Equine dentistry 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define brachygnathism and prognathism

A
Brachygnathism = overly long maxilla compared to mandible
Prognathism = relative overgrowth of the mandible
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2
Q

What are the consequences of brachygnathism is horses?

A
  • Ulceration of behind upper incisors

- Maxillary rostral 06 overgrowths and mandibular 11 overgrowths which will need lifelong attention

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3
Q

What is campylorrhinus lateralis?

A
  • ‘Wry Nose’

- Deviation (and occasional rotation) of the entire maxilla, involving the incisive region, nasal septum and nasal bones

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4
Q

How does campylorrhinus lateralis vary in severity?

A
  • Minor occlusal problems: routine dentistry every 6 months
  • Severe occlusal and breathing problems
  • Surgical correction can be attempted but is complex
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5
Q

Describe the features and issues of malocclusion

A
  • Secondary to problems involving the cheek teeth
  • Diagonal bite or ‘slant mouth’ is indicative that the horse is eating predominantly on one side of the mouth and may indicate shear mouth formation of the cheek teeth
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6
Q

How are retained deciduous incisors treated?

A
  • Loose: remove with forceps

- Firmly attached: remove with dental elevators

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7
Q

What is a supernumerary incisor?

A

Additional to usual 6 permanent incisors

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8
Q

What is the treatment for supernumerary incisors?

A
  • Usually cause little problem

- Often best not to remove

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9
Q

What are the issues surrounding incisor diastemata?

A
  • There should not be any spaces between adjacent teeth
  • Narrow spaces can be most problematic
  • Trap food causing gingivitis, periodontitis and potentially loss of the tooth
  • Food should be removed from these spaces
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10
Q

Describe Equine Odontoclastic Tooth Resorption and Hypercementosis (EOTRH)

A
  • Recently described condition, unknown aetiology
  • Horses aged 14 and over
  • Swelling and/or draining tracts over multiple mandibular and maxillary incisors.
  • Pain, difficulty prehending food
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11
Q

How is Equine Odontoclastic Tooth Resorption and Hypercementosis (EOTRH) diagnosed and treated?

A
  • Diagnosis: visual, radiography

- Extraction of the loose incisors is curative

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12
Q

How is oral neoplasia classified?

A
  • According to tissue of origin: Dental, Bone, Soft tissue

- According to clinical behaviour + pathological features e.g. benign/malignant, invasive/localised

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13
Q

Why is histological diagnosis sometimes difficult for oral neoplasia?

A
  • Infection
  • Unclassifiable tumours
  • Rarity
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14
Q

Name 3 tumours of dental origin

A

Ameloblastoma
Cementoma
Odontoma

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15
Q

Describe the features and appearance of an amleoblastoma

A
  • Most common in: older horses, mandible
  • Cause a bony swelling +/-cystic cavity
  • Benign/locally invasive
  • Surgical excision
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16
Q

Name some examples of oral neoplasia of soft tissue origin

A
  • Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
  • Epulis
  • Fibroma
  • Melanoma
  • Oral papilloma
  • Sarcoid
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17
Q

Describe some canine abnormalities seen in horses

A
  • Rarely cause problems but still need to be assessed
  • Calculus around lower canines most common
  • Apical infection/ Fracture
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18
Q

Why may wold teeth be removed despite rarely causing issues?

A

Often removed due to owner / trainer preference/ tradition (bitting problems, an inability to profile the rostral aspect of the 06 or owner preference)

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19
Q

What are 3 indications for wolf teeth removal?

A
  • Bitting problems / ulceration
  • Blindly erupted: may be painful
  • May become molarised
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20
Q

Which complications may arise when removing wolf teeth?

A
  • Fracture of tooth
  • Fracture of bone
  • Trauma to the palatine artery – marked haemorrhage
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21
Q

What is needed for wolf teeth removal?

A
  • Local anaesthesia for infra-orbital/maxillary nerve block
  • Dental elevators
  • Forceps
  • Local anaesthetic and speculum
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22
Q

Where is the most common location of dental problems in first opinion equine practice?

A

Cheek teeth

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23
Q

What are retained caps?

A

Remnants of deciduous teeth - normally shed during eruption of the underlying permanent tooth

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24
Q

What are the issues with retained caps?

A
  • Loose / retained caps can cause oral pain

- Usually attached to the gingiva in one place & it is this attachment that causes pain

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25
Q

What is the cause of cheek teeth displacements?

A

Overcrowding due to eruption

26
Q

Which cheek teeth are most commonly displaced?

A
  • Often bilateral
  • Usually 09s & 10s
  • Medial / lateral displacement +/- Rotation
27
Q

What are the consequences of cheek teeth developing too far apart (diastemata)?

A

→ spaces develop
→ food accumulates
→ fermentation
→ periodontal disease

28
Q

Why should the number of cheek teeth always be counted?

A

In case of supernumerary cheek teeth

29
Q

Where are enamel overgrowths most likely?

A
  • Buccal aspect of upper CT

- Lingual aspect of lower CT

30
Q

What are the clinical signs of enamel overgrowths?

A

Quidding, pain when eating, +/- colic

31
Q

What is wavemouth?

A

Marked undulation to the occlusal surface

32
Q

What is shearmouth?

A
  • Increased occlusal angle of the entire cheek tooth row

- Usually secondary to diastemata formation/dental fracture

33
Q

How is shearmouth managed?

A
  • Treat primary problem

* Gradual reduction of the angle should be performed (will occur rapidly when the horse begins to chew more normally)

34
Q

How must overgrowths be managed?

A
  • Hand or power rasps - Do NOT cut/shear teeth

- Must reduce in stages - Maximum 3-4mm q 6mths

35
Q

What can happen if rasping is done in excess?

A
  • Pulp exposure
  • Thermal damage
  • Risk apical infection
36
Q

What is smooth mouth?

A

Senile change:
• Cheek teeth enamel largely worn away
• Some worn down to individual roots
• Softer dentine & cementum become smooth

37
Q

What causes dental caries to occur?

A

Occurs when food material becomes stagnated in pits in the peripheral cementum

  • Fermentation
  • Drop in pH of the environment
  • Demineralisation
  • Pits bigger and blackening of the peripheral cementum
38
Q

Describe how infundibular caries occur

A
  • Cemental hypoplasia
  • Food accumulates in infundibulum
  • Fermentation -> decay
39
Q

Why are infundibular caries so problematic?

A
  • Progressive, irreversible
  • Predisposes to fracture
  • Varying degrees of severity
40
Q

What is the cause of peripheral caries?

A

Increased sugars in the diet

  • Haylage
  • Molasses
41
Q

How can peripheral caries be managed?

A
  • Palliative rasping of the roughened cementum

- Removal of excess sugars from the diet

42
Q

How is diastemata without periodontal disease managed?

A
  • Must be cleaned out COMPLETELY use a dental Pick / High pressure lavage
  • +/- Pack with impression material
43
Q

How is diastemata with periodontal disease managed?

A
  • Widen with mechanised burr: Painful!! Lidocaine splash block
  • +/- Pack with impression material
  • Dietary management essential: avoid long stem hay / haylage
44
Q

Name the 3 main types of cheek teeth fractures

A
  • Buccal (lateral) slab fracture
  • Midline sagittal fracture
  • Occlusal fissure fractures
45
Q

Which cheek teeth fracture types is not associated with apical infection? What is the importance of this?

A

Buccal (lateral) slab fracture

  • Pulp horns seal off
  • Extraction may not be required
46
Q

Midline sagittal fractures most commonly occur on which teeth?

A

109 and 209 - oldest teeth in the mouth

47
Q

What is the result of a midline sagittal fracture?

A
  • Result in apical infection +/- Sinusitis

- Extraction required

48
Q

An apical infection with facial swelling +/- draining tracts is associated with which teeth involvement?

A

Maxillary 06 and 07

49
Q

An apical infection caused by maxillary cheek teeth 09, 10 and 11 shows which clinical sign?

A

Unilateral nasal discharge

50
Q

An apical infection caused by all mandibular cheek teeth shows which clinical sign?

A

Bony mandibular swelling +/- draining tract

51
Q

What are the causes of apical infections?

A

Pulpitis

→ pulpar oedema → vascular occlusion → necrosis

52
Q

What are the causes of pulpitis which lead to apical infections?

A
  • Anachoresis (bacteria present in the blood would be attracted to the dental pulp following trauma)
  • Fracture
  • Periodontal spread (Diastema)
53
Q

How are apical infections diagnosed?

A
  • Clinical signs
  • Oral examination
  • Imaging
54
Q

What are the main considerations surrounding cheek tooth extraction?

A
  • Advanced procedure
  • Can be performed standing
  • Regional anaesthesia
  • Heavy sedation
  • Vet surgeon only
55
Q

What must be aimed to preserve when cheek teeth are extracted?

A

Alveolus

56
Q

Describe the steps in the first part of cheek teeth extraction

A

Interdental Spreading
• Placed in the interdental space in front and behind the tooth
• Closed gradually to stretch the periodontal ligament - Approx 30min
• Can cause further fracture - must be applied carefully!

57
Q

Describe the steps in the second part of cheek teeth extraction

A

Application of Molar Forceps

  • ‘Oscillation’/’Wiggling’
  • Horizontal rocking / lateral strain of the ligament
  • Molar forceps tightly applied to tooth
  • Many different types: depending on tooth shape, must grip specific tooth well
58
Q

Which type of extraction is used if the crown is fractured?

A

Modified transbuccal extraction

59
Q

Describe a lateral buccotomy

A
  • Incision through cheek, removal of lateral alveolar bone

- Often requires general anaesthesia

60
Q

What risks come with performing a lateral buccotomy?

A
Potential damage to:
• facial nerve
• parotid duct
High morbidity rate:
• Iatrogenic trauma
• Wound breakdown