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Finals > ESE PRACTICE TESTS > Flashcards

ESE PRACTICE TESTS Flashcards

1
Q

true or false

Aerosol include dust sprays mist smokes and fumes these Particles include size fractions up to sizes range of total suspended particulates

A

False

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2
Q

True or false

Air Pollution can be gaseous or aerosol.

A

True

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3
Q

Difference in atmospheric pressure in the Earth’s atmosphere results to a movement called ____.

A

Wind

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4
Q

Of the major pollutant, which is not in a gaseous state?

A

Particulate Matter

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5
Q

Modified T/F

(If the statement is false, change underlined phrases to make statement true using phrases from the choices provided. If the statement is correct, select true.)

NOx refers to 5 compounds NO, N2O2, NO3, N2O, N2O3.

A

5 ; NO, NO2, NO3, N2O, N2O3.

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6
Q

Based on physical and chemical properties, how many regions are there in the atmosphere?

A

2

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7
Q

Gases that can potentially be expected to induce global warming.

A

Greenhouse gases

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8
Q

Matter found in the Earth’s atmosphere that is detrimental to health or the environment.

A

Air pollutant

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9
Q

Modified T/F

(If the statement is false, change underlined phrases to make statement true using phrases from the choices provided. If the statement is correct, select true.)

A satellite view for the NOx conc. indicate that rural areas have the highest concentration due to cars.

A

NOx, urban areas, cars

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10
Q

Air pollution will cause the following effects, EXCEPT?

Decrease UV Radiation
Increase Carbon dioxide concentration
Limits visibility
Cause respiratory problems

A

Decrease UV Radiation

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11
Q

Arrange in order in terms of particulate matter diameter.

TSP, suspended particle, inhalable particle, fine particle, ultrafine particle

A

TSP, suspended particle, inhalable particle, fine particle, ultrafine particle

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12
Q

Modified T/F (Change underlined phrases to make statement True)

TSP is usually of great concern include PM10(coarse), PM2.5(fine) and PM01(ultrafine).

A

PM; PM10(coarse), PM2.5(fine) and PM0.1(ultrafine)

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13
Q

Modified T/F

(If the statement is false, change underlined phrases to make statement true using phrases from the choices provided. If the statement is correct, select true.)

Powerplant emissions include CO2, H2, CO, N2, SOx, Pb, Hg, particulates and Ash.

A

CO2, H2O, CO, NOx, SOx, Pb, Hg, particulates and Ash

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14
Q

True or false

Smoking in public is banned, this mandate is carried out by the DENR.

A

False

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15
Q

Known as the Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999.

A

RA 8749

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16
Q

According to the Clean Air Act, there is gross violation of the law or its rules when any of the following occurs, except?

Blatant disregard of the orders of the DENR-EMB.
Three or more specific offenses within a period of one year.
Three or more offenses within three consecutive years.
Irreparable or grave damage to the environment.

A

Blatant disregard of the orders of the DENR-EMB.

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17
Q

It is a colorless and odorless gas pollutant. At sufficient ground level concentrations deprives the body of oxygen.

A

CO

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18
Q

Signed the Clean Air Act into Law.

A

Pres. Estrada

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19
Q

These sources refer to stationary sources such as industrial firms and smokestacks of power plants, hotels and other establishments.

A

Point Sources

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20
Q

Emissions and gases which are beyond internationally-accepted standards.

A

Poisonous and toxic fumes

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21
Q

True or false
According to the Clean Air Act Section 2 : the State recognizes that polluters must pay.

A

True

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22
Q

Modified T/F (Change underlined phrases if False)

Ground-level O3 could easily be produced when there is high level of radiation.

A

True

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23
Q

Modified T/F (Change underlined phrases to make statement True)

“Air pollution” means any matter found in the atmosphere other than oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, carbon dioxide, and the inert gases all in their natural or normal concentrations, that is detrimental to health or the environment.

A

“Air pollutant”; oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, carbon dioxide; detrimental to health or the environment.

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24
Q

Modified T/F (Change underlined phrases to make statement True)

The Chinese researchers (Zhang et. al.) found out that lowering NOx and particulate emissions does not necessarily decrease the production of O3.

A

True

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25
Q

It is defined as the rate of decrease or increase in temperature with respect to altitude.

A

Lapse Rate

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26
Q

The Green House Effect occurs because?

A

Heat energy coming into the Earth is not released

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27
Q

True or false

Aerosol is defined as a system of particles suspended in a gaseous medium usually nitrogen.

A

False

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28
Q

The creation of Ozone particles in the ozonosphere is driven by?

A

Solar Energy

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29
Q

Any air pollutant, gas stream or unwanted sound from a known source which is passed into the atmosphere.

A

Emission

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30
Q

Natural sources of air pollution are the following, except?

burning of fossil fuels in power plants
eruption of a volcano
forest fires
transfer of pollen and dust due to wind

A

burning of fossil fuels in power plants

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31
Q

True or false

The IRR or the Implementing Rules and Regulations of the Clean Air Act is called DAO 200-81.

A

False

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32
Q

True or false

According to DAO 2000-81, the state also recognizes and guarantees the citizens’ right to breathe clean air.

A

False

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33
Q

True or false

Clean fuels are needed to achieve clean air.

A

True

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34
Q

If a factory has been identified as a polluter responsible for gross violations and yet it is still in operation, the PAB could close the factory and issue a _____.

A

Cease and Desist Order

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35
Q

True or false

Improvements on the fuel quality, excluding cleaner alternative fuels, will be spearheaded by the DENR.

A

False

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36
Q

Airsheds are managed by __?

A

multi-sectoral governing board

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37
Q

Carbon monoxide is produced mainly due to?

A

Incomplete combustion

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38
Q

This pollutant narrows the airways in sufficient concentrations and causes pulmonary disorders.

A

SO2

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39
Q

True or false

The use of trains and buses will help reduce GHG emissions.

A

True

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40
Q

True or false

Ambient air quality refers to the atmosphere’s average quality.

A

True

41
Q

How many dangerours substances did the Stockholm convention plan to eliminate?

A

12

42
Q

What is the most ideal approach for the disposal od solid and hazardous waste?

A

Integrated waste management plan

43
Q

The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and environment from _____.

A

PoPs

44
Q

The following are types of organic hazardous waste, EXCEPT:

PCBs
Furans
Dioxins
Lead

A

Lead

45
Q

How many main components are there in integrated waste management?

A

3

46
Q

True or False: Considering only the natural processes that occurs in the environment, ideally, there are zero waste produced because a natural recycling of nutrients occurs.

A

True

47
Q

“Basel convention focuses on

A

Safe disposal of HW

48
Q

When did the Basel convention came into force?

A

1992

49
Q

The term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’ is used to describe which kind of solid waste?

A

Non hazardous

50
Q

How does organic material in the buried solid waste will decompose?

A

By the action of microorganisms

51
Q

In 2009, how many countries have signed the treaty in the Stockholm convention?

A

approximately 170

52
Q

Industries and communities have used different strategies in order to reduce resource use, waste and pollution. Which one is not one of them?

•Charge consumers by amount of waste they throw away but provide free pickup of recyclable and reusable items
•Eliminate or reduce unnecessary packaging
•Develop products that are easy to repair, reuse, remanufacture, compost, or recycle
•Burn solid waste immediately once collected

A

Burn solid waste immediately once collected

53
Q

The only country that has not ratified the Stockholm Convention Treaty:

A

USA

54
Q

True or False: The wastes covered in the Basel convention include e-waste.

A

True

55
Q

True or False: Land filling is an economic alternative for solid waste disposal and it can be implemented easily.

A

True

56
Q

True or false

Pedology is the study of the structure, evolution and dynamics of the Earth and its natural mineral and energy resources.

A

False

57
Q

True or false

Terrestrial flora and fauna inventory is the documentation of all relevant species near the project site. These includes the trees, shrubs and animals.

A

True

58
Q

It provides information on land cover and the types of human activity involved/ permitted in the land use.

A

Land use and classification

59
Q

True or false

Genetic diversity is important to the survival of a species that is why it is important to keep the population at healthy numbers.

A

True

60
Q

True or false

Any person or organization can easily erect any large project, especially for projects located in private land. There is no need to inform anybody on the matter.

A

False

61
Q

True or false

It is important to establish baseline data for a project because it will be used to monitor the impacts of the project.

A

True

62
Q

True or false

The main reason why biowastes are segregated before composting is to reduce the risk of contamination by non-biodegradable
materials or pollutants which could compromise the compost quality.

A

True

63
Q

True or false

Dumpsites and landfills can cause numerous environmental problems. Examples are hydrological impacts (e.g. toxic chemicals in leachate and groundwater), or atmospheric impacts (e.g., methane production).

A

True

64
Q

True or false

In pyrolysis, fixed carbon (FC) provides an approximation of the theoretically possible char yield, therefore, higher FC can increase the char yield.

A

True

65
Q

True or false

Dumpsites and landfills are the most common disposal method worldwide.

A

True

66
Q

True or false

Recycling of glass consumes less energy and resources, generates less waste water and emits less emissions than virgin production.

A

True

67
Q

True or false

By avoiding traffic, waste collection can be carried out much faster. Nighttime collection can also make waste collection financially more attractive, since the staff spends fewer work hours per ton of collected waste than during daytime.

A

True

68
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

Recreational
Transport
Agricultural
Residential
Commercial

A

NA

69
Q

Wastes are considered hazardous is the have the following characteristics, EXCEPT :

poisonous
toxic
ignitable
reactive
radioactive
corrosive

A

E & A

70
Q

A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating the likely impacts of a proposed project or development to define mitigation actions to reduce negative impacts and to provide positive contributions to the natural environment and well-being.

A

EIA

71
Q

What is included in an Impact assessment? (select all that apply)

a detailed assessment of the planned project and selected alternatives compared to the baseline conditions
Qualitative descriptions measuring high, medium and low impacts
Quantitative descriptions such as indicating the cubic metres of water withdrawn, sewage produced, and
pollutants released

All the data collection, analyses, and developed plans summarized together in a well structured and concise Document

A

1 2 3

72
Q

EIA is usually required for a development project when (select all that apply)
1. Large changes are expected in the environment
2. Limited impacts are expected in the environment

  1. A small area is expected to be affected by the project
  2. There are potentials for transboundary impact
A

1 4

73
Q

What is true of the Scoping step? (select all that apply)
1. It is a systematic exercise that establishes the boundaries of an EIA
2. It clearly indicates what is relevant and what is not relevant within an EIA
3. It serves as a work plan for the entire EIA process

A

1 2 3

74
Q

True or False: Typically, the project proponents carry out the screening process by assessing their project based upon a set of criteria determined by a designated agency.

A

True

75
Q

True or False: Impact assessment is done for the planned project and the identified alternatives.

A

True

76
Q

Which type of project usually requires an EIA? (Select all that apply)

  1. Small housing building
  2. Dams and reservoirs
  3. Industrial plants (large scale)
  4. Community garden development
  5. Irrigation, drainage, and flood control (large scale)
A

2 3 5

77
Q

What is essential in an EIA?

That it allows decision makers to assess a project’s impacts in all its phases
That it allows the public and other stakeholders to present their views and inputs on the planned development
That it contributes to and improve the project design, so that environmental as well as socioeconomic measures are core parts of it
All the previous statements define the essence of EIA.

A

All the previous statements define the essence of EIA.

78
Q

True or False: The EIA Report is compiled by the designated government agency

A

False

79
Q

It is the existing environmental situation or condition of a certain area before an activity or project is started.

A

Baseline Scenario

80
Q

In Phase I of the EIA Process, a preliminary investigation is conducted if the activity has:

A

Unknown risk

81
Q

True or False: A good quality EIA might still lead to the planned development not being permitted to go ahead based on the identified impacts.

A

True

82
Q

True or False: Frequency of monitoring will be determined by the nature of the project

A

True

83
Q

The key focus areas of mitigation measures should include (select all that apply)
1. Preventive measures that avoid occurrence of impacts and thus avoid harm or even produce positive outcomes.
2. Measures that focus on limiting or lessening the severity and the duration of the impacts.
3. Identification of compensation mechanisms for impacts that are unavoidable and cannot be reduced further.

A

1 2 3

84
Q

True or False: The EIA report development is the last step in terms of conducting the impact assessment done by the project team and the involved consultants.

A

True

85
Q

True or False: Impact assessment is done for the planned project and the identified alternatives.

A

True

86
Q

After the screening, and the activity is identified to have high environmental risk, what will happen next?

A

Full EIA study shall begin.

87
Q

Which of the integrated waste management strategies reduces waste produced on an individual level?

A

Source reduction

88
Q

What is the aim of Basel Convention?

A

Controlling movement of hazardous waste

89
Q

In the Philippines, burnnig of solid waste is not acceptable. What may be the reason?

A

The process causes several environmental issues

90
Q

What is the process of burning municipal solid waste in a properly designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions, and recovering excess heat and converting it to electrical energy?

A

Waste-to-Energy Incineration

91
Q

True or False: Considering only the natural processes that occurs in the environment, ideally, there are zero waste produced because a natural recycling of nutrients occurs.

A

True

92
Q

According to RA 6969, these series of digits indicate information about the a certain substance and it toxicity.

A

CAS

93
Q

True or false

“Commercial” is one example of land use.

A

True

94
Q

True or false

Impairment of visual aesthetics as an impact is purely objective. Meaning it depends on those who see it.

A

True

95
Q

True or false

Geological factors do not play a significant role when constructing a landfill, because landfills are only constructed above ground.

A

False

96
Q

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

slope
underground conditions
debris flow
overburden

A

underground conditions

97
Q

The following are types of solid wastes except?

SPECIAL WASTES
FOOD WASTES
RUBBISH
AGRICULTURAL WASTES
ASHES AND RESIDUES
CONSTRUCTION AND DEMOLITION WASTES
TREATED PLANT WASTES

A

NA

98
Q

Radioactive wastes are one of the most difficult type of waste to manage? Where does most of it come from?

A

Nuclear Powerplants

Finals (6 decks)

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