

Can congress add to the SC’s original jurisdiction?

A

no. But they can make exceptions and regulations regarding the SC’s appellate jurisdiction

39
Q

Can the deadline for filing a renewed JMOL be extended?

A

No. no later than 28 days after judgement has been entered

40
Q

What does 13th Amendment do

A

Thirteenth Amendment provides that neither slavery nor involuntary servitude shall exist in the United States.

Congress has the power to enforce the Thirteenth Amendment by appropriate legislation, which is not explicitly limited to governmental action.

41
Q

When may gov’t regulate speech?

A

when the regulation is
(1) necessary to achieve a compelling state interest

42
Q

How may gov’t regulate speech?

A

the time, place, and manner in which speech takes place

  • particularly on gov’t property
43
Q

What are public forums?

A

government properties historically open for speech activities

44
Q

What are designated public forums?

A

gov’t properties not historically open for speech, but which the gov’t has opened to such activities generally

45
Q

What must a TPM restriction be in a public or designated public forum?

A

(1) content neutral
(2) narrowly tailors to achieve a compelling gov’t interest
(3) leaves open alternate channels of communication

46
Q

What happens if a TPM restriction IS content based?

A

subject to strict scrutiny = narrowly tailored to achieve a compelling government interest

47
Q

What is a limited public forum?

A

government property not historically open for speech activities but which gov’t has opened for a particular purpose

48
Q

What must regulations of speech be in a limited public forum?

A

(1) viewpoint neutral and
(2) reasonably related to legitimate government purpose

49
Q

when is a regulation content neutral?

A

when it does not regulate on the topic of the speech

50
Q

when is a regulation viewpoint neutral?

A

when it does not regulate based on ideology

51
Q

when is a regulation narrowly tailored?

A

when it does not burden substantially more speech than is necessary to achieve an important gov’t interest
* It does not need to be the least restrictive means for doing so, though

52
Q

regulation of commercial speech. CT first asks

A

does the speech concern a lawful activity? (goes to next step)
Is the speech misleading or fraudualent? (prohobitable)

53
Q

regulation of commercial speech; speech that concerns a lawful activity may still be limited by a regulation that:

A

(1) serves a substantial gov’t interest
(2) directly advances that interest; and
(3) is narrowly tailored to achieve that interest

54
Q

what does 13th amendment not apply to?

A

(1) compulsory military service
(2) Compulsory school attendance
(3) convicted prisoners
(4) recipients of medical scholarships who must work pro bono

55
Q

Can state compel school attendance?

A

yes, up to age 16, with narrow exception for the Amish

56
Q

what is substantive due process? what are the fundamental rights protected?

A

guarantees that laws will be reasonable and not arbitrary

(1) LIBERTY
(2) to travel
(3) privacy (includes marriage and right to parent ones child)

57
Q

When does a deprivation of liberty occur for procedural due process purposes?

A

a person (1) loses significant freedom of action or (2) is denied a freedom provided by the constitution or a statute

58
Q

How to determine if person was afforded sufficient procedural due process

A

depends on
(1) importance of the individual interest involved
(2) the value of specific procedural safeguards to that interest
(3) the gov’t interest in fiscal administrative efficiency

59
Q

what does equal protection clause of 14th amendment do?

A

prohibits unreasonable discrimination among similarly situated persons

60
Q

What are the suspect classifications?

A

race and alienage

61
Q

what are the quasi suspect classifications?

A

gender and legitimacy

62
Q

when is a law unconstitutionally vague

A

when it does not give people reasonable notice of what is prohibited

63
Q

What does the Free exercise clause do?

A

prevents gov’t from interfereing in the free exercise of religion

64
Q

What can’t a court do with religion / what can it do?

A

can’t determine validity of religious belief
Can assess the sincerity of the person’s belief

65
Q

What does the establishment clause do?

A

compels the gov’t to pursue a course of neutrality towards religion; must not respect an establishment of religion

66
Q

Establishment clause analysis

A

whether the law is neutral depends on whether
(1) it accords with history; and
(2) accords with the understanding of the founding fathers