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LT Test 2020 > ERP/HazMat > Flashcards

ERP/HazMat Flashcards

1
Q

Manifestation of a biological is

A

Not immediate

Bio toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms and mimic exposure to a chemical agent

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2
Q

Manifestation of a chemical attack

A

Will be immediate

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3
Q

Can the department detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously or in real time?

A

No, currently no devices available to the dept

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4
Q

Exposure to bio agents, patients may exhibit __________ signs and symptoms

A

Differing

Chemical agents will have fairly consistent signs and symptoms

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5
Q

Bio agents can be delivered in which 2 ways?

A

Liquid (opaque) - typically thicker than water, but not as thick as syrup

Dry (gray or brown in color)

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6
Q

initial exclusion zone is how many feet in all directions from the point or source of the release?

A

AT LEAST 300ft

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7
Q

avoid entry to the site for how long, to allow the biological to settle?

A

minimum 30 minutes to 1 hour

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8
Q

What is a top priority before establishing a command post?

A

protection from a secondary device

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9
Q

A biological agent released will have the same effect no matter what time of day.
Agree or disagree

A

Disagree

it will have greater impact at DAWN, DUSK or DURING THE NIGHT

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10
Q

Higher humidity is benefial for _______

Lower humidity is better for _______

A 
HH = Liquid agent
LH = Dried bio agent
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11
Q

What is the appropriate PPE for entry and rescue for a biological release?

A

SCBA OR AV 2000
bunker gear with hood
gloves

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12
Q

What are the 4 types of Chemical Agents of concern to First Responders?

A
  1. Nerve
  2. Blister
  3. Blood
  4. Choking agents
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13
Q

NERVE AGENTS
example?
odor?
signs?

A

Sarin, Tabun, Soman, VX
FRUIT odor
respiratory distress, convulsions, SLUDGEM

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14
Q

BLISTER
example?
odor?
signs?

A

Mustard, Lewisite
GARLIC odor
Mustards - do not appear for hours (skin blistering)
Lewisite - appear immediately severe irritation to skin, eyes, airways. tissue necrosis

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15
Q

BLOOD agents
example?
odor?
signs?

A

Hydrogen cyanide, Cyanogen chloride
BURNT ALMONDS
gasping for air, convulsions

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16
Q

CHOKING AGENTS
examples?
odor?
signs?

A

Cholrine, Ammonia (PHOSGENE delayed effects)
CHOLRINE OR GRASS odor
gasping for air, eye irritation

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17
Q

Hydrogen Cyanide is ______ than air?

A

LIGHTER

*only chemical lighter than air!

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18
Q

What are the only exceptions to chemical agents not resulting in immediate signs and symptoms?

A

MUSTARDS and PHOSGENE

takes hours

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19
Q

Chemical release occurs in train while in transit between stations. The MTA will contiue the train to the closest station and _______ the train HVAC system?

A

CONTINUE to operate the train HVAC system ON while in transit to dilute the contaminant in the railcar.

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20
Q

Members operating in bunker gear shoudl not proceed into the Exclusion Zone any further than_____________

A

the FARTHEST LIVE VICTIM when performing hazrd assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims

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21
Q

First alarm Trucks at a Chemical Attack

“Every Helmet Becker Uses Eventually Gets Salty”

A

1st Truck-team 1 = Evacuation + Hazard assessment
1st Truck-team 2 = Back Up
2nd Truck-team1 = Evacuation to Gross decon
2nd Truck-team2 = Site access control

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22
Q

First arriving Trucks at a Chemical Attack

“Every Helmet Becker Uses Eventually Gets Salty”

A

1st Truck-team 1 = Evacuation + initial Hazard assessment
1st Truck-team 2 = Back Up
2nd Truck-team1 = Evacuation to Gross decon
2nd Truck-team2 = Site access control

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23
Q

Who directs vicitims to the Safe Refuge Area?

A

Team 1 of the first ladder co

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24
Q

Who is in charge of establishing a communications relay to the IC?

A

Team 2 of first ladder co (Back Up team), until relieved by first arriving CPC equipped unit.

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25
Q

Who is in charge of establishing the initial Contamintation Reduction Zone?

A

2nd arriving Truck.

Remain outside the Exclusion zone and use barrier tape or utility rope to establish the zone and limit access.

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26
Q

the initial exclusion zone is defined by what?

A

Red Haz Mat barrier tape

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27
Q

Who directs patients who have been deconned to the Casualty Collection Point?

A

First due Engine

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28
Q

Does the First due Engine enter the subway?

A

No, remain outside the subway unless ordered by the IC

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29
Q

who provides the estimate of number of victims to the IC

A

First Engine

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30
Q

Who performs CFR-D duties?

A

second and third due Engine

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31
Q

who may perform Noxious-Stimulus Triage (NST)?

A

any CPC trained level member or above

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32
Q

If the victim responds to voice or touch?

A

likely to survive and should be removed immediately

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33
Q

if the victim only responds to painful stimulus?

A

the victim may survive but requires immediate advanced medical treatment.

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34
Q

if the vicitm doesnt respond to painful stimulus?

A

leave the victim in place and proceed

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35
Q

What is the Patient Relay Point?

A

when the distance or complexity of the removal is beyond the capabilities of a single unit

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36
Q

what is an orange tag?

A

Life threatening condition/urgent

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37
Q

what is a yellow tag?

A

non-ambulatory/delayed

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38
Q

Who handles evidence at a discovery of firearms, ammunition, and/or incendiary devices?

A

IC shall assign members to SAFEGUARD FROM A DISTANCE.

ONLY NYPD or BFI shall HANDLE evidence

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39
Q

HT’s shall not be used within _____ of a suspected device.

A

150 feet

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40
Q

Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within _______ of a suspected device.

A

300 feet

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41
Q

the isolation zone around a suspected device generally ____________

A

exceeds 300 ft

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42
Q

What is the proper identification when reporting to the NYPD IC?

A

Rank, Unit, Name

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43
Q

Should members don their SCBA facepieces after a detonated explosive device?

A

they SHOULD NOT because it will inhibit vision.

Unless their is indications of respiratorty distress

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44
Q

If a suspicious device is discovered on a victim during patient assessment:

A
  1. immediately cease assessment
  2. notify IC, law enforcement, and ALL first responders in the area
  3. evacuate forthwith
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45
Q

How many times do you open the victim’s airway by repositioning their head?

A

ONCE

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46
Q

All viable, non-ambulatory victims must be moved to:

A

the Triage Transfer Point

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47
Q

What size hoseline is stretched at a confimed incendiary device blast?

A

2 1/2”. First engine stretches a precautionary 2 1/2” and when necessary to knock down fires threatening victims

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48
Q

Does the first due Engine Officer enter the POI?

A

if the first due truck is not on scene or delayed, while the engine is stretching a precuationary line.

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49
Q

Who should be tagged in the POI?

A

only deceased victims (black tag)

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50
Q

Where does the second due engine go for an incindiary blast?

A

Triage Transfer Point

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51
Q

What does the second due engine bring to the Triage Transfer Point?

A

Skeds
Meters
CFR-d equipment

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52
Q

What does the 2nd engine officer do at an incendiary blast?

A

Remain at the Triage Transfer Point, until relieved by a BC

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53
Q

Who enters the POI?

A

First Ladder Officer

First Engine Officer if the ladder officer is not on scene or delayed

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54
Q

Who establishes the Patient Relay Point?

A

1st due truck - they will transfer patients to the 2nd due truck, grabbing skeds from 2nd due truck

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55
Q

Numerous victims need removal to the Triage Transfer Point, as first due ladder co officer you:

A

must notify FDNY IC for assisstance. If IC is not on scene yet you can directly request assistance from 2nd truck or 1st due engine.

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56
Q

If the incident involves the subway, what is the job of the second ladder company?

A

2nd Ladder must now conduct recon of the POI.

the 1st ladder is responsible for the CORE relay

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57
Q

How long must the IC and Medical Branch Director be updated for red tag patients in the TRiage Transfer Point?

A

every 15 minutes

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58
Q

Upon the discovery of any type of lab, the following notifications will be made:

A
  1. Battalion chief
  2. Deputy chief
  3. Haz Mat to repsond
  4. NYPD
  5. BFI
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59
Q

in a “Challenge Situation” with an NYPD Officer:

A
  1. comply with all commands
  2. Remain motionless
  3. Do not turn your body UNLESS INSTRUCTE TO BY THE OFFICER
  4. verbally identify yourself by RANK and NAME
  5. await command
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60
Q

when the potential for secondary threats is suspected, sensitive information should be transmitted via:

A

cell phones
secure frequencies
MDT

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61
Q

When will members operate inside the warm zone at an active shooter incident?

A

When requested by NYPD

must be approved by a Deputy Chief, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate lifesaving medical intervention.

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62
Q

An Active shooter incident is a _______ Command.

A

Single. With NYPD as the IC

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63
Q

In the Rolling T formation at an active shooter incident, 3 SRG members will lead and 1 will provide security in the rear. FDNY members will move in pairs at the ______ of the formation. the FDNY RTF leader will be ________?

A

center.

Closest to the rear security

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64
Q

How many members of the RTF shall monitor the TAC-U channel?

A

1 FD member

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65
Q

ALPHA radiation
hazard?
range?
shielding?

A

inhalation

1-2 inches

intact skin, inches of air, sheet of paper

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66
Q

BETA radiation
hazard?
range?
shielding?

A

inhalation penetration (beta particles can penetrate 1/4” of skin)

Up to 10 feet

Approx 1” of: plastic, aluminum, glass

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67
Q

GAMMA
hazard?
range?
shielding?

A

Whole body

Up to several hundred feet

Several inches of: Lead, Concrete, Steel
foot of dirt or water

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68
Q

the RAD50 is calibrated to alarm at _____

It is able to measure radiation levels up to _____

A

1 mR/hr

50 mR/hr

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69
Q

What is the average annual dose of radiation that people receive from background sources?

A

360 mR per year or 1 mR per day

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70
Q

What is the normal background radiation rate for the NYC area?

A

0.02 to 0.05 mR/hr

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71
Q

How do you manage a radiological incident?

A
  1. Confirm readings with a Second Meter
  2. determine the location of the source
  3. verify it involves a legit source, Which Has NOT been Released from its container
  4. Transmit appropriate 10-80 code
  5. zero out and don dosimeter
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72
Q

What is the difference between a radiological Incident and Emergency?

A

Incident = the source has not been released from its container

Emergency = a source that is out of its container, either intentionally or accidentally

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73
Q

What is the greatest dangers from a Radiological Incendiary Device (RID)?

A

the expanding fire

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74
Q

What is the max rate of the RAD50?

A

50 mR/hr

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75
Q

What is the max rate of the Ludlum?

A

100 Rem/hr*

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76
Q

What is the max rate of the Canberra?

A

999 Rem/hr*

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77
Q

When do you evacuate civilians from surrounding buildings at a radiological incident?

A

the projected dose inside is 5 Rem for general population

10 Rem for SPECIAL GROUPS

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78
Q

in almost all cases of public contamination resulting from accidents or RDD or RID attacks, Life Threatening injuries should be addressed ______ to the decontamination of the injured.

A

PRIOR

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79
Q

If manpower and equipment are sufficient, when should members be rotated in regards to members receiving absorbed doses?

A

dose levels of 5 Rem or when 1 SCBA is expended

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80
Q

If the distance of the radiological source is ________, the rate will drop to 1/4 its original rate.

A

DOUBLED

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81
Q

When will the RAD50 alarm?

A

when the dose exceeds 1 mR/hr

Any area that causes an alarm requires confrmation from a second meter

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82
Q

Ops for Radiological Incident:

A
  1. confirm with second meter
  2. determine location of source if possible
  3. verify legit source, which has not been released from container
  4. transmit proper 10-80 code
  5. don ppe
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83
Q

Ops for Radiological Emergency:

A

prior to operating:

  1. don ppe
  2. full respiratory protection
  3. BRING APR WITH ADAPTER
  4. zero out and don dosimeter
  5. monitor incident with metering equipment
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84
Q

units can operate with the RAD50 for:

A

Rescue and Fire Suppression

85
Q

How do you determine the size of the Hot Zone at a radiological incident?

A

a Circular pattern is used while monitoring with the RAD50

86
Q

the Hotline at a radiological incident is:

A

Greater than 2 mR/hr

less than 2 mR/hr = cold zone

87
Q

If rotation is not possible at a dose 5 Rem:

A 
Notify Officer
Contiue to notify officer at Each Additional 5 Rem Dose with the following (LARD)
- location
-activity being performed
- rate and dose
88
Q

When is decon considered successful for radiological materials?

A

if levels on a person or equipment do not exceed Twice the background levels.

89
Q

the Transport Index indicates:

A

the Max level of radiation (mR/hr) at One Meter from the undamaged package

90
Q

what is the max total a Transport Index of a vehicles shipment?

A

may not exceed 50 mR/hr

91
Q

what is the max Transport Index of a package?

A

10 mR/hr

92
Q

How long does the RAD50 take for a unit to change?

A

1 minute

also when turning the unit on it takes 1 minute for the hourglass icon to disappear.

93
Q

Potassium Iodide will only protect the __________ from Radioactive iodide.

A

Thyroid Gland

94
Q

Optimal administration of KI tablet will be prior to or immediately coincide with the passage of Radioactive Cloud with a ________ window after exposure.

A

3 to 4 hour window

95
Q

one potassium iodide tablet =

A

130mg

96
Q

KI tablets can be stored for

A

at least 5 years without losing potency.

97
Q

LP Gases are:

A

Non-Toxic and Non-Posionous, but slightly anethestic

98
Q

LP Gas is:

A

Odorless
Flammable
HEAVIER than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier)

99
Q

Keep members not engaged in the operations at least _______ from the front and rear and at least _______ from the sides of an LPG tank

A

1,000 ft

500 ft

100
Q

Ops at a LPG leak with a fire:

When do you extinguish the fire?

A

when the leak has been stopped or under extremely unusual circumstances

101
Q

Where do you approach a LPG tank?

A

from the sides

102
Q

What can be used on small LP Gas fires?

A

Portable Dry Chem and Carbon Dioxide extinguishers APPLIED AT THE BASE OF THE FIRE

103
Q

Where does tank failure under fire conditions usually occur?

A

the Vapor Area

104
Q

if a LPG tank is to moved, it should be moved ________

A

in the upright position

105
Q

Can portable gas cylinders involved in a serious fire be moved?

A

Yes, to a safe location

106
Q

How is the water spray used in disperising LPG vapor?

A

used as soon as possible, directing the spray stream ACROSS THE NORMAL VAPOR PATH and dis[ersing it to a SAFE LOCATION

107
Q

What does the #2 on the placard indicate?

A

Compressed Gas

108
Q

1 cubic foot of liquid will expand ______ as a gas

A

270 times

109
Q

a satisfactory performance of a relieve valve (can or cannot) prevent a BLEVE

A

CANNOT

110
Q

The discharge point of the relief valve on passenger cars are located:

A

within 45 degrees of Vertical

  1. top of the trunk
  2. rear quarter panel
  3. off the rear bumper
111
Q

what are the properties of Natural Gas?

A

Flammable
Non-toxic
Lighter than air (will Float)
composed of 95% methane and 5% other gases
id # 1971
natural gas and methane used interchangeably

112
Q

CNG cylinders are subject to failure, but:

A

NOT TO BLEVE because they do not contain liquid

113
Q

properties of Methanol

A 
Highly volatile flammable liquid
Flash point of 54 degrees F
Soluble in water
Slightly heavier than air (will sink)
Burns cleanly - pale blue flame (difficult to see in sunlight)
114
Q

What are the health hazards associated with Methanol?

A

Skin and eye irritant
Inhalation of vapor at high concentration can produce the effects of drunkeness, drowsiness, blurred vision, unconsciousness and death
Effects of exposure may be delayed 24 hours or longer

115
Q

What kind of foam is to be used on a methanol fire?

On a small fire?

A

Alcohol type foam Must be used

Type B Dry Chem extinguishers are adequate

116
Q

What is the most effective dry chemical extinguishing agent against a Methanol fire?

A

PURPLE K

117
Q

What is class 1 of hazmat?

A

EXPLOSIVES

118
Q

What is class 2 of hazmat?

A

COMPRESSED GAS

119
Q

What is class 3 of hazmat?

A

FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS

120
Q

What is class 4 of hazmat?

A

FLAMMABLE SOLIDS

121
Q

What is class 5 of hazmat?

A

OXIDIZERS

122
Q

What is class 6 of hazmat?

A

POISONS

123
Q

What is class 7 of hazmat?

A

RADIOACTIVE MATERIAL

124
Q

What is class 8 of hazmat?

A

CORROSIVES

125
Q

What is class 9 of hazmat?

A

MISCELLANEOUS Dangerous goods

126
Q

What does the acronym: Every Good Lieutenants S O P Requires Correcting Members stand for?

A 
the classes of HazMat
Explosives
compressed Gas
flammable Liquids
flammable Solids
Oxidizers
Poisons
Radioactive materials
Corrosives 
Miscellaneous dangerous goods
127
Q

What are the 5 ways a chemical can enter the body?

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Skin Contact
  3. Ingestion
  4. Puncture/Wounds
  5. Eyes
128
Q

Checking shipping papers:

  1. Truck
  2. Rail
  3. Aircraft
  4. Ships
A
  1. “Bill of lading” kept in cab within reach of driver
  2. “Waybill” carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine
  3. “Airbill” kept by pilot in cockpit
  4. “Cargo Manifest” kept by master or first mate
129
Q

If no information is available from placards or chemical names on the vehicle:

A

obtain Transports name and License Plate (# and state) and PD will able to look it up.
For railroad cars: Railroad’s Name and # on the car.

130
Q

What is the Last Resort to identify a material?

A

only if no id number or shipping name can be found, by matching the diamond shape placard on the tank, vehicle or railroad car with a placard in the guide book an turning to that page

131
Q

If first arriving units can identify the substance by name, how should it be relayed to the dispatcher?

A

Phonetically - Letter by Letter (A-Adam, B-Boy etc)

132
Q

DOT regulations require placards to be posted on trucks carrying how much of the material?

A

OVER 1,000 lbs of that particular material

133
Q

Carbon monoxide traits:

A 
Toxic
Flammable gas
ignition temp 1128 F
LEL of 12.5%
UEL of 74%
Slightly lighter than air
134
Q

What are symptoms associated with a Medium level of CO poisoning?

A

Vomiting
Drowsiness
Loss of Consciousness

135
Q

a CO Incident is:

A

no occupants are symptomatic and readings are 9ppm or less

136
Q

a CO Emergency is:

A

Occupants are symptomatic OR readings of 10 ppm or greater

137
Q

CO meter readings of 10 or more ppm but 99 or less ppm.

A

Emergency.
Inform occupants of Potentially Dangerous levels.
Recommend they should leave the affected area and begin ventilation.

138
Q

CO meter readings of 100 ppm and greater

A

Inform occupants of Potentially LETHAL level

Begin Evacuation and ventilate

139
Q

When a fatality or serious injury is discovered at a CO incident, the IC shall make what notification?

A

notify BFI throuh the Borough Dispatcher.

this is in addition to other notifications.

140
Q

What happens to the CO meter when it exceeds 35 ppm?

A

a Visual and Low audible warning with a Slow vibration: EVERY 1 SECOND

141
Q

What happens to the CO meter when it exceeds 100 ppm?

A

a Visual and High audible warning with a Fast vibration: EVERY 1/2 SECOND

142
Q

What is the only button to be used by field units on the CO meter?

A

the green circular button on the LEFT.

press and hold for 5 seconds to turn on, it will perform a self test.

143
Q

What happens if there are CO readings of 1,000 ppm or more?

A

the meter will display “OL” indicating an over limit condition because the meter will only display readings up to 999ppm

144
Q

the Low Battery alarm of the CO meter consists of:

A

1 Beep every 5 seconds
1 Flash every 5 seconds
1 Quick Vibration every 1 minute
a Low Battery icon on the display

145
Q

CPC units purpose is to:

A

Assist in search, rescue, and removal of both civilians and emerency responders.
Trained and certified in Level A and B

146
Q

Are CPC units responsible to perform mitigation?

A

NO. neither trained nor equipped to perform mitigation.

147
Q

Does the CPC unit officer wear a chemical protective suit?

A

No. unless a situation idicates a suit is required to properly supervise the units operation.

148
Q

When would the CPC unit Officer don their chemical protective suit?

A
  1. Entry team would not be in line of sight
  2. a Compex Entry Team operation
  3. where the operation requres a Number of Entry Teams
149
Q

What is the one task the Back-up CPC team will perform?

A

Removal of Downed Member.

their operating time should be less than that of the entry team’s.

150
Q

Who determines the order of decontamination of the CPC Entry Team?

A

THEY DO.

They determine Their Order of Decon

151
Q

When the Entry Team is in areas of limited or no line of sight with the CPC Unit Officer:

A

they shall give a detailed description of the areas they pass through and work in

152
Q

What is the CPC Standby Position?

A

both legs in suit, outer boots and surgical gloves on, SCBA Donned, cylinder opened, facepiece on, BUT REGULATOR DISENGAGED FROM FACEPIECE, RIGHT ARM IN SUIT and identity tag in place.
LEFT ARM IS OUT OF SUIT

153
Q

Who dressed in the CPC Standby Position?

A

the Back-Up Team

154
Q

What is the Primary function of the Decontamination Station?

A

to provide Immediate and adequate decon to ENTRY TEAM MEMBERS.

155
Q

What is a secondary function of the Decontamination Station?

A

in can be used to Decon first responders and/or civilians until fdny shower units arrive

156
Q

What is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination?

A

Rapid Physical Removal of the Material

157
Q

One option for setting up a mass decon is to stretch a ____ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle, operating in the fog position. What is the recommended operating pressure range?

A

2 1/2”

50 to 80 psi

158
Q

if 2 handlines are being used for mass decon, how far apart from each other should they be?

A

approximately 25 to 30 feet. (2 1/2” handlines)

159
Q

What is the preferred choice for setting up a mass decon?

A

2 Pumpers Parrallel to each other approximately 25’ apart with CONTROL PANELS FACING THE OUTSIDE.
place an aquastream fog nozzle on each pumper on a selected INSIDE DISCHARGE GATE.
Recommended operating pressure is 50 to 80 psi

160
Q

Do members staffing the decon operation wear their full protective equipment?

A

members Initially staffing the decon op Must wear their ppe including: mask, gloves and hood. as soon as resources become available these members should be removed and go through decon themselves.

161
Q

What is the minimum number of personnel that must be trained to the Technician levelfor a HMTU?

A

the Officer and 4 FF’s.

H M T U = 4 FF

162
Q

What is the order of preference for filling the Decon position of the HazMat Technicians?

A
  1. FDNY qualified HazMat Technician

2. Decon trained FF from SOC

163
Q

Is a SOC Support ladder co trained and equipped to perform mitigation activities such as leak stopping, neutralizing or overpacking a product?

A

NO - unless requested to ASSIST a HMTU or HMC1

164
Q

in order to operate as a SOC Support Ladder Co, what is the minimum staffing?

A

1 trained officer or trained acting officer and at least 3 trained FFs
SSL = 3

165
Q

a SOC Support Ladder co is operating at a suspended scaffold emergency. What rope do they use when lowering a safety line?

A

1/2” kermantle issued to them in place of the 9/16” LSR

166
Q

What are the operating limitations for a SOC Support ladder co operating at a confined space rescue?

A

Not Permitted to attempt entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry.

Not Attempt entry where the hazards are other than atmospheric and controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.

167
Q

What is the primary threat/hazard to first responders at a chemical suicide incident?

A

Inhalation

168
Q

What is the proper ten code for a chemical suicide incident?

A

10-80 Code 1 - Ensure response of NYPD

169
Q

what can a hoseline be used for at a chemical suicide incident?

A

Primarily for Decon.
stretch a charge hoseline with attached fog nozzle. It CAN be used for Vapor Dispersal and Fire Suppression in case of ignition or explosion.

170
Q

Technical Decontamination involves flushing contaminants with:

A

Small quantities of water, perhaps with a decon solution or soap added.

171
Q

How are the companies in a Technical Decon Task Force identified?

A

they will be identified by the Battalion from which it was called.
e.g. Batt 26 assigned along with Decon Eng73, and SOC Support Lad 42 with their support vehicle, will be designated Technical Decon Task Force 26.

172
Q

Who is assigned the Technical Decon Task Force Leader?

A

the Battalion Chief

all comm. between task force and IC will be thu task force leader

173
Q

What is the minimum staffing to operate as a Decon Engine?

A

1 trained officer or trained acting officer and at least 3 trained FFs
ENG = 3

174
Q

Where will Technical Decontamination procedures be performed?

A

in a Well-Defined DECONTAMINATION CORRIDOR Inside the Warm Zone

175
Q

How many procedures can 1 Decon engine perform at an incident?

A

ONE.

because they are both labor and time intensive

176
Q

How long will the BDS analysis process take to compete?

A

as long as 90 minutes. the letter will continue thru the facility during this 90 minute period.

177
Q

a CIDS is mandatory for any USPS facility with a Bio-Detection System. true or false?

A

TRUE

the transmitted data area shall indicate the presence of a “USPS Bio-Detection System”

178
Q

Who will povide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors?

A

NYPD not FD

179
Q

Where do 1st arriving units report at a BDS incident at a usps facility?

A

the INITIAL EMERGENCY RESPONSE MEETING POINT

180
Q

What is the appropriate ten code for a confirmed BDS activation?

A

10-80 for a confirmed BDS activation

181
Q

Where do additional units above the initial alarm assignment report at a BDS activaiton incident?

A

the Predesignated Fire Department Staging Area

182
Q

At a BDS activation:

FDNY units will be responsble for decontamination of Group _____ patients.

A

2 and 3

183
Q

During decon ops, the only FD personnel permitted in the builing at a BDS activation will be:

A

HazMat Technicians wearing appropriate PPE

184
Q

Who deems the response of the Decon Shower Apparatus?

A

the IC

shall consult with the HMB, Rescue Operating Batt, or Safety Batt.

185
Q

What is the minimum staffing for primary and back up DSA companies?

A

2 FFs at the decon engine level

186
Q

Where will the DSA be positioned?

A

at the End of the “Contamination Reduction Corridor”

187
Q

What is the recommended positioning of the DSA?

A

in the Middle of the street or Intersection

backed into position so patients enter thru the rear doors

188
Q

What is the appropriate dosage of Narcan?

A

adult AND Pediatric: 4 mg in one nostril. if no or minimal response after 2-3 minutes, repeat (4 mg) into the OTHER nostril.

189
Q

If after _____ the patients respiratory rate is not greater than 10 breaths/min. administer a repeat dose of naloxone.

A

5 minutes

190
Q

What is the minimum distance to keep from a Lithium ION-ESS container/cabinet?

A

50 ft Radius

191
Q

What is the minimum distance to keep from a Lithium ION-ESS container/cabinet exhaust fan opening?

A

100 ft

192
Q

If the FDC is located closer than 50 feet from the nearest container/cabinet, then personnel shall only enter this area under the order of the _____

A

IC

193
Q

At a confirmed fire or smoke showing from the Container/Cabinets on arrival, use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. What type of nozzle do you use with the hoseline?

A

NARROW FOG or STRAIGHT STREAM and maximum reach of the streams if possible.

194
Q

When do you shut down the ESS (ESTOP)?

A

Only for confirmed fire or smoke showing

Do Not shut down the ESS if there is no rise in temperature of the battery or module.

195
Q

The IC shall request the utility company to respond to a CO response if:

A
  1. CO level over 9 ppm is recorded by meter
  2. Units on scene shut off a gas appliance
  3. an individual is exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning
  4. IC feels a response from utility company is required
196
Q

An incident involving multiple victims refers to how many victims?

A

THREE OR MORE

197
Q

At large incidents with multiple victims, who should be addressed first?

A

AMBULATORY

198
Q

What is Noxious Stimulus Triage (NST)?

A

a triage method used when encountering multiple unconscious victims.
MEMBER NUDGES VICTIM

199
Q

If exposure to synthetic opiods occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be:

A

LIGHTLY WETTED

sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off

200
Q

Are FDNY personnel allowed to enter a Lithium Ion-ESS container?

A

NO

201
Q

Can overhauling be performed on any ESS?

A

NO

202
Q

One option for setting up a Mass Decon:

A

stretch a 2-1/2” Handline equipped with an Aquastream FOG Nozzle
Recommended Operating Pressure Range is 50 to 80 psi
consideration can be given to operating 2 handlines opposite each other, approx 25-30 ft apart.
**50 to 80 psi 25-30 ft apart

203
Q

Second option for Mass Decon:

A

2 Pumpers Parallel to each other approx 25 feet apart with the Control Panels Facing The OUTSIDE
place aquastream fod nozzle on each pumper on a selected Inside Discharge Gate.
50 to 80psi

204
Q

Other options for Mass Decon:

A
  • Tower Ladder with a Turbomaster fog nozzle at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers.
  • Aerial Ladder with a Ladder Pipe And Aquastream fog nozzle at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers.
  • if TL or Aeiral is not available or delayed, a 3rd Pumper with an Aquastream fog nozzle attached to the Apparatus Multiversal can be positioned parallel to and in line with one f the first 2 pumpers. Should produce a water spray shower area Approx 20 feet Wide by 30 feet Long
205
Q

In immediately life threatening exposures where emergency decon is necessary:

A

Fog Nozzles can be attached to the Multiversal on an engine, or to a TL Outlet for a very quick gross decon setup

206
Q

Can SOC Support Ladder companies operate at Trench Cave-Ins?

A

Yes, they have received basic training in Trench Rescue.
they shall immediately begin scene evaluation, and hazard identification through the use of their air monitoring equipment

207
Q

Chemical Suicide
As FDNY’s primary mission is life safety, remove patient from “the hazardous environment” and check for responsiveness. If Unresponsive and if the assessment meets fdny criteria for presumed death:

A

handle body as part of the Crime Scene Investigation

208
Q

Chemical Suicide Incident

What is also part of patient care and REMSCO Protocols for Relay to the receiving hospital?

A

Product Identification
can be accomplished by reading the product labels (if labels are not present or unreadable, it will require sampling of precursors and final product identification by a hazmat technician

209
Q

Prior to entry at a BDS alarm activation, what shall be established and what shall be designated?

A

Emergency Decon - established

Backup Team - designated

LT Test 2020 (9 decks)

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