Equine MOD Flashcards

1
Q

When you passport a horse what else must you do?

A

Microchip it

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2
Q

Does a foal need a passport if it’s being sold before it’s 6 months old?

A

No but the new owner has 30 days to get one

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3
Q

When does a foal under 6 months need a passport?

A

Export without its mum or sent for slaughter

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4
Q

Where is a microchip inserted?

A

Nuchal ligament, left hand side of neck

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5
Q

By when must a horse have a passport?

A

By the time its 6 months old or by 31st December of the year it’s born (whichever is latest)

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6
Q

How does the caudal maxillary sinus communicate with the frontal sinus? (horse)

A

Via the frontomaxillary sinus

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7
Q

Where do the rostral maxillary sinus and ventral conchal sinus drain?

A

Into middle meatus of nasal cavity via nasomaxillary aperture

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8
Q

Horses have a huge reservoir of RBCs where?

What causes RBCs to leave here and enter systemic circulation?

A

Spleen
At rest, 1/3 of RBCs are here
Exercise/stress -> adrenaline -> spleen contracts -> RBCs enter circulation. PCV can increase from 30-40% to 50-70% at maximum exercise

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9
Q

Where do the rostral and caudal maxillary sinus’ drain?

A

Middle meatus

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10
Q

Define a mare

A

A female horse 4 or more years old

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11
Q

What kind of breeder is a mare?

When is the breeding season?

A

A long day, seasonally polyoestrus breeder
(Most mares are in anoestrus over winter)
Increasing day length -> breeding season lasts from spring to late summer
A ‘transitional period’ of irregular cycling occurs at the start and end of the season

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12
Q

When does puberty occur in the mare?

A

Between 12 and 24 months

Cycling occurs for rest of life (although fertility may decline)

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13
Q

How long is the oestrus cycle in a horse?
How long does oestrus last?
When does dioestrus occur?

A

Cycle: 21 days
Oestrus: 4-6 days (ovulates in the last 25-48 hrs
Dioestrus: 16-17

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14
Q

Describe the oestrus cycle of a mare

A

Dioestrus: waves of follicles develop, reaching 25mm in size, then regress.
When hormonal conditions are correct, one follicle develops into a ‘dominant’ follicle -> produces oestrogens which induce oestrus
When it reaches >35mm -> ovulates
Oestrus ends within 24 hrs after ovulation
Ovulation site becomes corpus haemorrhagicum then corpus luteum (which produces progesterone)
The CL is refractory to effects of prostaglandins for 3-4 days after formation. After 15 days, endometrium releases prostaglandin -> luteolysis

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15
Q

What stimulates initial growth of follicles during dioestrus?

A

FSH

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16
Q

What stimulates oocyte and follicle maturation and ovulation during oestrus?

A

LH

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17
Q

What is the ‘transitional period’ during the reproductive cycle?

A

A period of change from anoestrus to regular cyclical activity
Lasts up to 6 weeks
Ovaries possess multiple small follicles 10-25mm diameter (‘bunch of grapes’)
Transitional follicles don’t ovulate and eventually regress
Mares show no sign of oestrus/behaviour
Mares mated now will not conceive (as there are no dominant follicles)
Eventually one follicle will develop properly and oestrus cycle will commence
Similar period happens when mares pass into anoestrus from oestrus (Autumn)

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18
Q

How can we manipulate oestrus using prostaglandins?

A

Induce luteolysis in CL
Oestrus will commence 3-5 days post injection
Side effects: transient colic, sweating, diarrhoea

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19
Q

How can we manipulate oestrus using progestagens?

A

Suppress oestrus
Withdrawal of treatment leads to rebound of ovarian activity; useful in shortening Spring transitional period
Intra-vaginal devices (PRID) sometimes used off-license

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20
Q

How can we manipulate oestrus using oestrogen?

A

Induce behavioural signs of oestrus (not true oestrus)

Only useful for maintaining ‘teaser mares’ for AI collection

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21
Q

How can we manipulate oestrus using chorionic gonadotrophin (eCG)?

A

If given during oestrus, will induce the dominant follicle (>35mm) to ovulate within 24 hours

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22
Q

How can we manipulate oestrus using Deslorelin (GnRH analogue)?

A

Hormone implant given sub-cut when follicle >30mm - should induce ovulation within 48hrs

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23
Q

How can we use light to manipulate oestrus?

A

Breeding season can be brought forward by using artificial light over winter
16hrs of light and 8 hrs dark from 2-4 weeks before Winter solstice
Light intensity important-should be able to read newspaper in darkest part of stable
Mares start to ovulate 8-10 weeks later

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24
Q

When should you serve a mare and why?

A

24-48 hours prior to ovulation
Oestrus behaviour ceases within 24hrs of ovulation-no longer receptive to stallion
Unfertilised oocyte viable for only 12 hrs post-ovulation
Spermatozoa viable for up to 48 hrs once in mare, take hours to reach oviduct
Mares served after ovulation have very poor conception rates

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25
Q

How will a mare in oestrus look when being scanned?

A

Dominant follicle on one ovary
Uterine oedema
Soft oedematous cervix

Oestrus: scan again 24-48 hrs later
Not in oestrus: give prostaglandins and scan again 3-5 days later

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26
Q

What happens to the endometrium during oestrus?

A

Becomes increasingly oedematous

Oedema decreases in the 24 hrs before ovulation

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27
Q

How long after mating should you scan the mare?

What are you checking for?

A

12-48 hrs
Has she ovulated (if not-mate again)
Check only one ovulation (twins)
Check for fluid in uterine lumen-post mating endometritis and treat accordingly

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28
Q

How is bacterial entry to the womb prevented?

A

Vulval seal
Vestibular seal
Cervical competence

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29
Q

How does poor perineal conformation lead to bacterial entry to the womb?

A

Poor perineal conformation prevents vulval and vestibular seals forming -> bacteria enters womb -> pneumovagina -> urovagina -> cervicitis
Uterine contamination prevents implantation of conceptus

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30
Q

Describe a good perineal conformation

A

No more than 4cm of vulva above pelvic brim

No greater than 10 degree slope to the vulva

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31
Q

How can you treat perineal conformation problems?

A

Caslick’s vulvoplasty
Remove a very narrow strip of vulval mucosa and suture up vulval seal, leaving 3cm unopposed to allow for urination
Sutures must be removed 5-10 days prior to parturition to prevent tears

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32
Q

How would you treat a persistent CL?

A

Give prostaglandins

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33
Q

What effects do granulosa cell tumours have on mares?
How are they diagnosed?
What is the treatment?

A

Cause either nymphomania, stallion-like behaviour or persistent anoestrus
Diagnosed by scan and blood test for Anti-Mullerian hormone
Surgery

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34
Q

Does endometritis affect conception?

A

No, but affects implantation and the inflammatory prostaglandins released may hasten luteolysis

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35
Q

What are the 3 types of endometritis?

A

Chronic infectious metritis
Free fluid in lumen
Mating-induced endometritis

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36
Q

Describe chronic infectious endometritis

A

Often caused by contamination of repro tract due to poor perineal conformation
May be reduced uterine immune defences
Agents include: E.coli, Pseudominas, Klebsiella, Strep. zooepidemicus, occasionally yeast/fungi

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37
Q

Describe endometritis where there is free-fluid in the lumen

A

Occurs as a result of uterine oedema during oestrus
May be sterile initially but good culture medium for bacteria
Could be due to delayed uterine clearance by incompetent mares (underlying motility disorder?)

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38
Q

Describe mating-induced endometritis

A

Mating contaminates repro tract with flora on stallions penis
Semen is inflammatory in itself
Transient inflammation is normal after mating/foaling/vaginal exam
Should be cleared up within 12 hours
Persists in some mares (abnormal uterine defences) -> embryonic loss, possibly chronic endometritis

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39
Q

How could you investigate endometritis?

A

Scan, especially post-service (needs treating if persistent fluid or fluid >1-2cm in depth)
Uterine swab and smear (culture, cytology)
Endometrial biopsy (histopath)

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40
Q

How can you treat endometritis?

A
Uterine lavage (saline)
Oxytocin (repeated doses every few hours)
Intrauterine antibiotics
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41
Q

How can you prevent endometritis?

A

Use of AI to minimise contamination

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42
Q

Why when treating endometritis, must you carry out treatment before day 5 of pregnancy?

A

The fertilised conceptus stays in the oviducts until about day 5 of pregnancy, after this it will be in the uterus. Therefore treatment of the uterus after day 5 will risk jeopardising the pregnancy

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43
Q

Describe chronic degenerative endometrial disease (endometriosis)

A

Progressive degeneration of endometrium and its replacement by fibrotic tissue
Major cause of age-related infertility (esp Thoroughbreds)
Begins about 11-12 yrs
Pregnancy has a positive effect, and lessens progression
Diagnosis: Histopath on endometrial biopsy
No treatment

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44
Q

Why might a mare have cervical incompetence?

A

Congenital problems or from foaling injury

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45
Q

Uterine cysts look similar to pregnancies on a scan, how can you differentiate between them?

A

Re-scan the mare in 24-48 hrs; the cyst will remain static in size and shape whereas the cenceptus will grow and will be motile up to day 16

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46
Q

Do uterine cysts cause fertility problems?

A

Rarely, unless very large

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47
Q

How would you perform a pre-breeding disease clearance test?

A

Clitoral swab for contagious equine metritis, send off to lab

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48
Q

What is the gestation period of a horse?

A

340 days
Overdue foals seldom cause a problem
Prematurity -> neonatal disease

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49
Q

Where does fertilisation occur?

A

Ampulla of oviduct

Embryo remains here for 5 days then it enters the uterus

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50
Q

When does the embryo migrate around the uterus and why?

A

Between day 5 (enters uterus) and 15/16

Essential for maternal recognition of pregnancy and prevention of prostaglandin release by endometrium

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51
Q

When does the embryo position itself in the uterus and where?

A

Day 15-16, usually at the base of a horn

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52
Q

When does placental attachment begin during pregnancy?

What else happens then?

A

Day 36

Endometrial cup production and attachment

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53
Q

When does the foetus grow into the uterine body?

A

After 70-80 days

Found mostly in the body until 6-7 months, after which it is so large that it occupies part of the horn again

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54
Q

How is pregnancy maintained?

A

CL produces progesterone

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55
Q

When do endometrial cups start secreting eCG?

A

From day 35

They maintain pregnancy for the first 5 months

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56
Q

What does eCG (equine chorionic gonadotropin) do during pregnancy?

A

Maintains primary CL and encourages secondary CL formation

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57
Q

When do endometrial cups degenerate during pregnancy?

A

Around day 70, gone by day 150

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58
Q

How are the first 5 months of pregnancy maintained?

A

Endometrial cups secrete eCG -> maintains primary CL and encourages formation of secondary CL

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59
Q

After about day 200 of pregnancy, all CLs have degenerated, so how is pregnancy maintained?

A

Foetal-placental progesterone production (acts locally)

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60
Q

When do foetal gonads start producing oestrogens during pregnancy?

A

From day 60 onwards

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61
Q

Abortions must be carried out by when if the mare is to be mated again in the same breeding season?
Why?

A

Before day 35, as this is when endometrial cups develop. These remain even if the foal has died. The mare will not come into oestrus whilst the cups are present.

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62
Q

How can you diagnose equine pregnancy?

A
Failure of mare to return to oestrus
Lab tests (serum, measure eCG from days 45-90, or oestrone sulphate from day 120 onwards) (urine-oestrone sulphate from day 150)
Manual rectal exam (usually done at 6 weeks, can ballot foetus at day 120)
Rectal ultrasound (can be done from about 10 days after mating, although embryonic death and twins can occur after this)
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63
Q

When during pregnancy are early embryonic death rates highest?

A

In first 14 days

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64
Q

From when can you only image parts of the foetus, not the whole thing? (scanning)

A

6 weeks

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65
Q

When are PD scans usually carried out? (3)

A

15-16 days post-mating

  • check for pregnancy or return to oestrus
  • check for twins (can reduce whilst embryos are motile and can be separated, and before endometrial cups have developed)

24-26 days post-mating

  • heartbeat visible
  • can still reduce twins before cups have established
6 weeks (optional)
-reassess (embryonic death less likely)
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66
Q

On a rectal ultrasound, how big will the conceptus be at 14 days, 16 days, 20 days, 25 days and 65 days?

A
14 days= 1cm
16 days= 1.5cm
20 days= 2cm
25 days= 3cm
65 days= 10cm
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67
Q

From when can a trans-abdominal scan be performed?

A

6 months onwards

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68
Q

How do you classify foetal death during pregnancy?

A

From fertilisation to day 40: early embryonic death
Day 40-300: abortion
Day 300 onwards: stillbirth

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69
Q

Give some causes of failure of pregnancy

A
Early embryonic death
Viral (EHV-equine herpes virus 1, EVA-equine viral arteritis)
Bacterial
Fungal
Twins
Maternal stress/illness
Foetal abnormalities
Umbilical torsion
Idiopathic
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70
Q

Give some causes of early embryonic death

A

Congenital abnomalities
Breeding on foal heat
Uterine environment problems (fibrosis, endometritis)

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71
Q

How may you reduce the risk of equine herpes virus in pregnant mares?

A

Vaccinate at 5, 7 and 9 months of pregnancy

May reduce risk of disease but doesn’t give full immunity

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72
Q

How can you diagnose equine herpes virus in pregnant mares?

A

PCR of nasopharyngeal swabs for horses showing respiratory signs
PCR of aborted material

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73
Q

When does abortion from equine herpes virus 1 occur?

A

Late term (>5 months), 1-3 months post-infection

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74
Q

How does equine viral arteritis (EVA) affect stallions and mares?

A

Stallions: become persistent infected shedders
Mares: abort then recover

Notifiable
Vaccine available

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75
Q

Which bacteria usually cause bacterial abortion?

How do they cause abortion?

A

Strep species, E.coli, Staph species
Occasionally Salmonella, Leptosporosis

Causes: ascending infection from cervix, haematogenous spread, introduction of bacteria at breeding (from stallion’s penis)

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76
Q

Although fungal infection is a rare cause of abortion, which fungal species is usually the cause?

A

Aspergillus spp

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77
Q

Why does a twin pregnancy lead to failure of pregnancy?

A

Mares are not designed to carry more than 1 foal- placenta needs to contact up to 70% of available uterus for adequate nutrition of foetus
Twins compete with each other for attachment space (nutrition). Often one twin runs out of space and dies. The other twin eventually is deprived of space by the remnants of the dead twin and is aborted.

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78
Q

Which is more likely to result in one twin being born:
Both twins in same horn
Twins in opposite horns
Why?

A

Both twins in same horn, as one twin may die early on whilst it is still small.
If in opposite horns, twins are more likely to abort as they’ll both get to a reasonable size before competing with each other

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79
Q

What percentage of twin pregnancies results in 2 live foals?

A

2 live: 1%

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80
Q

Of twin pregnancies, what percentage results in a live foal?

A

63%

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81
Q

What are some signs of abortion?

A

Vaginal discharge
Running milk
Colic/foaling signs
May be no signs at all

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82
Q

How can you investigate abortion?

A

Send whole foal carcass and placenta to pathologist
If not possible:
Examine placenta and cord
External exam of foal: weight, crown-rump length
Internal exam
Sample chorion, thymus, liver, lung, spleen
Samples from mare rarely useful

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83
Q

How do you induce abortion before 3 months?

A

Prostaglandin infection, abortion will occur 5-8 days later

If endometrial cups present, mare will not return to oestrus this breeding season

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84
Q

How do you induce abortion after 3 months?

A

Repeated prostaglandin injections (twice daily between days 80-150 -> abortion 2-5 days later)
Dilation of cervix and uterine lavage
Trans-abdominal injection of potassium chloride into foetal heart?
Dislocation of foetal neck per rectum?
Considerable risk in attempting termination of pregnancies after 100 days

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85
Q

How do you induce foaling?

A

Inject 1-2ml oxytoxin every 15-20 mins until delivery starts (may only need 1 dose)
Mare must be close to foaling anyway

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86
Q

What are the risks with inducing foaling?

A

Uterine rupture
Dystocia
Foal immaturity (matures in last 1% of pregnancy)
Retained membranes

Avoid unless absolutely necessary

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87
Q

What kind of placenta does a horse have?

A

Diffuse, epithelio-chorial

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88
Q

Give some risk factors for neonatal disease

A

Mare: placentitis, placental insufficiency, maternal illness, early lactation, poor colostral production
Foal: prematurity, failure of passive transfer
Dystocia
Premature placental separation

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89
Q

How long does it take a newborn foal to adapt to the external environment?
How one does it take it to stand and suck?

A

24-48 hours

Usually stands within 1 hour, sucks within 2

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90
Q

What is the difference between prematurity and dysmaturity?

A

Prematurity: a foal born before 320 days gestation that displays immature physical characteristics
Dysmaturity: a full-term foal that displays immature physical characteristics

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91
Q

Give some characteristics of a premature/dysmature foal?

A
Low birth rate 
Short, silky hair coat
Floppy ears
Domed head 
Weakness, prolonged time to stand  
Flexor tendon laxity 
Incomplete ossification of tarsal and carpal bones 
Severe cases: multiplayer organ dysfunction (eg respiratory depression)
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92
Q

By when do foals have adult levels of IgG?

A

4 months old

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93
Q

When is the crossover between maternal and foal IgG?

A

8-9 weeks old

IgG= 400mg/dl

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94
Q

What is the half life of maternal IgG?

A

20-23 days

Declines by 1-2 months

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95
Q

How are colostral antibodies absorbed?

A

Specialist enterocytes absorb the IgG by pinocytosis
These cells have a lifespan of max 24 hours
Maximum absorption occurs within 8 hours of life

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96
Q

How much colostrum must a foal have?

A

1 litre of colostrum within first 6 hours of life

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97
Q

Give some predisposing factors for failure of passive transfer

A

Loss of colostrum via premature lactation (eg due to premature placental separation)
Inadequate colostrum (IgG/volume) production
Failure to ingest adequate volume of colostrum
Failure to absorb colostrum

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98
Q

When is the best time to test passive transfer?

How?

A

18-24 hours
ZST (zinc sulphate turbidity test)
ELISA
Colostrum specific gravity can be tested pre-suck

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99
Q

What value of IgG indicates normal transfer of maternal antibodies?

A

> 8g/l

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100
Q

How do you treat failure of passive transfer?

A

If >12-24 hours, give foal plasma (from mare or commercial)

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101
Q

What are the consequences of failure of passive transfer?

A

Immediate-septicaemia

Rotaviral infections, joint sepsis, respiratory disease (1-4 months old)

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102
Q

By when should a foal develop a suck reflex?

A

Within 20 minutes

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103
Q

What is the body temp of a horse?

A

36.5- 38.5 (don’t show very high temperatures unless very unwell)

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104
Q

What is the body temp of a foal?

A

37.2-38.9 degrees (reflects environmental temp)

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105
Q

What is the heart rate of a foal?

A

Birth: 40-80 bpm

First week: 60-190 bpm

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106
Q

What is the heart rate of a horse?

A

27-40 bpm

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107
Q

What is the resp rate of an adult horse?

A

12-16 brpm

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108
Q

What is the resp rate of a foal?

A

Newborn: 45-60 brpm (no nostril flaring or exaggerated rib movement)
7 days of age: 35-50 brpm

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109
Q

By when should a foal pass meconium?

A

Within 24 hours

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110
Q

By when should a foal first urinate?

A

Dilute and large volumes first passed by 6 hours (colts) or 10 hours (fillies)

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111
Q

What is the average weight of a newborn foal?

A

45-55kg

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112
Q

What is the average weight gain of a new born foal?

A

0.5-1.5 kg/day

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113
Q

How much of its mothers milk should a newborn foal consume a day?

A

20-28% bodyweight

Feed every 2 hours

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114
Q

What partial pressure of oxygen indicates cyanosis in foals?

A

PaO2

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115
Q

Give some signs of sepsis in the mucous membranes of a foal

A

Congestion, petechiae

Brick red mucous membranes

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116
Q

When doing a physical exam on a foal, where should you pay particular attention to?

A

Umbilicus
Joints
Mucous membranes
Auscultation

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117
Q

How can you identify sepsis in a foal?

A
Blood culture (3 days for results, changes in foal can happen within hours)
Sepsis score (neutrophil numbers, fibrinogen concentration, blood glucose, clinical exam, history)
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118
Q

How can you identify umbilical infection in a foal?

A

Ultrasound-look at umbilical vessels
Enlarged umbilicus
Drainage of pus
Pain on palpation

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119
Q

How can you diagnose pneumonia in a foal?

A

Radiography, blood gas analysis

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120
Q

How can you diagnose osteomyelitis/arthritis in a foal?

A

Synovial fluid analysis, radiography

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121
Q

Give an NSAID suitable for septicaemic foals

A

Flunixin 0.5-1mg/kg bid

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122
Q

What is oliguria?

What could you give to a foal with oliguria?

A

Production of abnormally small amounts of urine

Diuretics if persistent (furosemide-loop or mannitol-osmotic)

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123
Q

How often should you feed a sick foal?

A

Every 2 hours

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124
Q

Which antibiotics can you use in foals?

A

Aminoglycosides (care in young foals- nephrotoxicity)
Penicillins and other beta-lactams
Ceftiofur (high doses eg 5mg/kg)
Cefquinome 1mg/kg

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125
Q

How can you provide respiratory support in a newborn foal?

A

Move it from lateral to sternal recumbency (improves resp function)
Intranasal oxygen
Mechanical ventilation
Drugs (bronchodilators- B2 agonists, central stimulants)

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126
Q

Describe a sick foal

A

Weak, depressed, lack of suck reflex

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127
Q

What is the most important differential in a sick foal?

A

Neonatal septicaemia

Risk factors: FPT, hygiene, stress, management, disease

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128
Q

Which common pathogens can cause septicaemia in foals?

A

E.coli, Actinobacillus, Salmonella spp, Proteus, Klebsiella (all gram negative)
Beta-haemolytic streptococcus, Staphyocloccus, clodtridia

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129
Q

How do organisms enter the foal to cause septicaemia?

A

Openings (umbilicus?)
Open gut
Inhalation
In utero (mare placentitis)

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130
Q

What are the clinical signs of foal septicaemia?

A

Foal is off suck and lethargic
Increase resp rate and effort
Acute severe lameness
Discharge or swelling of umbilicus
Congested, dark mucous membranes or severe petechial haemeorrhages
Hypopyon (pus in anterior chamber of eye)
Diarrhoea
Meningitis
Fever not consistent (shock= low temp, SARS= high temp)

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131
Q

What is SARS?

A

Severe acute respiratory syndrome

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132
Q

Describe the physiology of septic shock (SIRS- systemic inflammatory response syndrome)

A

Vasoactive inflammatory mediators -> vasodilation
Increased metabolic rate and oxygen consumption
CO initially increased (hyperdynamic phase)
Microvascular permeability -> volume maldistribution
Increased CO can no longer be maintained (hypodynamic phase)

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133
Q

What does septic shock result in in foals?

A

Multiple organ failure
CNS depression
Renal failure
Autonomic exhaustion and decompensation of circulation

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134
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for a foal with respiratory signs

A
Neonatal septicaemia
Viral pneumonia 
Meconium aspiration 
Aspiration pneumonia 
Pneumothorax
Respiratory distress syndrome 
Pulmonary hypertension
Central respiratory depression
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135
Q

What is CID/SDID?

A

Failure to produce functional B and T lymphocytes
Autosomal recessive
Arab breeds
Normal at birth, disease begins at 1-2 months old
Lethal

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136
Q

How do you diagnose CID/SCID?

A

Clinical signs

Persistent lymphopenia

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137
Q

What is PAS?

A

Perinatal asphyxia syndrome

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138
Q

Describe PAS

A

Dummy foals
HIE (hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy)
Ischaemia, oedema and reperfusion injury to brain, kidneys, intestines and other organs due to lack of oxygen
Caused by in utero hypoxia or interruption of oxygen supply during birth
May not be apparent until foal is 12-24 hours old
Central respiratory depression

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139
Q

Give the symptoms of mild, moderate and severe PAS

A

Mild: unable to attach to mare, poor suck reflex
Moderate: aimless wandering, abnormal phonation (‘barkers’), blind
Severe: seizures, coma

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140
Q

How can you control seizures in foals with PAS?

A

Diazepam, phenobarbital

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141
Q

What can be given to foal with PAS that have cerebral oedema?

A

DMSO (dimethyl-sulfoxide)

Has anti inflammatory properties, traps free radicals

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142
Q

Are ruptured bladders more common in male or female foals?

A

Male due to longer urethra

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143
Q

Describe the aetiology of a ruptured bladder in a foal?

A

Usually excessive pressure during parturition on a distended bladder
Congenital defect also possible, due to dorsal site where there is a change in the muscle of the bladder wall

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144
Q

Describe the presentation of a foal with a ruptured bladder

A

Signs normally present within first 2-3 days of life
Dysuria (painful urination) esp stranguria (frequent attempts to urinate with only small amounts passed)
Depression and abdominal distension after 2 days

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145
Q

How do you diagnose a ruptured bladder in a foal?

A

Post-renal azotaemia with hyponatraemia (low sodium), hypochloraemia (low chloride ions) and hyperkalaemia (high potassium)
Ultrasound (urine in abdomen)
May see calcium carbonate crystals in peritoneal fluid

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146
Q

Why do newborn foals have proteinuria?

A

Absorb small molecular weight proteins from colostrum

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147
Q

How do you manage a ruptured bladder in a foal?

A

Correct metabolic acidosis and electrolyte changes with IV fluids
Hyperkalaemia may induce arrythmias -> give 0.9% saline with 5% glucose
Resp distress, atelectasis etc should be corrected with oxygen therapy, ventilation and reducing abdominal fluid
Slowly drain peritoneal fluid prior to surgery (it removing urachus)

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148
Q

How does a foal with colic present?

A

Quiet, will lie down and curl up (like a croissant)

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149
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for a foal with colic?

A
Meconium impaction 
Ruptured bladder/uroperitoneum 
Overfeeding/ lactose intolerance 
Distension from diarrhoea
Gastric ulcers
SI/ LI obstruction 
Congenital abnormalities
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150
Q

Newborn foals have 30-40% higher what than an adult?

A

Creatinine

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151
Q

Describe neonatal isoerythrolysis

A

Aa and Qa negative mares mated to positive stallions
Foal inherits RBC antigens from stallion
Exposure of the mare to these antigens causes her to produce alloantibodies to the foals RBCs
At birth, the foal ingests later numbers of RBC antibodies in colostrum -> haemolytic anaemia

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152
Q

How can you diagnose neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Coombs test to detect antibodies on RBCS

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153
Q

How can you prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Blood type both parents before mating

Can withhold colostrum or use jaundiced foal agglutination (JFA) test to detect antibodies against foal RBC’s

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154
Q

What is the treatment for neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A
Blood transfusion (if PCV 12-15% or less)
Donors must be Qa or Aa negative, or washed mare RBCs 
Supportive care (antibiotics, anti-ulcer meds, monitor fluids, glucose, nursing)
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155
Q

Foal heat diarrhoea affects foals of what age?
Why does it occur?
How does it present?

A

5-12 days
Changes in bacterial flora in foal
Alteration in milk composition relating to hormonal changes in mare (oestrus)
Mild, self-limiting diarrhoea
No treatments, or can use probiotics or intestinal protectants

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156
Q

Describe clostridial diarrhoea

A

Severe peracute frequently fatal
Necrotising foul-smelling faeces
Seen in individual septicaemic foals and as outbreaks
Cl difficile and Cl perfringens most common (normal Gi inhabitants)
Severe gas distension and colic
Contagious-isolate

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157
Q

How do you diagnose clostridial diarrhoea in foals?

A

Culture- normal flora so interpretation difficult
ELISA or PCR (for toxins)
Gas in or on the mucosa in ultrasound

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158
Q

How do you treat clostridial diarrhoea?

A

Metronidazole, penicillin

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159
Q

Describe cryptosporidium infection in foals

A
No intermediate hosts 
Faeco-oral infection 
Attach to brush border 
Incubation 3-7 days 
Diagnosis: flotation of faecal Oocytes or direct FA
Treatment: supportive therapy
Prevention: good hygiene and management
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160
Q

Describe rotavirus infection in foals

A

1-4 weeks of age
Highly infectious (outbreaks)
Diarrhoea
Diagnosis: ELISA, electron microscopy
Treatment: passive immunisation, supportive therapy
Prevention: phenolic disinfectants,passive immunisation, vaccination of pregnant mares?

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161
Q

What causes equine strangles?

A

Streptococcus equi

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162
Q

Describe Rhodococcus equi

A
Excreted in dams faeces, builds up on pasture in warm, dry conditions, ingested, colonises WBCs, abscessation 
Enteric infection (persistent diarrhoea, fever)
Intra-abdominal abscess (fever, colic)
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163
Q

What causes equine proliferative enteropathy (EPE)?

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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164
Q

What are the effects of equine proliferative enteropathy (EPE)?
How old are affected foals?
How do they get it?

A

Weight loss, oedema, lethargy, depression, weakness, diarrhoea, mild colic
3-11 months of age
Infection from faeces (equine or other species)

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165
Q

How do you diagnose equine proliferative enteropathy (EPE)?

A

Ultrasound
Hypoproteinaemia
PCR of faeces and serology

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166
Q

How do you treat equine proliferative enteropathy (EPE)?

A

Antimicrobials eh erythromycin, rifampin, Oxytetracycline

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167
Q

Give some mechanisms for weight loss in a horse

A

Reduced intake: inappropriate feeding, competition for feed, dental disorders, dysphagia, unable to obtain feed
Reduced digestion or absorption of nutrients: dental disorders, malabsorption syndrome, liver disease
Increased losses: protein-losing enteropathy
Increased requirements: pregnancy, lactation, sepsis, neoplasia, other systemic disease

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168
Q

Give some common causes of weight loss

A

Dental disorders, parasitism, inadequate diet, PPID (Cushings disease), liver disease, malabsorption and protein-losing enteropathy, chronic diarrhoea, abdominal abscess, renal disease, cardiac disease. Chronic thoracic disease, non-GI neoplasia, equine grass sickness

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169
Q

Why are enzyme deficiencies not a problem in horses?

A

Bacteria in the hind-gut are able to adapt to increased substances eg lactose that would increase in the absence of enzymes

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170
Q

What% ofa horsesBWTshoulditbeeatinginbulk?

A

Between 2 and 2.5% BW in roughage

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171
Q

What is the difference between chronic and recurrent colic?

A

Chronic: colic signs of variable intensity lasting 48 hours or more
Recurrent: shorter period of colic pain which recur at variable intervals

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172
Q

What is ‘colic?’

A

Acute abdominal pain
Only a symptom
Most commonly related to GI tract

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173
Q

Give the causes of recurrent colic

A

Anything that pulls on the mesentery
Non-intestinal
Gastrointestinal: mesenteric traction, motility disorders, inflammatory, intermittent partial/complete obstruction

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174
Q

What % DM is hay, haylage and grass?

A

Hay: 85%
Haylage: 65%
Grass: 45%

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175
Q

Crib-biting increases the likelihood of which type of colic?

A

Gas-type colic

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176
Q

What should you check when investigating chronic GIT disease?

A
History-weight loss? Previous colic?
Rectal exam
Diet
Teeth
Worming history/faecal test
Possible feed competition 
Next check serum proteins, the perform peritoneal fluid analysis
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177
Q

Tapeworms can cause colic in which location?

A

Ileo-caecal junction

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178
Q

How does chronic inflammatory disease affect globulins?

A

Causes hyperglobulinaemia

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179
Q

Give some causes of hyperfibrinogenaemia

A

Infection
Inflammation
Neoplasia

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180
Q

How can you investigate weight loss?

A

Oral glucose absorption test (SI): starve overnight, give 1gm/kg in a 20% soliton administered by nasogastric tube, measure absorption into blood
Rectal biopsy
Duodenal biopsy

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181
Q

Describe the results of an oral glucose absorption test

A

Normal: >85% increase in blood glucose concentration at 2 hours
Partial: 15-85% increases at 2 hours (SI or LI disease, or normal)
Complete:

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182
Q

From where should you take a rectal biopsy?

A

20-30cm inside rectum at 4 or 8 o clock

Take a small piece of mucosa

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183
Q

Where would you scan to view the stomach on an ultrasound?

A

8th-13th intercostal space, left side of abdomen

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184
Q

How do infiltrative bowel diseases cause weight loss?

A

Presence of inflammatory cells in intestinal wall -> malabsorption and protein-loss

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185
Q

How do you treat infiltrative bowel diseases?

A

Prednisolone
Dexamethasone
Anthelmintics

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186
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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186
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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187
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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188
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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189
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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190
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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191
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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192
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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193
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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194
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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195
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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196
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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197
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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198
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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199
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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200
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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201
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with violently painful colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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202
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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203
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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204
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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205
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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206
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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207
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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208
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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209
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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210
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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211
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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212
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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213
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

What are the clinical signs?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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214
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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215
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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216
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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217
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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218
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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219
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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220
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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221
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral? (unilateral=lesion rostral to nasal septum)
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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222
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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223
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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224
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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225
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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226
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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227
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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228
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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229
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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230
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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231
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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232
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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233
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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234
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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235
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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236
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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237
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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238
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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239
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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240
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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241
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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242
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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243
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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244
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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245
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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246
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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247
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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248
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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249
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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250
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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251
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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252
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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253
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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254
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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255
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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256
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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257
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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258
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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259
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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260
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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261
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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262
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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263
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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264
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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265
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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266
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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267
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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268
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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269
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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270
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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271
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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272
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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273
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

When does it abduct the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

Opens glottis during exercise

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274
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

When does it close the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

Closes glottis during swallowing

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275
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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276
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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277
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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278
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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279
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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280
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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281
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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282
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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283
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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284
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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285
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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286
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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287
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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288
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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289
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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290
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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291
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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292
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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293
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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294
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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295
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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296
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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297
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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298
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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299
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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300
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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301
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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302
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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303
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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304
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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305
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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306
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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307
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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308
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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309
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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310
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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311
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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312
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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313
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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314
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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315
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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316
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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317
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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318
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A

Foals
Usually unilateral
Marked retropharyngeal swelling
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
Tx: fenestration of membrane separating the two pouches to allow air to move into the non-affected pouch and leave through pharynx

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319
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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320
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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321
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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322
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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323
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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324
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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325
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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326
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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327
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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328
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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329
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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330
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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331
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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332
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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333
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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334
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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335
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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336
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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337
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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338
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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339
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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340
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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341
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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342
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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343
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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344
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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345
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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346
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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347
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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348
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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349
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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350
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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351
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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352
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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353
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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354
Q

What is the name of the equine roundworm?

A

Parascaris equorum

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356
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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357
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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358
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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359
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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360
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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361
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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362
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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363
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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364
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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365
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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366
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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367
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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368
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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369
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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370
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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371
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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372
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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373
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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374
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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375
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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376
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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377
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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378
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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379
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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380
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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381
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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382
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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383
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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384
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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385
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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386
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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387
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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388
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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389
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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390
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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391
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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392
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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393
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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394
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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395
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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396
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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397
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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398
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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399
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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400
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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401
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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402
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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403
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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404
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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405
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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406
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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407
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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408
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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409
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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410
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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411
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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412
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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413
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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414
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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415
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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416
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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417
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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418
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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419
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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420
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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421
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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422
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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423
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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424
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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425
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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426
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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427
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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428
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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429
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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430
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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431
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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432
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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433
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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434
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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435
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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436
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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437
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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438
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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439
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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440
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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441
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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442
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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443
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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444
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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445
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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446
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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447
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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448
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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449
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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450
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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451
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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452
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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453
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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454
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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455
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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456
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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457
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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458
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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459
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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460
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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461
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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462
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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463
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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464
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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465
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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466
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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467
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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468
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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469
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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470
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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471
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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472
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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473
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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474
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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475
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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476
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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477
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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478
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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479
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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480
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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481
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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482
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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483
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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484
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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485
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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486
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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487
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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488
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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489
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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490
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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491
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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492
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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493
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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494
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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495
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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496
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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497
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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498
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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499
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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500
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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501
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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502
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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503
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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504
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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505
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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506
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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507
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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508
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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509
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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510
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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511
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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512
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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513
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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514
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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515
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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516
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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517
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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518
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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519
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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520
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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521
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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522
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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523
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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524
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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525
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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526
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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527
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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528
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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529
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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530
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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531
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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532
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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533
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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534
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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535
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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536
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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537
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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538
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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539
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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540
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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541
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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542
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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543
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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544
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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545
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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546
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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547
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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548
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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549
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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550
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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551
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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552
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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553
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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554
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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555
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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556
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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557
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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558
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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559
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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560
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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561
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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562
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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563
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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564
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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565
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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566
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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567
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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568
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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569
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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570
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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571
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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572
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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573
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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574
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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575
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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576
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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577
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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578
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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579
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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580
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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581
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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582
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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583
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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584
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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585
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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586
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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587
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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588
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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589
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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590
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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591
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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592
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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593
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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594
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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595
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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596
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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597
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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598
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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599
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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600
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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601
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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602
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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603
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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604
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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605
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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606
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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607
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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608
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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609
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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610
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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611
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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612
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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613
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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614
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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615
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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616
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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617
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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618
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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619
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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620
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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621
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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622
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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623
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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624
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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625
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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626
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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627
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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628
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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629
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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630
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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631
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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632
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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633
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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634
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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635
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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636
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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637
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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638
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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639
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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640
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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641
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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642
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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643
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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644
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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645
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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646
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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647
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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648
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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649
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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650
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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651
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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652
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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653
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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654
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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655
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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656
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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657
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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658
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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659
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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660
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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661
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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662
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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663
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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664
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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665
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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666
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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667
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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668
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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669
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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670
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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671
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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672
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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673
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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674
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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675
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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676
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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677
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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678
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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679
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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680
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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681
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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682
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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683
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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684
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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685
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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686
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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687
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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688
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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689
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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690
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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691
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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692
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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693
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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694
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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695
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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696
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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697
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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698
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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699
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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700
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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701
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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702
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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703
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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704
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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705
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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706
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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707
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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708
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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709
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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710
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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711
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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712
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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713
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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714
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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715
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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716
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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717
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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718
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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719
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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720
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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721
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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722
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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723
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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724
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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725
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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726
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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727
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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728
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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729
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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730
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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731
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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732
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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733
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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734
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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735
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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736
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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737
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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738
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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739
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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740
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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741
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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742
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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743
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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744
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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745
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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746
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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747
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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748
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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749
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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750
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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751
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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752
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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753
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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754
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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755
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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756
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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757
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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758
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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759
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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760
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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761
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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762
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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763
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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764
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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765
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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766
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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767
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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768
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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769
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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770
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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771
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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772
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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773
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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774
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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775
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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776
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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777
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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778
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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779
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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780
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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781
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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782
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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783
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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784
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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785
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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786
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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787
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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788
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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789
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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790
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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791
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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792
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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793
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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794
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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795
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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796
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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797
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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798
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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799
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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800
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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801
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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802
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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803
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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804
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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805
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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806
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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807
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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808
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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809
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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810
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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811
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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812
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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813
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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814
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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815
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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816
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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817
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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818
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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819
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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820
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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821
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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822
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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823
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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824
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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825
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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826
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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827
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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828
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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829
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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830
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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831
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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832
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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833
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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834
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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835
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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836
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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837
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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838
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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839
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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840
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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841
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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842
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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843
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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844
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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845
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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846
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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847
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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848
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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849
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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850
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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851
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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852
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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853
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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854
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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855
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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856
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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857
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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858
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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859
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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860
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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861
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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862
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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863
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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864
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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865
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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866
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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867
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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868
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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869
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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870
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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871
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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872
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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873
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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874
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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875
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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876
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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877
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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878
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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879
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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880
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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881
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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882
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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883
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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884
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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885
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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886
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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887
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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888
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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889
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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890
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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891
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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892
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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893
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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894
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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895
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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896
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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897
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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898
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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899
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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900
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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901
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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902
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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903
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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904
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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905
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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906
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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907
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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908
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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909
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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910
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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911
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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912
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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913
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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914
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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915
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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916
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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917
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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918
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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919
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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920
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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921
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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922
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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923
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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924
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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925
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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926
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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927
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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928
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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929
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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930
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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931
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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932
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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933
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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934
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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935
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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936
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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937
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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938
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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939
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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940
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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941
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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942
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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943
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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944
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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945
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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946
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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947
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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948
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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949
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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950
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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951
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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952
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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953
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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954
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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955
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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956
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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957
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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958
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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959
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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960
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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961
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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962
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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963
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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964
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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965
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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966
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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967
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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968
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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969
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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970
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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971
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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972
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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973
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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974
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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975
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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976
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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977
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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978
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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979
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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980
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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981
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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982
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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983
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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984
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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985
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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986
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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987
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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988
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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989
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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990
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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991
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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992
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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993
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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994
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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995
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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996
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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997
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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998
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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999
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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1000
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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1001
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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1002
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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1003
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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1004
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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1005
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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1006
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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1007
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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1008
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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1009
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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1010
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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1011
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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1012
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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1013
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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1014
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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1015
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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1016
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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1017
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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1018
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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1019
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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1020
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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1021
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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1022
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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1023
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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1024
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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1025
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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1026
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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1027
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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1028
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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1029
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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1030
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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1031
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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1032
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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1033
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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1034
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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1035
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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1036
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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1037
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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1038
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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1039
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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1040
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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1041
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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1042
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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1043
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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1044
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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1045
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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1046
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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1047
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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1048
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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1049
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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1050
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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1051
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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1052
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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1053
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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1054
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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1055
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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1056
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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1057
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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1058
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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1059
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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1060
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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1061
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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1062
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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1063
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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1064
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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1065
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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1066
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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1067
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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1068
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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1069
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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1070
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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1071
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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1072
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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1073
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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1074
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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1075
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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1076
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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1077
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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1078
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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1079
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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1080
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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1081
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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1082
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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1083
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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1084
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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1085
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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1086
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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1087
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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1088
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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1089
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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1090
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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1091
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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1092
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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1093
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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1094
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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1095
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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1096
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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1097
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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1098
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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1099
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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1100
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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1101
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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1102
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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1103
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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1104
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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1105
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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1106
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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1107
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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1108
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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1109
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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1110
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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1111
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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1112
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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1113
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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1114
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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1115
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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1116
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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1117
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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1118
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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1119
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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1120
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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1121
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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1122
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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1123
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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1124
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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1125
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1126
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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1127
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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1128
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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1129
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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1130
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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1131
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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1132
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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1133
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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1134
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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1135
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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1136
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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1137
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1138
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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1139
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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1140
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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1141
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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1142
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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1143
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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1144
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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1145
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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1146
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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1147
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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1148
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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1149
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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1150
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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1151
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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1152
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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1153
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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1154
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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1155
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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1156
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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1157
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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1158
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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1159
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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1160
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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1161
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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1162
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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1163
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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1164
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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1165
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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1166
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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1167
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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1168
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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1169
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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1170
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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1171
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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1172
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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1173
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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1174
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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1175
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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1176
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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1177
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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1178
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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1179
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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1180
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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1181
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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1182
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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1183
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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1184
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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1185
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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1186
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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1187
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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1188
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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1189
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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1190
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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1191
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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1192
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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1193
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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1194
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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1195
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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1196
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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1197
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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1198
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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1199
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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1200
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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1201
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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1202
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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1203
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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1204
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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1205
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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1206
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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1207
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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1208
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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1209
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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1210
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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1211
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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1212
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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1213
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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1214
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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1215
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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1216
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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1217
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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1218
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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1219
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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1220
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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1221
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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1222
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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1223
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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1224
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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1225
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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1226
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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1227
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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1228
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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1229
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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1230
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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1231
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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1232
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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1233
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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1234
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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1235
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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1236
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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1237
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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1238
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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1239
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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1240
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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1241
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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1242
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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1243
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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1244
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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1245
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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1246
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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1247
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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1248
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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1249
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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1250
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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1251
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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1252
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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1253
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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1254
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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1255
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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1256
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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1257
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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1258
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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1259
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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1260
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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1261
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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1262
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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1263
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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1264
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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1265
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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1266
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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1267
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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1268
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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1269
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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1270
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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1271
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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1272
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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1273
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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1274
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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1275
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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1276
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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1277
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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1278
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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1279
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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1280
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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1281
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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1282
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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1283
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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1284
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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1285
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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1286
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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1287
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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1288
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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1289
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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1290
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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1291
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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1292
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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1293
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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1294
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1295
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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1296
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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1297
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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1298
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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1299
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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1300
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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1301
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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1302
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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1303
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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1304
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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1305
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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1306
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1307
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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1308
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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1309
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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1310
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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1311
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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1312
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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1313
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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1314
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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1315
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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1316
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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1317
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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1318
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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1319
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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1320
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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1321
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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1322
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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1323
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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1324
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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1325
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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1326
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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1327
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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1328
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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1329
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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1330
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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1331
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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1332
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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1333
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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1334
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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1335
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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1336
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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1337
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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1338
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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1339
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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1340
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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1341
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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1342
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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1343
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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1344
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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1345
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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1346
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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1347
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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1348
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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1349
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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1350
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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1351
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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1352
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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1353
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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1354
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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1355
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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1356
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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1357
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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1358
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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1359
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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1360
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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1361
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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1362
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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1363
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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1364
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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1365
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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1366
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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1367
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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1368
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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1369
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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1370
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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1371
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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1372
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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1373
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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1374
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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1375
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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1376
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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1377
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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1378
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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1379
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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1380
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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1381
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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1382
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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1383
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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1384
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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1385
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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1386
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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1387
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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1388
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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1389
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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1390
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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1391
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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1392
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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1393
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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1394
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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1395
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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1396
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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1397
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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1398
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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1399
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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1400
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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1401
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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1402
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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1403
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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1404
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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1405
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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1406
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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1407
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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1408
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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1409
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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1410
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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1411
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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1412
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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1413
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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1414
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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1415
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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1416
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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1417
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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1418
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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1419
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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1420
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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1421
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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1422
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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1423
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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1424
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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1425
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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1426
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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1427
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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1428
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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1429
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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1430
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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1431
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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1432
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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1433
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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1434
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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1435
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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1436
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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1437
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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1438
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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1439
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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1440
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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1441
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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1442
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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1443
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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1444
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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1445
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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1446
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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1447
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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1448
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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1449
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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1450
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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1451
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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1452
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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1453
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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1454
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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1455
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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1456
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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1457
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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1458
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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1459
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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1460
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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1461
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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1462
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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1463
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1464
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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1465
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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1466
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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1467
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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1468
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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1469
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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1470
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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1471
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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1472
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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1473
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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1474
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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1475
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1476
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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1477
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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1478
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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1479
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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1480
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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1481
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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1482
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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1483
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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1484
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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1485
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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1486
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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1487
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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1488
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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1489
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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1490
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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1491
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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1492
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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1493
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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1494
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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1495
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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1496
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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1497
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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1498
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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1499
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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1500
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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1501
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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1502
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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1503
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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1504
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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1505
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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1506
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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1507
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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1508
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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1509
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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1510
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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1511
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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1512
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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1513
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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1514
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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1515
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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1516
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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1517
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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1518
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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1519
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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1520
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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1521
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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1522
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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1523
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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1524
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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1525
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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1526
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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1527
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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1528
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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1529
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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1530
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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1531
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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1532
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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1533
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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1534
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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1535
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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1536
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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1537
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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1538
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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1539
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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1540
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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1541
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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1542
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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1543
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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1544
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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1545
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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1546
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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1547
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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1548
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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1549
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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1550
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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1551
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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1552
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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1553
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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1554
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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1555
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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1556
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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1557
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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1558
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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1559
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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1560
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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1561
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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1562
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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1563
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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1564
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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1565
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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1566
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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1567
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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1568
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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1569
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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1570
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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1571
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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1572
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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1573
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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1574
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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1575
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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1576
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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1577
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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1578
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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1579
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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1580
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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1581
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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1582
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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1583
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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1584
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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1585
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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1586
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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1587
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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1588
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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1589
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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1590
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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1591
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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1592
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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1593
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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1594
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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1595
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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1596
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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1597
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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1598
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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1599
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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1600
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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1601
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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1602
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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1603
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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1604
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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1605
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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1606
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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1607
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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1608
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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1609
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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1610
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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1611
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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1612
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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1613
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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1614
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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1615
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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1616
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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1617
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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1618
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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1619
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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1620
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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1621
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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1622
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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1623
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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1624
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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1625
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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1626
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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1627
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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1628
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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1629
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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1630
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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1631
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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1632
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1633
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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1634
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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1635
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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1636
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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1637
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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1638
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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1639
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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1640
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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1641
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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1642
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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1643
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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1644
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1645
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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1646
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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1647
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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1648
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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1649
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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1650
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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1651
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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1652
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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1653
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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1654
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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1655
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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1656
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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1657
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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1658
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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1659
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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1660
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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1661
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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1662
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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1663
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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1664
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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1665
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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1666
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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1667
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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1668
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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1669
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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1670
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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1671
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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1672
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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1673
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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1674
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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1675
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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1676
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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1677
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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1678
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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1679
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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1680
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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1681
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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1682
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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1683
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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1684
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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1685
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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1686
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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1687
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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1688
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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1689
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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1690
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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1691
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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1692
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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1693
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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1694
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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1695
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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1696
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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1697
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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1698
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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1699
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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1700
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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1701
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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1702
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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1703
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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1704
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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1705
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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1706
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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1707
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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1708
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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1709
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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1710
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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1711
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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1712
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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1713
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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1714
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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1715
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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1716
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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1717
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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1718
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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1719
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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1720
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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1721
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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1722
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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1723
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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1724
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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1725
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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1726
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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1727
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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1728
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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1729
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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1730
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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1731
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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1732
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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1733
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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1734
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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1735
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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1736
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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1737
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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1738
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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1739
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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1740
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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1741
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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1742
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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1743
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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1744
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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1745
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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1746
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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1747
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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1748
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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1749
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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1750
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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1751
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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1752
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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1753
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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1754
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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1755
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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1756
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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1757
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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1758
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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1759
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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1760
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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1761
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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1762
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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1763
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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1764
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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1765
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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1766
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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1767
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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1768
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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1769
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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1770
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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1771
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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1772
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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1773
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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1774
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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1775
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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1776
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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1777
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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1778
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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1779
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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1780
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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1781
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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1782
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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1783
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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1784
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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1785
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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1786
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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1787
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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1788
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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1789
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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1790
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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1791
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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1792
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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1793
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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1794
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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1795
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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1796
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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1797
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

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1798
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

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1799
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

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1800
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

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1801
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1802
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
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1803
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

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1804
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

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1805
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

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1806
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

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1807
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

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1808
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

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1809
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
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1810
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

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1811
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

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1812
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

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1813
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
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1814
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

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1815
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

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1816
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

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1817
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

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1818
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

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1819
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

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1820
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
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1821
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

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1822
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

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1823
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

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1824
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

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1825
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

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1826
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

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1827
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

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1828
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

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1829
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

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1830
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

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1831
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
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1832
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

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1833
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

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1834
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

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1835
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

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1836
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

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1837
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

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1838
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
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1839
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

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1840
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

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1841
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
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1842
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

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1843
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

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1844
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

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1845
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

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1846
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
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1847
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

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1848
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

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1849
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

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1850
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

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1851
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
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1852
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

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1853
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

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1854
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

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1855
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

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1856
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

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1857
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

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1858
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

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1859
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
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1860
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

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1861
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
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1862
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

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1863
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

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1864
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

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1865
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

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1866
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

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1867
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

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1868
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

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1869
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

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1870
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

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1871
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

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1872
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

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1873
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

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1874
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

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1875
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

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1876
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

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1877
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

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1878
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

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1879
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

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1880
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

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1881
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

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1882
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

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1883
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

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1884
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

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1885
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

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1886
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

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1887
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

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1888
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
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1889
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
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1890
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

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1891
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

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1892
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

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1893
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
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1894
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

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1895
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
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1896
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
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1897
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

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1898
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

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1899
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

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1900
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

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1901
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

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1902
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
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1903
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

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1904
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

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1905
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

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1906
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

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1907
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

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1908
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

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1909
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

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1910
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

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1911
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

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1912
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

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1913
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
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1914
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

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1915
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
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1916
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

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1917
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

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1918
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

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1919
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

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1920
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
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1921
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
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1922
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
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1923
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

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1924
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

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1925
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

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1926
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

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1927
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

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1928
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

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1929
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

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1930
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

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1931
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

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1932
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

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1933
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

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1934
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
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1935
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

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1936
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

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1937
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
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1938
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

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1939
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

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1940
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

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1941
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

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1942
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

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1943
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
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1944
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
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1945
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

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1946
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

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1947
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

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1948
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

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1949
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

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1950
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

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1951
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

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1952
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

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1953
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

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1954
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

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1955
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

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1956
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

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1957
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

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1958
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

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1959
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

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1960
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

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1961
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

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1962
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

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1963
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

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1964
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

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1965
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

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1966
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

1967
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

1968
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

1969
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

1970
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
1971
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
1972
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

1973
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

1974
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

1975
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

1976
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

1977
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

1978
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
1979
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

1980
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

1981
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

1982
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
1983
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

1984
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

1985
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

1986
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

1987
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

1988
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

1989
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
1990
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

1991
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

1992
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

1993
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

1994
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

1995
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

1996
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

1997
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

1998
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

1999
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

2000
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
2001
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

2002
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

2003
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

2004
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

2005
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

2006
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

2007
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
2008
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

2009
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

2010
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
2011
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

2012
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

2013
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

2014
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

2015
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
2016
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

2017
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

2018
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

2019
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

2020
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
2021
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

2022
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

2023
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

2024
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

2025
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

2026
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

2027
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

2028
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
2029
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

2030
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
2031
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

2032
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

2033
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2034
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

2035
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

2036
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

2037
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

2038
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

2039
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

2040
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

2041
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

2042
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

2043
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

2044
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

2045
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

2046
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

2047
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

2048
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

2049
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

2050
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

2051
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

2052
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

2053
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

2054
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

2055
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

2056
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

2057
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
2058
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
2059
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

2060
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

2061
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

2062
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
2063
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

2064
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
2065
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
2066
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

2067
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

2068
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

2069
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

2070
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

2071
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
2072
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

2073
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

2074
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

2075
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

2076
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

2077
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

2078
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

2079
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

2080
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

2081
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

2082
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
2083
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

2084
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
2085
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

2086
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

2087
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

2088
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

2089
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
2090
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
2091
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
2092
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

2093
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

2094
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

2095
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

2096
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

2097
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

2098
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

2099
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

2100
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

2101
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

2102
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

2103
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
2104
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

2105
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

2106
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
2107
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

2108
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

2109
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

2110
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

2111
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

2112
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
2113
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
2114
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

2115
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

2116
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

2117
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

2118
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

2119
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

2120
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

2121
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

2122
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

2123
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

2124
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

2125
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

2126
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

2127
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

2128
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

2129
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

2130
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

2131
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

2132
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

2133
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

2134
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

2135
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

2136
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

2137
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

2138
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

2139
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2140
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
2141
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

2142
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

2143
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

2144
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

2145
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

2146
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

2147
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
2148
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

2149
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

2150
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

2151
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2152
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

2153
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

2154
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

2155
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

2156
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

2157
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

2158
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
2159
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

2160
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

2161
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

2162
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

2163
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

2164
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

2165
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

2166
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

2167
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

2168
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

2169
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
2170
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

2171
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

2172
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

2173
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

2174
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

2175
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

2176
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
2177
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

2178
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

2179
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
2180
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

2181
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

2182
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

2183
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

2184
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
2185
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

2186
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

2187
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

2188
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

2189
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
2190
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

2191
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

2192
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

2193
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

2194
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

2195
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

2196
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

2197
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
2198
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

2199
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
2200
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

2201
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

2202
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2203
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

2204
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

2205
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

2206
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

2207
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

2208
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

2209
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

2210
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

2211
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

2212
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

2213
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

2214
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

2215
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

2216
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

2217
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

2218
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

2219
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

2220
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

2221
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

2222
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

2223
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

2224
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

2225
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

2226
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
2227
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
2228
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

2229
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

2230
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

2231
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
2232
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

2233
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
2234
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
2235
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

2236
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

2237
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

2238
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

2239
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

2240
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
2241
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

2242
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

2243
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

2244
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

2245
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

2246
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

2247
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

2248
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

2249
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

2250
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

2251
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
2252
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

2253
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
2254
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

2255
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

2256
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

2257
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

2258
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
2259
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
2260
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
2261
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

2262
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

2263
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

2264
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

2265
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

2266
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

2267
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

2268
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

2269
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

2270
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

2271
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

2272
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
2273
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

2274
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

2275
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
2276
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

2277
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

2278
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

2279
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

2280
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

2281
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
2282
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
2283
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

2284
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

2285
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

2286
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

2287
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

2288
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

2289
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

2290
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

2291
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

2292
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

2293
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

2294
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

2295
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

2296
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

2297
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

2298
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

2299
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

2300
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

2301
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

2302
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

2303
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

2304
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

2305
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

2306
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

2307
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

2308
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2309
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
2310
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

2311
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

2312
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

2313
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

2314
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

2315
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

2316
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
2317
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

2318
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

2319
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

2320
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2321
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

2322
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

2323
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

2324
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

2325
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

2326
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

2327
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
2328
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

2329
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

2330
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

2331
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

2332
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

2333
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

2334
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

2335
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

2336
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

2337
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

2338
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
2339
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

2340
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

2341
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

2342
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

2343
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

2344
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

2345
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
2346
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

2347
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

2348
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
2349
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

2350
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

2351
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

2352
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

2353
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
2354
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

2355
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

2356
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

2357
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

2358
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
2359
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

2360
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

2361
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

2362
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

2363
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

2364
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

2365
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

2366
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
2367
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

2368
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
2369
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

2370
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

2371
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2372
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

2373
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

2374
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

2375
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

2376
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

2377
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

2378
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

2379
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

2380
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

2381
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

2382
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

2383
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

2384
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

2385
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

2386
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

2387
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

2388
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

2389
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

2390
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

2391
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

2392
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

2393
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

2394
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

2395
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
2396
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
2397
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

2398
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

2399
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

2400
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
2401
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

2402
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
2403
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
2404
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

2405
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

2406
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

2407
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

2408
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

2409
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
2410
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

2411
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

2412
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

2413
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

2414
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

2415
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

2416
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

2417
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

2418
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

2419
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

2420
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
2421
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

2422
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
2423
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

2424
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

2425
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

2426
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

2427
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
2428
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
2429
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
2430
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

2431
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

2432
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

2433
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

2434
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

2435
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

2436
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

2437
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

2438
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

2439
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

2440
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

2441
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
2442
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

2443
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

2444
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
2445
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

2446
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

2447
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

2448
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

2449
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

2450
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
2451
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
2452
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

2453
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

2454
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

2455
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

2456
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

2457
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

2458
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

2459
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

2460
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

2461
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

2462
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

2463
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

2464
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

2465
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

2466
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

2467
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

2468
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

2469
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

2470
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

2471
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

2472
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

2473
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

2474
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

2475
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

2476
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

2477
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2478
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
2479
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

2480
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

2481
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

2482
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

2483
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

2484
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

2485
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
2486
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

2487
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

2488
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

2489
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2490
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

2491
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

2492
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

2493
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

2494
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

2495
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

2496
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
2497
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

2498
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

2499
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

2500
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

2501
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

2502
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

2503
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

2504
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

2505
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

2506
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

2507
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
2508
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

2509
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

2510
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

2511
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

2512
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

2513
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

2514
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
2515
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

2516
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

2517
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
2518
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

2519
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

2520
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

2521
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

2522
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
2523
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

2524
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

2525
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

2526
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

2527
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
2528
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

2529
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

2530
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

2531
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

2532
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

2533
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

2534
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

2535
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
2536
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

2537
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
2538
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

2539
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

2540
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2541
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

2542
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

2543
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

2544
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

2545
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

2546
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

2547
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

2548
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

2549
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

2550
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

2551
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

2552
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

2553
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

2554
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

2555
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

2556
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

2557
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

2558
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

2559
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

2560
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

2561
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

2562
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

2563
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

2564
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
2565
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
2566
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

2567
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

2568
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

2569
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
2570
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

2571
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
2572
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
2573
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

2574
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

2575
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

2576
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

2577
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

2578
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
2579
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

2580
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

2581
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

2582
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

2583
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

2584
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

2585
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

2586
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

2587
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

2588
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

2589
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
2590
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

2591
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
2592
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

2593
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

2594
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

2595
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

2596
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
2597
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
2598
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
2599
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

2600
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

2601
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

2602
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

2603
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

2604
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

2605
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

2606
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

2607
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

2608
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

2609
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

2610
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
2611
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

2612
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

2613
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
2614
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

2615
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

2616
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

2617
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

2618
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

2619
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
2620
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
2621
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

2622
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

2623
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

2624
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

2625
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

2626
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

2627
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

2628
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

2629
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

2630
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

2631
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

2632
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

2633
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

2634
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

2635
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

2636
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

2637
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

2638
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

2639
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

2640
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

2641
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

2642
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

2643
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

2644
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

2645
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

2646
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2647
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
2648
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

2649
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

2650
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

2651
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

2652
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

2653
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

2654
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
2655
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

2656
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

2657
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

2658
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2659
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

2660
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

2661
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

2662
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

2663
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

2664
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

2665
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
2666
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

2667
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

2668
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

2669
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

2670
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

2671
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

2672
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

2673
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

2674
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

2675
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

2676
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
2677
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

2678
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

2679
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

2680
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

2681
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

2682
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

2683
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
2684
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

2685
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

2686
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
2687
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

2688
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

2689
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

2690
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

2691
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
2692
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

2693
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

2694
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

2695
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

2696
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
2697
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

2698
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

2699
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

2700
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

2701
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

2702
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

2703
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

2704
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
2705
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

2706
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
2707
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

2708
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

2709
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2710
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

2711
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

2712
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

2713
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

2714
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

2715
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

2716
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

2717
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

2718
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

2719
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

2720
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

2721
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

2722
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

2723
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

2724
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

2725
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

2726
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

2727
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

2728
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

2729
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

2730
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

2731
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

2732
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

2733
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
2734
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
2735
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

2736
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

2737
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

2738
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
2739
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

2740
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
2741
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
2742
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

2743
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

2744
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

2745
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

2746
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

2747
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
2748
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

2749
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

2750
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

2751
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

2752
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

2753
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

2754
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

2755
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

2756
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

2757
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

2758
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
2759
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

2760
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
2761
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

2762
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

2763
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

2764
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

2765
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
2766
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
2767
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
2768
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

2769
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

2770
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

2771
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

2772
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

2773
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

2774
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

2775
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

2776
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

2777
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

2778
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

2779
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
2780
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

2781
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

2782
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
2783
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

2784
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

2785
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

2786
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

2787
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

2788
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
2789
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
2790
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

2791
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

2792
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

2793
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

2794
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

2795
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

2796
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

2797
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

2798
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

2799
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

2800
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

2801
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

2802
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

2803
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

2804
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

2805
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

2806
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

2807
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

2808
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

2809
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

2810
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

2811
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

2812
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

2813
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

2814
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

2815
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2816
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
2817
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

2818
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

2819
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

2820
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

2821
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

2822
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

2823
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
2824
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

2825
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

2826
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

2827
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2828
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

2829
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

2830
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

2831
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

2832
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

2833
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

2834
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
2835
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

2836
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

2837
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

2838
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

2839
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

2840
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

2841
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

2842
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

2843
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

2844
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

2845
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
2846
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

2847
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

2848
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

2849
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

2850
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

2851
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

2852
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
2853
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

2854
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

2855
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
2856
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

2857
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

2858
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

2859
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

2860
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
2861
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

2862
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

2863
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

2864
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

2865
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
2866
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

2867
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

2868
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

2869
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

2870
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

2871
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

2872
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

2873
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
2874
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

2875
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
2876
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

2877
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

2878
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

2879
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

2880
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

2881
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

2882
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

2883
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

2884
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

2885
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

2886
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

2887
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

2888
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

2889
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

2890
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

2891
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

2892
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

2893
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

2894
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

2895
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

2896
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

2897
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

2898
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

2899
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

2900
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

2901
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

2902
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
2903
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
2904
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

2905
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

2906
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

2907
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
2908
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

2909
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
2910
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
2911
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

2912
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

2913
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

2914
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

2915
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

2916
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
2917
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

2918
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

2919
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

2920
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

2921
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

2922
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

2923
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

2924
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

2925
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

2926
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

2927
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
2928
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

2929
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
2930
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

2931
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

2932
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

2933
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

2934
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
2935
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
2936
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
2937
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

2938
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

2939
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

2940
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

2941
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

2942
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

2943
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

2944
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

2945
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

2946
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

2947
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

2948
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
2949
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

2950
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

2951
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
2952
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

2953
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

2954
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

2955
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

2956
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

2957
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
2958
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
2959
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

2960
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

2961
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

2962
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

2963
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

2964
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

2965
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

2966
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

2967
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

2968
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

2969
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

2970
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

2971
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

2972
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

2973
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

2974
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

2975
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

2976
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

2977
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

2978
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

2979
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

2980
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

2981
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

2982
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

2983
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

2984
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2985
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
2986
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

2987
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

2988
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

2989
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

2990
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

2991
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

2992
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
2993
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

2994
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

2995
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

2996
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
2997
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

2998
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

2999
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

3000
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

3001
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

3002
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

3003
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
3004
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

3005
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

3006
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

3007
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

3008
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

3009
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

3010
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

3011
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

3012
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

3013
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

3014
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
3015
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

3016
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

3017
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

3018
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

3019
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

3020
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

3021
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
3022
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

3023
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

3024
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
3025
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

3026
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

3027
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

3028
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

3029
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
3030
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

3031
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

3032
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

3033
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

3034
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
3035
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

3036
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

3037
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

3038
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

3039
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

3040
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

3041
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

3042
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
3043
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

3044
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
3045
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

3046
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

3047
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

3048
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

3049
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

3050
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

3051
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

3052
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

3053
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

3054
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

3055
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

3056
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

3057
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

3058
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

3059
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

3060
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

3061
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

3062
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

3063
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

3064
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

3065
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

3066
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

3067
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

3068
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

3069
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

3070
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

3071
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
3072
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
3073
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

3074
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

3075
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

3076
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
3077
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

3078
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
3079
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
3080
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

3081
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

3082
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

3083
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

3084
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

3085
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
3086
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

3087
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

3088
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

3089
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

3090
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

3091
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

3092
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

3093
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

3094
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

3095
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

3096
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
3097
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

3098
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
3099
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

3100
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

3101
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

3102
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

3103
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
3104
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
3105
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
3106
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

3107
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

3108
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

3109
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

3110
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

3111
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

3112
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

3113
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

3114
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

3115
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

3116
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

3117
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
3118
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

3119
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

3120
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
3121
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

3122
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

3123
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

3124
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

3125
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

3126
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
3127
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
3128
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

3129
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

3130
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

3131
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

3132
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

3133
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

3134
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

3135
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

3136
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

3137
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

3138
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

3139
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

3140
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

3141
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

3142
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

3143
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

3144
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

3145
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

3146
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

3147
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

3148
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

3149
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

3150
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

3151
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

3152
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

3153
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3154
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
3155
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

3156
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

3157
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

3158
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

3159
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

3160
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

3161
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
3162
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

3163
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

3164
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

3165
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3166
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

3167
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

3168
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

3169
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

3170
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

3171
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

3172
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
3173
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

3174
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

3175
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

3176
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

3177
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

3178
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

3179
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

3180
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

3181
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

3182
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

3183
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
3184
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

3185
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

3186
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

3187
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

3188
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

3189
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

3190
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
3191
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

3192
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

3193
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
3194
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

3195
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

3196
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

3197
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

3198
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
3199
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

3200
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

3201
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

3202
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

3203
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
3204
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

3205
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

3206
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

3207
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

3208
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

3209
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

3210
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

3211
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
3212
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

3213
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
3214
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

3215
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

3216
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

3217
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

3218
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

3219
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

3220
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

3221
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

3222
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

3223
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

3224
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

3225
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

3226
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

3227
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

3228
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

3229
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

3230
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

3231
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

3232
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

3233
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

3234
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

3235
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

3236
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

3237
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

3238
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

3239
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

3240
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
3241
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
3242
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

3243
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

3244
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

3245
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
3246
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

3247
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
3248
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
3249
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

3250
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

3251
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

3252
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

3253
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

3254
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
3255
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

3256
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

3257
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

3258
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

3259
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

3260
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

3261
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

3262
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

3263
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

3264
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

3265
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
3266
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

3267
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
3268
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

3269
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

3270
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

3271
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

3272
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
3273
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
3274
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
3275
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

3276
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

3277
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

3278
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

3279
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

3280
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

3281
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

3282
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

3283
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

3284
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

3285
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

3286
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
3287
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

3288
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

3289
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
3290
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

3291
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

3292
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

3293
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

3294
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

3295
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
3296
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
3297
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

3298
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

3299
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

3300
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

3301
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

3302
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

3303
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

3304
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

3305
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

3306
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

3307
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

3308
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

3309
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

3310
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

3311
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

3312
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

3313
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

3314
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

3315
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

3316
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

3317
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

3318
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

3319
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

3320
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

3321
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

3322
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3323
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
3324
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

3325
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

3326
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

3327
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

3328
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

3329
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

3330
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
3331
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

3332
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

3333
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

3334
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3335
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

3336
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

3337
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

3338
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

3339
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

3340
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

3341
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
3342
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

3343
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

3344
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

3345
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

3346
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

3347
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

3348
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

3349
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

3350
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

3351
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

3352
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
3353
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

3354
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

3355
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

3356
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

3357
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

3358
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

3359
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
3360
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

3361
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

3362
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
3363
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

3364
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

3365
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

3366
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

3367
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
3368
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

3369
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

3370
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

3371
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

3372
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
3373
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

3374
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

3375
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

3376
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

3377
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

3378
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

3379
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

3380
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
3381
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

3382
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
3383
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

3384
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

3385
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

3386
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

3387
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

3388
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

3389
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

3390
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

3391
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

3392
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

3393
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

3394
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

3395
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

3396
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

3397
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

3398
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

3399
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

3400
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

3401
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

3402
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

3403
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

3404
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

3405
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

3406
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

3407
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

3408
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

3409
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
3410
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
3411
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

3412
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

3413
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

3414
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
3415
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

3416
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
3417
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
3418
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

3419
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

3420
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

3421
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

3422
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

3423
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
3424
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

3425
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

3426
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

3427
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

3428
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

3429
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

3430
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

3431
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

3432
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

3433
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

3434
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
3435
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

3436
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
3437
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

3438
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

3439
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

3440
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

3441
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
3442
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
3443
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
3444
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

3445
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

3446
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

3447
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

3448
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

3449
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

3450
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

3451
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

3452
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

3453
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

3454
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

3455
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
3456
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

3457
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

3458
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
3459
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

3460
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

3461
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

3462
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

3463
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

3464
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
3465
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
3466
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

3467
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

3468
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

3469
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

3470
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

3471
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

3472
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

3473
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

3474
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

3475
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

3476
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

3477
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

3478
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

3479
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

3480
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

3481
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

3482
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

3483
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

3484
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

3485
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

3486
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

3487
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

3488
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

3489
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

3490
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

3491
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3492
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
3493
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

3494
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

3495
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

3496
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

3497
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

3498
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

3499
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
3500
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

3501
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

3502
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

3503
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3504
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

3505
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

3506
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

3507
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

3508
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

3509
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

3510
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
3511
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

3512
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

3513
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

3514
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

3515
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

3516
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

3517
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

3518
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

3519
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

3520
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

3521
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
3522
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

3523
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

3524
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

3525
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

3526
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

3527
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

3528
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
3529
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

3530
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

3531
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
3532
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

3533
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

3534
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

3535
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

3536
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
3537
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

3538
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

3539
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

3540
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

3541
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
3542
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

3543
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

3544
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

3545
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

3546
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

3547
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

3548
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

3549
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
3550
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

3551
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
3552
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

3553
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

3554
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

3555
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

3556
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

3557
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

3558
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

3559
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

3560
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

3561
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

3562
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

3563
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

3564
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

3565
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

3566
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

3567
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

3568
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

3569
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

3570
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

3571
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

3572
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

3573
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

3574
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

3575
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

3576
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

3577
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

3578
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
3579
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
3580
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

3581
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

3582
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

3583
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
3584
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

3585
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
3586
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
3587
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

3588
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

3589
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

3590
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

3591
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

3592
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
3593
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

3594
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

3595
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

3596
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

3597
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

3598
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

3599
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

3600
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

3601
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

3602
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

3603
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
3604
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

3605
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
3606
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

3607
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

3608
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

3609
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

3610
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
3611
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
3612
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
3613
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

3614
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

3615
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

3616
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

3617
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

3618
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

3619
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

3620
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

3621
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

3622
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

3623
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

3624
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
3625
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

3626
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

3627
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
3628
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

3629
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

3630
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

3631
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

3632
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

3633
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
3634
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
3635
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

3636
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

3637
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

3638
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

3639
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

3640
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

3641
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

3642
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

3643
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

3644
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

3645
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

3646
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

3647
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

3648
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

3649
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

3650
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

3651
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

3652
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

3653
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

3654
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

3655
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

3656
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

3657
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

3658
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

3659
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

3660
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3661
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
3662
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

3663
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

3664
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

3665
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

3666
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

3667
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

3668
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
3669
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

3670
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

3671
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

3672
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3673
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

3674
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

3675
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

3676
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

3677
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

3678
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

3679
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
3680
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

3681
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

3682
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

3683
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

3684
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

3685
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

3686
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

3687
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

3688
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

3689
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

3690
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
3691
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

3692
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

3693
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

3694
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

3695
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

3696
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

3697
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
3698
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

3699
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

3700
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
3701
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

3702
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

3703
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

3704
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

3705
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
3706
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

3707
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

3708
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

3709
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

3710
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
3711
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

3712
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

3713
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

3714
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

3715
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

3716
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

3717
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

3718
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
3719
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

3720
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
3721
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

3722
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

3723
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

3724
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

3725
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

3726
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

3727
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

3728
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

3729
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

3730
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

3731
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

3732
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

3733
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

3734
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

3735
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

3736
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

3737
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

3738
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

3739
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

3740
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

3741
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

3742
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

3743
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

3744
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

3745
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

3746
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

3747
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
3748
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
3749
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

3750
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

3751
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

3752
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
3753
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

3754
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
3755
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
3756
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

3757
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

3758
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

3759
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

3760
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

3761
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
3762
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

3763
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

3764
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

3765
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

3766
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

3767
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

3768
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

3769
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

3770
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

3771
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

3772
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
3773
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

3774
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
3775
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

3776
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

3777
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

3778
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

3779
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
3780
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
3781
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
3782
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

3783
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

3784
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

3785
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

3786
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

3787
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

3788
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

3789
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

3790
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

3791
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

3792
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

3793
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
3794
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

3795
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

3796
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
3797
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

3798
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

3799
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

3800
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

3801
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

3802
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
3803
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
3804
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

3805
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

3806
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

3807
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

3808
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

3809
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

3810
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

3811
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

3812
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

3813
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

3814
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

3815
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

3816
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

3817
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

3818
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

3819
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

3820
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

3821
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

3822
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

3823
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

3824
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

3825
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

3826
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

3827
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

3828
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

3829
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3830
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
3831
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

3832
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

3833
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

3834
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

3835
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

3836
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

3837
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
3838
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

3839
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

3840
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

3841
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3842
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

3843
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

3844
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

3845
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

3846
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

3847
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

3848
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
3849
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

3850
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

3851
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

3852
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

3853
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

3854
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

3855
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

3856
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

3857
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

3858
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

3859
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
3860
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

3861
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

3862
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

3863
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

3864
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

3865
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

3866
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
3867
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

3868
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

3869
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
3870
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

3871
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

3872
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

3873
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

3874
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
3875
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

3876
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

3877
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

3878
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

3879
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
3880
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

3881
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

3882
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

3883
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

3884
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

3885
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

3886
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

3887
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
3888
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

3889
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
3890
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

3891
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

3892
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

3893
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

3894
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

3895
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

3896
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

3897
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

3898
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

3899
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

3900
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

3901
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

3902
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

3903
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

3904
Q

How is equine herpes virus spread?

A

Mainly be respiratory route

Aborted foetus/ membranes/ vaginal discharge are highly contagious

3905
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

3906
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

3907
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

3908
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

3909
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

3910
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

3911
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

3912
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

3913
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

3914
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

3915
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

3916
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
3917
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
3918
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

3919
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

3920
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

3921
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
3922
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

3923
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
3924
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
3925
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

3926
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

3927
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

3928
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

3929
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

3930
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
3931
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

3932
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

3933
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

3934
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

3935
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

3936
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

3937
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

3938
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

3939
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

3940
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

3941
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
3942
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

3943
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
3944
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

3945
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

3946
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

3947
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

3948
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
3949
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
3950
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
3951
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

3952
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

3953
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

3954
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

3955
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

3956
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

3957
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

3958
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

3959
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

3960
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

3961
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

3962
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
3963
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

3964
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

3965
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
3966
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

3967
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

3968
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

3969
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

3970
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

3971
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
3972
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
3973
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

3974
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

3975
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

3976
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

3977
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

3978
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

3979
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

3980
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

3981
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

3982
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

3983
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

3984
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

3985
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

3986
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

3987
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

3988
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

3989
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

3990
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

3991
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

3992
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

3993
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

3994
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

3995
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

3996
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

3997
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

3998
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
3999
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
4000
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

4001
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

4002
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

4003
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

4004
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

4005
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

4006
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
4007
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

4008
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

4009
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

4010
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4011
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

4012
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

4013
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

4014
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

4015
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

4016
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

4017
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
4018
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

4019
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

4020
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

4021
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

4022
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

4023
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

4024
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

4025
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

4026
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

4027
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

4028
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
4029
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

4030
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

4031
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

4032
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

4033
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

4034
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

4035
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
4036
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

4037
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

4038
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
4039
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

4040
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

4041
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

4042
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

4043
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
4044
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

4045
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

4046
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

4047
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

4048
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
4049
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

4050
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

4051
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

4052
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

4053
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

4054
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

4055
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

4056
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
4057
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

4058
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
4059
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

4060
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

4061
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

4062
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

4063
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

4064
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

4065
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

4066
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

4067
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

4068
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

4069
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

4070
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

4071
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

4072
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

4073
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

4074
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

4075
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

4076
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

4077
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

4078
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

4079
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

4080
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

4081
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

4082
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

4083
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

4084
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
4085
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
4086
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

4087
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

4088
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

4089
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
4090
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

4091
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
4092
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
4093
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

4094
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

4095
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

4096
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

4097
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

4098
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
4099
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

4100
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

4101
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

4102
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

4103
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

4104
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

4105
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

4106
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

4107
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

4108
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

4109
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
4110
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

4111
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
4112
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

4113
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

4114
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

4115
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

4116
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
4117
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
4118
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
4119
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

4120
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

4121
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

4122
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

4123
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

4124
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

4125
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

4126
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

4127
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

4128
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

4129
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

4130
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
4131
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

4132
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

4133
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
4134
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

4135
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

4136
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

4137
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

4138
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

4139
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
4140
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
4141
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

4142
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

4143
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

4144
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

4145
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

4146
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

4147
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

4148
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

4149
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

4150
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

4151
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

4152
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

4153
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

4154
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

4155
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

4156
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

4157
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

4158
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

4159
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

4160
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

4161
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

4162
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

4163
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

4164
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

4165
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

4166
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4167
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
4168
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

4169
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

4170
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

4171
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

4172
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

4173
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

4174
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
4175
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

4176
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

4177
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

4178
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4179
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

4180
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

4181
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

4182
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

4183
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

4184
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

4185
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
4186
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

4187
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

4188
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

4189
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

4190
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

4191
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

4192
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

4193
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

4194
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

4195
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

4196
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
4197
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

4198
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

4199
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

4200
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

4201
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

4202
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

4203
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
4204
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

4205
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

4206
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
4207
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

4208
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

4209
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

4210
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

4211
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
4212
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

4213
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

4214
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

4215
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

4216
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
4217
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

4218
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

4219
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

4220
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

4221
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

4222
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

4223
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

4224
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
4225
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

4226
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
4227
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

4228
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

4229
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

4230
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

4231
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

4232
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

4233
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

4234
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

4235
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

4236
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

4237
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

4238
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

4239
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

4240
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

4241
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

4242
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

4243
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

4244
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

4245
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

4246
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

4247
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

4248
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

4249
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

4250
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

4251
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

4252
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
4253
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
4254
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

4255
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

4256
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

4257
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
4258
Q

Which questions should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

4259
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
4260
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
4261
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

4262
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

4263
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

4264
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

4265
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

4266
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
4267
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

4268
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

4269
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

4270
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

4271
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

4272
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

4273
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

4274
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

4275
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

4276
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

4277
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
4278
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

4279
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
4280
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

4281
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

4282
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

4283
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

4284
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
4285
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
4286
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
4287
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

4288
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

4289
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

4290
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

4291
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

4292
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

4293
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

4294
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

4295
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

4296
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

4297
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

4298
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
4299
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

4300
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

4301
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
4302
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

4303
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

4304
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

4305
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

4306
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

4307
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
4308
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
4309
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

4310
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

4311
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

4312
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

4313
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

4314
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

4315
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

4316
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

4317
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

4318
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

4319
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

4320
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

4321
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

4322
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

4323
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

4324
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

4325
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

4326
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

4327
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

4328
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

4329
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

4330
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

4331
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

4332
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

4333
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

4334
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4335
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
4336
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

4337
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

4338
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

4339
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

4340
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

4341
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

4342
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
4343
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

4344
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

4345
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

4346
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4347
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

4348
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

4349
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

4350
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

4351
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

4352
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

4353
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
4354
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

4355
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

4356
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

4357
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

4358
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

4359
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

4360
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

4361
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

4362
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

4363
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

4364
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
4365
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

4366
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

4367
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

4368
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

4369
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

4370
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

4371
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
4372
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

4373
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

4374
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
4375
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

4376
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

4377
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

4378
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

4379
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
4380
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

4381
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

4382
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

4383
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

4384
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
4385
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

4386
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

4387
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

4388
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

4389
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

4390
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

4391
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

4392
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
4393
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

4394
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
4395
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

4396
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

4397
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

4398
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

4399
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

4400
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

4401
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

4402
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

4403
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

4404
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

4405
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

4406
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

4407
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

4408
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

4409
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

4410
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

4411
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

4412
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

4413
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

4414
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

4415
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

4416
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

4417
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

4418
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

4419
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

4420
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
4421
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
4422
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

4423
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

4424
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

4425
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
4426
Q

Which queens should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

4427
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
4428
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
4429
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

4430
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

4431
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

4432
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

4433
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

4434
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
4435
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

4436
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

4437
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

4438
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

4439
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

4440
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

4441
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

4442
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

4443
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

4444
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

4445
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
4446
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

4447
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
4448
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

4449
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

4450
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

4451
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

4452
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
4453
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
4454
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
4455
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

4456
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

4457
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

4458
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

4459
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

4460
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

4461
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

4462
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

4463
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

4464
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

4465
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

4466
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
4467
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

4468
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

4469
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
4470
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

4471
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

4472
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

4473
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

4474
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

4475
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
4476
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
4477
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

4478
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

4479
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

4480
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

4481
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

4482
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

4483
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

4484
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

4485
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

4486
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

4487
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

4488
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

4489
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

4490
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

4491
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

4492
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

4493
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

4494
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

4495
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

4496
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

4497
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

4498
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

4499
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

4500
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

4501
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

4502
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4503
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
4504
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

4505
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

4506
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

4507
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

4508
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

4509
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

4510
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
4511
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

4512
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

4513
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

4514
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4515
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

4516
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

4517
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

4518
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

4519
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

4520
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

4521
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
4522
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

4523
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

4524
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

4525
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

4526
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

4527
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

4528
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

4529
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

4530
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

4531
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

4532
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
4533
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

4534
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

4535
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

4536
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

4537
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

4538
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

4539
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
4540
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

4541
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

4542
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
4543
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

4544
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

4545
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

4546
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

4547
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
4548
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

4549
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

4550
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

4551
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

4552
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
4553
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

4554
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

4555
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

4556
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

4557
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

4558
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

4559
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

4560
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
4561
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

4562
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
4563
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

4564
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

4565
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

4566
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

4567
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

4568
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

4569
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

4570
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

4571
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

4572
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

4573
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

4574
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

4575
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

4576
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

4577
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

4578
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

4579
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

4580
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

4581
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

4582
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

4583
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

4584
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

4585
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

4586
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

4587
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

4588
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
4589
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
4590
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

4591
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

4592
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

4593
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
4594
Q

Which queens should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

4595
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
4596
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
4597
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

4598
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

4599
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

4600
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

4601
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

4602
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
4603
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

4604
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

4605
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

4606
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

4607
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

4608
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

4609
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

4610
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

4611
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

4612
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

4613
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
4614
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

4615
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
4616
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

4617
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

4618
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

4619
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

4620
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
4621
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
4622
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
4623
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

4624
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

4625
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

4626
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

4627
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

4628
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

4629
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

4630
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

4631
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

4632
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

4633
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

4634
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
4635
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

4636
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

4637
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
4638
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

4639
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

4640
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

4641
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

4642
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

4643
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
4644
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
4645
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

4646
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

4647
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

4648
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

4649
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

4650
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

4651
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

4652
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

4653
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

4654
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

4655
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

4656
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

4657
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

4658
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

4659
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

4660
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

4661
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

4662
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

4663
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

4664
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

4665
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

4666
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

4667
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

4668
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

4669
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

4670
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4671
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
4672
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

4673
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

4674
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

4675
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

4676
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

4677
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

4678
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
4679
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

4680
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

4681
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

4682
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4683
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

4684
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

4685
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

4686
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

4687
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

4688
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

4689
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
4690
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

4691
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

4692
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

4693
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

4694
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

4695
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

4696
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

4697
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

4698
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

4699
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

4700
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
4701
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

4702
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

4703
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

4704
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

4705
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

4706
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

4707
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
4708
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

4709
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

4710
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
4711
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

4712
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

4713
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

4714
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

4715
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
4716
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

4717
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

4718
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

4719
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

4720
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
4721
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

4722
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

4723
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

4724
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

4725
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

4726
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

4727
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

4728
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
4729
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

4730
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
4731
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

4732
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

4733
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

4734
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

4735
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

4736
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

4737
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

4738
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

4739
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

4740
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

4741
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

4742
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

4743
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

4744
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

4745
Q

How do large and small strongyles affect the colon?

A

Large: verminous arteritis, thromboembolic colic
Small: submucosal inflammation

4746
Q

Give some haematological changes associated with parasitism?

A

Neutrophilia, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperglobulinaemia

NOT eosinophilia

4747
Q

What are the two divisions of equine gastric ulcer syndrome?

Give possible risk factors for each

A

EGGUS: Equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (bother horses mοre, harder to treat). Risk factors= possibly stress, NSAID-related.
ESGUS: Equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome. Risk factor= acid injury.

4748
Q

What are the signs of EGUS (equine gastric ulcer syndrome)?

A

Weight loss, poor performance
Selective appetite, slow eating, prefer roughage over grain
Bad/cranky behaviou
Colic very unlikely

4749
Q

What is the pH in the two parts of the stomach?

A

Squamous portion prone to acid injury: pH 5.4

Glandular, acid-secreting portion protected from acid injury by mucous layer: 1.8

4750
Q

Where do ESGUS and EGGUS usually occur?

A

ESGUS: Caused by ‘splashing’ of stomach acid onto the unprotected mucosal lining above the margo plicatus, on squamous portion of stomach
EGGUS: below margo plicatus on glandular portion of stomach, when protective lining breaks down, exposing the mucosa to acids

4751
Q

Why is the horse so susceptible to gastric ulcers?

A

Stomach anatomy -> poor mixing of food, grain portion is rapidly fermentable -> acid production

4752
Q

Give some predisposing factors to acid injury leading to gastric ulcers

A

High concentrate diets -> volatile fatty acids and indirect acid injury via gastrin production in response to absorbed CHO (carbohydrates)
Also, low fibre concentrations -> reduced saliva production (saliva is an acid buffer)

Exercise -> gastrin production, also increased abdominal pressure can promote ‘splashing’ of acid onto unprotected squamous portion

4753
Q

How do you diagnose gastric ulcers?

A

Gastroscopy - 3m endoscope

4754
Q

Why is a faecal occult blood test not reliable for diagnosing gastric ulcers?

A

False negatives

4755
Q

How do you treat gastric ulcers?

A

Omeprazole (proton pump inhibitor)

  • Buffered
  • Enteric coated
  • Plain

EGGUS requires higher doses

4756
Q

Give some clinical signs of colic in order of increasing severity

A
Flank watching
Lying down
Pawing the ground
Rolling
Repeatedly getting up and down
Violent thrashing around
4757
Q

Give the different classifications of colic

A
Spasmodic
Impactions
Gas distension 
Obstructions (simple/ strangulating)
Non-strangulating infarction
Inflammation (enteritis/ colitis)
Idiopathic
4758
Q

How do severe cases of colic lead to shock?

A

Loss of vascular supply to mucosa
Absorption of endotoxins into the circulation
Systemic inflammatory response system (SIRS)

4759
Q

What percentage of colic cases require surgery?

A

7%

4760
Q

What initial advice should you give to an owner of a horse with suspected colic?

A

Put horse in a well bedded stable
Remove anything it could injure itself on (buckets, feed etc)
Let horse roll if it wants to
A short period (10 mins) of walking exercise is fine but nothing longer before seeing a vet

4761
Q

Which sedative should you give to a horse with colic when examining it?

A
Xylazine iv (200mg for a 500kg horse)
Also gives analgesia
4762
Q

Which queens should you ask a horse owner when investigating colic?

A

Which signs were observed?
When did these start/ when was the horse last normal?
Feed intake and faecal output over last 24 hours
Any diarrhoea?
History of equine grass sickness on premises?

4763
Q

Which structures are identifiable during a rectal palpation?

A
Pelvic flexure 
Caecum 
Spleen 
Nephrosplenic space 
Small (descending) colon
Inguinal rings
4764
Q

What are some common findings when doing a rectal exam to investigate colic?

A
Distended SI 
Pelvic flexure impaction 
Left dorsal displacement 
Right dorsal displacement 
Large colon torsion 
Caecal impaction
Small colon impaction
4765
Q

What sized needle should you use when doing an abdominocentesis?

A

18g, 1.5 inch

4766
Q

What is the appearance of normal peritoneal fluid?

A

Clear, straw-coloured

4767
Q

Regarding peritoneal fluid, what are the normal values for:
Total protein
WBCC
Lactate

A

Total protein:

4768
Q

What is the normal packed cell volume of a horse?

A

35-45%

4769
Q

What is the normal value for systemic total protein?

A

60-70g/L

4770
Q

Which diagnostic tests should you do when investigating colic?

A
Haematology (systemic lactate, WBC, systemic TP)
Rectal exam
Abdominocentesis 
Nasogastric intubation
Ultrasound
4771
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in the foal?

A

Meconium impaction

4772
Q

What is the medical term for equine grass sickness?

A

Equine dysautonomia

4773
Q

What is the suspected cause of equine grass sickness?

A

Clostridium botulinum type C (exists in soil)
Acute, subacute, and chronic forms
Affects autonomic nervous system -> reduced GI motility
Causes a paralytic ileus (obstruction of ileum)
Patchy sweating, tachycardia
Fatal

4774
Q

What are the functions of the upper airways?

A

Channel for conveying airflow to and from lung
Filtering and conditioning of inspired air
Protection of lower airway from aspiration
Olfaction
Phonation
Swallowing
Thermoregulation

4775
Q

Why is a normal upper airway so critical in a horse in particular?

A

Because the horse is an obligate nasal breather

4776
Q

What is the tidal volume of a horse at rest?

A

5L

4777
Q

What is meant by tidal volume?

A

Lung volume, representing the normal volume of air displaced between normal inhalation and exhalation

4778
Q

What is the minute ventilation of a horse at rest and during exercise?

A

Rest: 75L
Exercise: 1500L (20x increase)

4779
Q

How do you work out minute ventilation?

A

Tidal volume x resp rate

4780
Q

Give some clinical signs of upper airway disease

A

Nasal discharge
Respiratory distress
Exercise intolerance
Noise at exercise

4781
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding nasal discharge?

A
Is it unilateral/bilateral?
Chronicity 
Nature of discharge (blood/purulent/serous/food material)
Recent head trauma?
Recent URT infection?
Is it associated with exercise?
Any cough/ resp noise?
Any facial swelling?
Any response to treatment?
4782
Q

When investigating URT disease, what should you look out for regarding respiratory noise?

A

When does it occur (rest/ exercise?)
If it occurs at exercise, what pace does it occur at?
Is the noise inspiratory/ expiratory/ both?
What does it sound like? (Whistle, roar, gurgle, snoring)
Continuous/ intermittent?
If at exercise, does the horse stop/ slow down when it occurs?
Does the noise disappear once the horse’s speed reduces?
Does the noise limit the horse’s performance?
Does the horse recover normally after exercise?

4783
Q

When doing a clinical exam of the head, what should you look for?

A
Symmetry
Nasal/ocular discharge
Airflow from both nostrils 
Percussion of sinuses
Palpation of larynx
Evidence of previous surgical scars
4784
Q

In RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy- roaring), which Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle is atrophied?

A

Left

4785
Q

How can you determine whether a noise made at exercise is made during inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration occurs as the leading leg hits the ground at canter and gallop

4786
Q

Is ‘roaring’ heard during inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration

4787
Q

Does dorsal displacement of the soft palate causes respiratory noises during inspiration or expiration?

A

Both:
Expiration= loud
Inspiration= soft gurgling

4788
Q

Give some causes of abnormal respiratory noises heard at exercise

A
RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy) 
DDSP
Epiglottic entrapment 
Subepiglottic cyst 
Epiglottic retroversion 
4-BAD (fourth branchial arch defect) 
Alar fold collapse/ nasal paralysis 
ADAF (axial deviation of the aryepiglottic folds)
4789
Q

Which structures you examine with an endoscopy when investigating abnormal respiratory noises?

A
Nasal passages
Sinus drainage angles
Ethmoturbinates 
Nasopharynx 
Larynx
Gutteral pouches
4790
Q

What is the only way of identifying causes of URT obstruction that only occur at exercise?

A
Exercise endoscopy 
(High speed treadmill endoscopy= gold standard
Can also use dynamic respiratory endoscope-attaches to bridle)
4791
Q

How can you tell if a nasal obstruction is present above or below the nasal septum?

A

Rostral to nasal septum=unilateral discharge

Above nasal septum=bilateral discharge

4792
Q

When doing radiography, the latero-lateral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, gutteral pouches and pharynx

4793
Q

When doing radiography, lateral oblique views are good for assessing which structures?

A

Peri-apical regions of the premolars and molars (prevents superimposition)

4794
Q

When doing radiography, the dorso-ventral view is good for assessing which structures?

A

Paranasal sinuses, nasal septum and teeth

Helps to decode of lesions are unilateral or bilateral

4795
Q

Why might you perform a sinoscopy?

A

Investigate suspected paranasal sinus disease
Obtain material for biopsy
Treatment

4796
Q

Which diagnostic techniques might you use to investigate suspected masses?

A

MRI

CT scan

4797
Q

What is scintigraphy?

A

Radio isotopes are administered IV

The emitted radiation is measured by external detectors to produce 2D images

4798
Q

When might you use scintigraphy?

A

Investigation of orthopaedic disease (eg fracture identification)
Suspected TMJ disease
Identification of damaged tooth
Differentiation between primary and secondary sinusitis

4799
Q

How can you investigate alar folds collapse?

A

Temporary suture across bridge of nose, if resolves, alar folds collapse is cause of problem

4800
Q

Which bone separates the left and right nasal passages?

A

Nasal septum and vomer bone

4801
Q

The nasal passages are divided into which 3 sections?

A

Dorsal, middle, ventral meatus

4802
Q

What are the clinical signs of a problem with the nasal passages?

A
Nasal discharge 
Halitosis
Abnormal respiratory noise
Coughing 
Facial distortion 
Head shaking
4803
Q

How can you diagnose problems with the nasal passages?

A

Radiography
Ultrasound
CT scan

4804
Q

What is wry nose?

A

Congenital shortening of maxilla, nasal and vomer bones
Causes laterally deviated rostral maxilla and associated nasal septum deviation
Nasal obstruction
Usually accompanied by malocclusion of the teeth

4805
Q

Give some causes of disease in the nasal passages

A
Trauma 
Wry nose 
Deviation or thickening of the nasal septum 
Neoplasia (carcinoma)
Progressive ethmoidal haematoma 
Fungal infection
4806
Q

When placing an nasogastric tube, which meatus should it pass through?

A

Ventral (less likely to damage ethmoturbinates)

Use lubricant on end of tube, don’t force it when you hit resistance

4807
Q

What is an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Encapsulated non-neoplastic mass
Grows into the nasal passages/paranasal sinuses
Unknown aetiology

4808
Q

What are the clinical signs of an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Mild intermittent unilateral epistaxis
Occasionally abnormal resp noise at exercise
+/- bad smell

4809
Q

How can you diagnose an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Endoscopy +/- radiography

CT scan

4810
Q

How do you treat an ethmoid haematoma?

A

Lesions in the nasal passages can be treated with intra-lesional formalin (causes aggressive necrosis of haematoma), however there is potential damage to sinus lining
Laser removal
Surgical removal
Recurrence common

4811
Q

What are the clinical signs of fungal rhinitis (nasal aspergillosis)?
How do you diagnose and treat it?

A

Unilateral purulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic nasal discharge
Foul smell
Occasionally nasal stertor

Diagnosis: endoscopy

Treatment: removal of fungal plaques and necrotic bone 
Topical treatment (nystatin powder)
4812
Q

Name the seven pairs of paranasal sinuses

A
Rostral maxillary 
Caudal maxillary
Frontal 
Dorsal conchal 
Ventral conchal 
Sphenopalatine 
Ethmoid
4813
Q

How does drainage of sinuses occur?

A

Gravity and mucociliary action

4814
Q

Where do the other sinuses (apart from rostral maxillary and ventral conchal sinuses) drain?

A

Into the caudal maxillary sinus -> Middle meatus via the nasomaxillary aperture

4815
Q

What are the clinical signs of paranasal sinus disease?

A

Unilateral/bilateral nasal discharge (serous/purulent/mucopurulent/ occasionally haemorrhagic)
+/- facial swelling
+/- decreased nasal airflow (depending on amount of secondary oedema)

4816
Q

Fluid lines within a sinus on a radiograph indicate what?

A

Sinusitis

4817
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary sinusitis?

A

Primary: usually results from previous resp tract infection, most commonly infection by streptococcus spp

Secondary: to bother condition, primarily dental disease die to the proximity of the alveolar bone to the maxillary sinuses (08, 09, 10, 11)

4818
Q

How do you treat primary sinusitis?

A

Rule out strep equi var equi (strangles)
Place on antibiotics eg trimethoprim sulphonamides for 7-14 days
Feed from the ground to encourage drainage
Dust-free management
Turnout as much as possible

4819
Q

Which structure may obstruct the drainage angle of the ventral conchal sinus?

A

Maxillary septal bulla

4820
Q

How may you surgically approach the paranasal sinuses?

A

Trephination or bone flap

4821
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to peri-apical tooth infection?

A

Remove affected tooth

Flush sinuses

4822
Q

How do you treat sinusitis that is secondary to a facial fracture?

A

Remove/stabilise bone fragments

Flush sinuses

4823
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with paranasal sinus cysts

A

Facial swelling
Reduced nasal airflow
Nasal discharge
Nasal stertor

4824
Q

How do you treat a paranasal sinus cyst?

A

Surgical removal

4825
Q

What is suturitis?

A

Periostitis of the suture lines between the nasal and frontal bones
Bilateral firm non-painful swellings in the nasofrontal region
Usually regress with time

4826
Q

What are the two main functions of the pharynx?

A

Deliver air from the nasal cavity to the larynx

Provides a pathway for food from the oral cavity to the oesophagus

4827
Q

What separates the nasopharynx from the oropharynx?

A

Soft palate

4828
Q

Why does the pharynx have the potential to collapse during exercise?

A

Lacks rigid support by bone/cartilage

4829
Q

How does the pharynx retain stability?

A

Coordinated neuromuscular function

4830
Q

Which nerves innervate the pharynx?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal
Pharyngeal branch of vagus
Hypoglossal
Cervical nerves

4831
Q

What are the main functions of the larynx?

A

Breathing (communication between pharynx and trachea)
Protect lower airway (prevent inhalation of food during swallowing)
Phonation/ vocalisation

4832
Q

Which cartilages make up the larynx?

A

Cricoid cartilage
Thyroid cartilage
Epiglottis
Paired arytenoid cartilages

4833
Q

Which muscle is the principle abductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

4834
Q

Which muscle is the principle adductor of the glottis?

A

Cricoarytenoidalis lateralis

4835
Q

When does the glottis open and close?

A

Open: exercise
Close: swallowing

4836
Q

Describe the slap test

A

Used to diagnose left recurrent laryngeal neuropathy (roaring)
Involves slapping one hemithorax to cause a reflex adduction of the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage on the opposite side

4837
Q

Which diagnostic techniques can be used to examine the larynx and pharynx?

A

Endoscopy- exercise and at rest
Radiography
Ultrasound

4838
Q

Give some clinical signs associated with problems with the pharynx

A
Poor performance 
Respiratory noise
Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
Nasal discharge 
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4839
Q

Give some diseases associated with the pharynx

A
Cleft palate 
Pharyngeal lymphoid hyperplasia 
DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate, can be persistent or intermittent)
Palatal instability 
Pharyngeal collapse
Pharyngeal mass
Foreign body
4840
Q

When does intermittent dorsal displacement of the soft palate tend to occur?
What happens?

A

Intense exercise

Soft palate displaces dorsally resulting in an expiratory obstruction

4841
Q

Is intermittent or persistent dorsal displacement of the soft palate often secondary to other disease?

A

Persistent

Eg epiglottic entrapment, sub-epiglottic ulcer, sub-epiglottic cyst

4842
Q

Give some clinical signs of dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Exercise intolerance
Gurgling/vibrating noise
Rider reports ‘choking/swallowing its tongue’

4843
Q

How can you diagnose DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)?

A

Endoscopy: resting (limited value) and during exercise (gold standard)

4844
Q

What is the function of thyrohyoideus?

A

Draws pharynx and larynx rostrally

4845
Q

What is a ‘tie-back’ procedure?

A

Operation to resolve roaring

Arytenoid cartilage is pulled to the side and sutured to keep it from interfering with airflow

4846
Q

What causes intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Neuromuscular dysfunction:

  • Pharyngeal branch of vagus nerve/Hypoglossal
  • Thyrohyoideus
  • Alteration in laryngohyoid position
  • Inflammation
4847
Q

Which conservative treatment could you use to treat intermittent dorsal displacement of soft palate (IDDSP)?

A

Get horses fit
Change tack
Treat inflammatory conditions of the pharynx and gutteral pouch
Try throat support device?

4848
Q

How can you surgically treat dorsal displacement of the soft palate?

A

Staphylectomy: partial soft palate resection
Myectomy: removal of some of the extrinsic muscles of the larynx, reduced caudal retraction of the larynx
Induction of palatal fibrosis: thermal/laser cautery, stiffens soft palate
Tie forward: BEST, sutures placed between basihyoid bone and thyroid cartilage, positions larynx more rostrally and dorsally

4849
Q

How would you identify a foal with cleft palate?

A

Milk at nostril

4850
Q

What clinical signs are seen with laryngeal problems?

A
Respiratory noise
Poor performance
Dysphagia
Coughing 
Respiratory distress
4851
Q

Explain recurrent laryngeal neuropathy

A

Common, large breeds
Unilateral paralysis of the left arytenoid cartilage
Progressive loss of myelinated nerve fibres in the left recurrent laryngeal nerve
Atrophy of cricoarytenoidalis dorsalis muscle
Loss of abductor and adductor function

4852
Q

How do you diagnose RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Abnormal inspiratory noise at exercise - roaring
Poor performance
Clinical exam: +/- atrophy of CAD, negative result on slap test
Endoscopy at rest: asses synchrony of movement, ability to achieve and maintain full abduction (grade 1-4: Havemeyer scale)
Dynamic endoscopy is gold standard to asses degree of collapse during exercise

4853
Q

Describe the 4 grades of the Havemeyer scale when grading RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)

A

I: all arytenoid cartilage movements are synchronous and symmetrical. Full arytenoid abduction can be achieved and maintained.

II: arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous but full abduction can be achieved and maintained (sub-grades: 1.Transient 2.Permanent)

III. arytenoid cartilage movements are asynchronous and/or asymmetric. Full arytenoid abduction cannot be achieved and maintained (1.Occasions of symmetrical abduction 2.Obvious asymmetry 3.Marked but not total asymmetry)

IV. Complete immobility of the arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold

4854
Q

How can you treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)?

A

Ventriculectomy

Laryngoplasty (‘tie back’)

4855
Q

Describe a ventriculectomy procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
‘Hob day’ procedure
Roaring burr used to every left or both ventricles, which are then excised
+/- vocal cord removed at same time

4856
Q

Describe a ‘tie-back’ procedure

A

Used to treat RLN (recurrent laryngeal neuropathy)
Suture placed between dorsocaudal edge of cricoid cartilage and muscular process of arytenoid cartilage
Mimics the action of CAD (Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis)
Results in permanent abduction of left arytenoid cartilage

4857
Q

Give some complications of tie-back procedures

A
Failure
Dysphagia 
Aspiration
Persistent cough
Infection
4858
Q

Give some causes of laryngeal paralysis (besides RLN)

A

Gutteral pouch disease
Peripheral neuropathy (eg liver disease)
Organophosphate poisoning

4859
Q

Fourth branchial arch arch defect (4BAD) affects which side of the larynx?

A

Right side

4860
Q

Explain fourth branchial arch defect

A

Variable development of the right laryngeal cartilage
Right-sided asymmetry
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch
Variable ability to abduct right arytenoid cartilage

4861
Q

What is vocal cord collapse (VCC) associated with?

A

ADAF

Axial deviation of aryepiglottic folds

4862
Q

Describe arytenoid chondritis

A

Mucosal ulceration
Infection of arytenoid cartilage
Progressive
Respiratory obstruction (younger TB, older mares)

4863
Q

What are the gutteral pouches?

A

Air-filled mucosa-lined outpouchings of the auditory tubes connecting the nasopharynx to the middle ear
Present in horses but no other domestic species
Paired
350ml in volume

4864
Q

Which structures border the gutteral pouches?

A

Dorsal: base of skull, first cervical vertebra, tympanic bulla, auditory meatus
Medial: median septum, rectus and longus capitis muscles
Ventral: nasopharynx, retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Lateral: parotid and mandibular salivary glands, Pterygoid muscles

4865
Q

How are gutteral pouches separated?

A

Separated into a medial and lateral compartment by the stylohyoid bone
Medial is bigger than lateral

4866
Q

Where do gutteral pouches empty?

A

Nasopharynx via a funnel-shaped orifice that has a fibrocartilage flap

4867
Q

Internal and external carotid arteries supply which compartment of gutteral pouches?

A

Internal: medial compartment
External: lateral compartment

4868
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch disease?

A
Epistaxis 
Swelling/dyspnoea 
Nasal discharge 
Nerve dysfunction 
-dysphagia
-laryngeal paralysis
-Horner's syndrome (constructed pupil) 
-facial asymmetry
4869
Q

Give some diseases associated with gutteral pouches

A

Mycosis
Empyema/chondroids
Tympany
Otitis interna/media
Stylohyoid bone: temporohyoid osteopathy, fracture of petrous temporal/basisphenoid
Rupture of longus capitus ‘strap’ muscle
Neoplasia/cysts/foreign bodies

4870
Q

Describe gutteral pouch mycosis

A

Primary fungal plaque forms over vessels (most commonly internal carotid)
Uncommon but potentially life-threatening

4871
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Nasal discharge
Epistaxis
+/- nerve dysfunction: dysphagia, Horners (pupil constriction), laryngeal paralysis

4872
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Endoscopy

4873
Q

How do you treat gutteral pouch mycosis?

A

Surgical occlusion of affected artery: simple ligation (back flow from circle of Willis), or balloon catheterisation, or coil embolisation
Medical management if no history of bleeding: antifungals

4874
Q

Describe gutteral pouch empyema

A

Purulent material (chondroids) within one or both gutteral pouches
Usually in young horses
Aetiology: URT infection, irritant drugs

4875
Q

What are the clinical signs of gutteral pouch empyema?

A
Intermittent nasal discharge 
Parotid swelling and pain
Extended head carriage 
Respiratory noise at rest 
Difficulty eating and swallowing 
Occasionally pharyngeal and laryngeal paresis
4876
Q

How do you diagnose gutteral pouch chondroids?

A

Radiography (increase radiodensity-whiteness- of gutteral pouches on lateral views
Endoscopy (dorsal pharyngeal compression, purulent material in gutteral pouches)

4877
Q

How do you treat chondroids?

A

Flushing of gutteral pouches using catheters inserted via sinus ostia (small openings connecting sinus to nasal pharynx)
Endoscopic removal of chondroids
Surgical flushing and removal of material

4878
Q

Describe gutteral pouch tympany

A
Foals 
Usually unilateral 
Marked retropharyngeal swelling 
Clinical signs of: swelling, resp stridor, dysphagia 
Confirmed on radiography or endoscopy
4879
Q

Describe temporohyoid osteoarthropathy

A

Progressive disease of the middle ear and bones of the temporohyoid joint (stylohyoid bone, squamous portion of temporal bone)
Aetiology: Middle or inner ear infection

4880
Q

What are the clinical signs of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

Early: head shaking, ear rubbing, behavioural chane
Chronic: facial nerve paralysis, head tilt, ataxia, nystagmus (toward affected side)

4881
Q

What are the ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Longus capitus
Rectus capitus ventralis
Rectus capitus lateralis

4882
Q

Why may the ‘strap’ neck muscles rupture?

A

Trauma

Usually due to rearing and falling over backwards

4883
Q

Which clinical signs are associated with rupture of the ‘strap’ muscles?

A
Profuse bilateral epistaxis 
Ataxia 
Head tilt 
Pharyngeal and tracheal compression and secondary upper airway
obstruction
4884
Q

How do you diagnose rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Endoscopy: roof of pharynx collapsed, normal vessels, swollen muscle bellies
Radiography: fluid lines within gutteral pouch

4885
Q

What is the treatment for rupture of the neck ‘strap’ muscles?

A

Stall rest
Dependent on degree of concurrent brain trauma or skull fracture
Anti-inflammatories
Supportive care

4886
Q

When is a tracheotomy carried out?

A

Emergency bypass of URT obstruction
Route for intubation
Rest the URT
Bypass inoperable URT obstruction

4887
Q

How would you perform an emergency tracheotomy?

A

Clip a 20 x 10cm area on ventral midline at junction between middle and upper third of neck
Palpate paired sternothyrohyoideus muscles and tracheal rings
Give 10ml LA (eg mepivacaine) into skin and underlying tissues
Aseptically prepare site
Make a 6-8cm incision on ventral midline of neck
Palpate the two tracheal rings in the centre of the incision
Make a stab incision between the two rings
Extend the incision for 1-2cm each side of the midline
Insert tracheotomy tube
Secure in place

4888
Q

Give some differential diagnoses for dysphagia

A
Oesophageal obstruction
Retropharyngeal abscess (eg strangles) 
Retropharyngeal mass (neoplasias, granuloma)
Pharyngeal foreign body 
Gutteral pouch mycosis 
Equine grass sickness 
URT infection
4889
Q

Onchocerca cervicalis are found where?

A

Nuchal ligament

nematode

4890
Q

How big are pinworms?

A

2-13mm

4891
Q

What is the proper name for pinworm?

A

Oxyuris equi

4892
Q

What is urticaria?

A

Raised itchy rash

Wheals, oedema and pruritus

4893
Q

Sweet itch is caused by what?

Where on the horse is it seen?

A

Culicoides spp

Dorsal surface of horse: tail, mane, back

4894
Q

What does atopy mean?

A

Hyperallergic

4895
Q

How do you diagnose atopy?

A

Intradermal skin testing

4896
Q

What is the difference between scaling and crusting?

A
Scaling= dry, grey
Crusting= yellow, red, brown, wet/damp
4897
Q

What is the difference between erosion and ulceration?

A

Erosion is superficial (partial loss of epithelial or mucosal surface that heals by resolution)
Ulceration is deeper (full thickness loss of epithelial or mucosal surface which heals by repair ie replacement with fibrous tissue)

4898
Q

Describe pemphigus foliaceus

A
Rare, autoimmune, horse makes antibodies against its own skin
Severe crusting
No age or sex predilection
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: immunosuppressive drugs 
Prognosis: guarded
4899
Q

Viral papillomas are seen where?

A

Muzzle, face, pinna, inguinal area

4900
Q

Describe dermatophilosis congolensis

A

Gram +, facultative anaerobe, branching filaments on histology
Favourable conditions= skin trauma, wet skin
Thick, parakeratotic crusts (continuous epidermal invasion)
Tx: topical (mild cases), systemic antimicrobials (severe cases)

4901
Q

Bacterial folliculitis is caused by what?

A

Staphylococcus and streptococcus

4902
Q

Give an antifungal used to treat ringworm?

A

Miconazole

4903
Q

Describe leukocytoclastic vasculitis

A

Common, affects non-pigmented areas on distal limb
Results from deposition of immune complexes at vessel wall
Painful
Dx: skin biopsy
Tx: corticosteroids, avoid exposure to light

4904
Q

Describe pastern dermatitis

A

‘Greasy heel’ syndrome
Very common
Caused by chronic wetting of skin on distal heel
Winter, white limbs

4905
Q

What are warbles?

A

Larval stages of Hypoderma bovis and lineatum, appear as nodule with a central pore (larvae inside)
Neck and trunk
Often painful
Tx: enlargement of pore to remove central grub

4906
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

Degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue
Leads to restriction of circulation -> thrombosis

4907
Q

What types of skin tumours are present in horses?

A

Sarcoids
Melanoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Mast cell tumour

4908
Q

Describe sarcoids

A

Most common skin tumour in horses
Tumour of fibroblasts
Bovine papillomavirus 1 and 2 are most likely cause
6 clinical presentations: occult, verrucous, nodular, fibroblastic, mixed, malignant
Dx: biopsy
Tx: surgery, immune therapy, cytotoxics,

4909
Q

Where are melanomas usually seen?

A

Perineum, tail head (near anus), parotid region

4910
Q

How do you treat a melanoma?

A

Surgical excision, immunotherapy

4911
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinomas usually seen?

A

Poorly pigmented animals

External genitalia, eyes

4912
Q

Where are mast cell rumours found?

A

Head
Solitary
Males

4913
Q

What clinical signs are associated with lymphosarcoma and other disseminated neoplasias?

A
Fever 
Weight loss
Peritonitis 
Pleural effusion 
Abdominal distension 
Intra-abdominal mass palpable per rectum
Hypercalcaemia/haemolysis/ cachexia of malignancy
4914
Q

Give the 3 major clinical signs of lower respiratory tract disease in a horse

A

Cough
Bilateral nasal discharge
Tachypnoea/dyspnoea