EPPP Practice Questions: Physio & Psychopharm Big 6

Question 1

As the result of head trauma, a middle-aged woman has difficulty regulating the rate,
rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:
a. synesthesia.
b. anomia.
c. asomatognosia.
d. dysprosody.

Answer 1

d. dysprosody
Prosody refers to the pattern of stress and intonation in speech. Dysprosody is a
characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias.

Question 2

The assumption that changes in regional cerebral blood flow correspond to changes in
neural activity underlies the use of all of the following brain imaging techniques except:
a. PET.
b. fMRI.
c. CT.
d. SPECT.

Answer 2

c. CT
Regional cerebral blood flow is associated with the brain activity (functioning). CT
(computerized tomography) is a structural brain imaging technique. It provides information
on brain structure (e.g., tumors, lesions), not function.

Question 3

The most commonly prescribed drugs for Tourette’s disorder are drugs that:

a. increase dopamine levels.
b. block dopamine transmission.
c. increase acetylcholine levels.
d. block acetylcholine transmission.

Answer 3

b. block dopamine transmission
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug that is frequently-prescribed for Tourette’s Disorder. It
exerts its effects by blocking the transmission of dopamine.

Question 4

Which of the following is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms?

a. thalamus
b. basal ganglia
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus

Answer 4

d. hypothalamus
The suprachiasmatic nucleus, which is located in the hypothalamus, has been implicated in
the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.

Question 5

If you’re in a car accident that causes damage to your cerebellum, you’re most likely to:

a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis.
b. find it difficult to answer EPPP questions.
c. have trouble recognizing friends and family members.
d. find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations.

Answer 5

a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis.
The cerebellum is involved in the regulation of balance and coordination. Consequently, of the
activities listed in the answers, jogging and playing tennis are most likely to be adversely
affected by damage to this structure of the brain.

Question 6

Bilateral lesions in which of the following areas of the brain are most likely to result in a
loss of the fear response without loss of other emotional responses?
a. hippocampus
b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
c. amygdala
d. thalamus

Answer 6

c. amygdala
The case of “patient SM” has confirmed that the amygdala is responsible for the experience of
fear in response to frightening stimuli. SM has focal bilateral amygdala lesions as the result of
a rare disease. While she is able to experience other emotions, she does not experience fear.
See J. S. Feinstein et al., The human amygdala and the induction and experience of fear,
Current biology, 21(1), 34-38, 2010.

Question 7

Impaired facial recognition, left-right disorientation, difficulty recognizing familiar
objects by touch, and an inability to perform complex, purposeful movements (apraxia) are
most suggestive of damage to the:
a. parietal lobes.
b. frontal lobes.
c. temporal lobes.
d. occipital lobes.

Answer 7

a. parietal lobes
Damage to the parietal lobes can cause aphasia, tactile agnosia, and apraxia (loss of ability to
perform purposeful movements).

Question 8

Damage to the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is most likely to result in:

a. anxiety and depression.
b. indifference or undue cheerfulness.
c. aphasia.
d. increased aggression.

Answer 8

b. indifference or undue cheerfulness
The right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and damage to certain areas of the right
hemisphere produces indifference or excessively positive emotions.

Question 9

A patient with brain damage is unable to recognize his doctor’s face even though he has
met with the doctor several times. This condition is known as:
a. topographagnosia.
b. prosopagnosia.
c. autotopagnosia.
d. anosognosia.

Answer 9

b. prosopagnosia
Prosopagnosia is a type of visual agnosia that involves an inability to recognize familiar faces.
Topographagnosia involves deficits in spatial ability; autotopagnosia is the inability to locate
various parts of the body; and anosognosia is the refusal or inability to recognize the
existence of a defect or disease.

Question 10

A person is able to say “knife” when a picture of a knife is flashed to his right visual
field, but he cannot name a spoon, which he can’t see but has felt with his left hand. Most
likely, this individual has damage to which of the following?
a. substantia nigra
b. corpus callosum
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus
d. prefrontal cortex

Answer 10

b. corpus callosum
This man is exhibiting the characteristics of “split-brain” patients whose corpus callosum has
been severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy.

Question 11

Global aphasia is caused by widespread damage in the dominant (left) hemisphere
and involves:
a. intact comprehension and nonfluent speech
b. impaired comprehension and nonfluent speech
c. intact comprehension and fluent speech
d. impaired comprehension and fluent speech

Answer 11

b. impaired comprehension and nonfluent speech
As its name suggests, global aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury and is
characterized by extensive disruption in the ability to produce and understand language. A
person with this disorder exhibits impaired auditory comprehension, nonfluent speech,
anomia (inability to name a common or familiar object, attribute, or action), paraphasia (use
of inappropriate words and phrases), and an inability to read or write. Depending on the
brain areas affected by the injury, the person may also exhibit hemiparesis, limb apraxia,
and/or catastrophic emotional reactions.

Question 12

During the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), the release of
epinephrine results in an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate.
a. resistance
b. activation
c. alarm
d. exhaustion

Answer 12

c. alarm
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released by the adrenal medulla during the alarm stage of the
GAS and is responsible for the body’s “fight-or-flight” response.

Question 13

Studies investigating age-related changes in sleep patterns have found that, over the
adult years:
a. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep increases.
b. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep decreases.
c. REM sleep decreases but slow-wave sleep remains fairly constant.
d. REM sleep increases but slow-wave sleep remains fairly constant.

Answer 13

b. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep decreases.
Research has confirmed that the latency (onset) of the first REM period decreases with
increasing age but that the amount of REM sleep remains fairly stable over the lifespan or
decreases only slightly. In contrast, Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep (slow-wave sleep) decrease and,
in some older adults, are nearly nonexistent.

Question 14

Following a closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 55-year-old woman
experiences extensive retrograde amnesia that affects memories for events that occurred
up to 10 years prior to the accident. When her “lost” memories begin to return, she will
most likely recall which of the following first:
a. memories from 10 years before the accident.
b. memories from 6 months before the accident.
c. memories from 1 week before the accident.
d. memories of the accident.

Answer 14

a. memories from 10 years before the accident
The typical pattern for the return of long-term memories following head trauma is for the
most remote memories to return first.

Question 15

As the result of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and the right

(nondominant) hemisphere, a person is most likely to exhibit:
a. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field.
b. paralysis on the left side of his body and global aphasia.
c. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual agnosia.
d. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual loss in his right visual field.

Answer 15

a. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field
Damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere could cause paralysis on the left side of the
body as well as visual loss in the left visual field. These are common symptoms of stroke.

Question 16

Which of the following is an early sign of Huntington’s disease that can cause
misdiagnosis as a psychiatric disorder?
a. sleep disturbances
b. disorientation
c. memory loss for autobiographical information
d. depression

Answer 16

d. depression
A mood disturbance, especially depression, is an early symptom in at least 40% of cases of
Huntington’s disease.

Question 17

Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

a. resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination
b. jerky, involuntary movements, facial grimaces, restlessness, and general weakness
c. muscle weakness, impaired coordination, paresthesias, and nystagmus
d. involuntary repetitive movements of the jaw, lips, tongue, and extremities

Answer 17

a. resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination
The symptoms of Parkinson’s disease vary somewhat from person to person and from day to
day. However, most people with this disorder experience the symptoms listed in this
response. (Huntington’s disease is associated with the symptoms listed in answer b; multiple
sclerosis with the symptoms listed in answer c, and tardive dyskinesia with the symptoms
listed in answer d.)

Question 18

In comparison to haloperidol, risperidone:

a. is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects.
b. is less likely to produce weight gain.
c. is less effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.
d. is more likely to produce sexual side effects.

Answer 18

a. is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects
Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic. It is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side
effects than haloperidol and other typical (conventional) antipsychotics. According to a recent
Cochrane Review, in comparison to haloperidol, risperidone is more likely to cause weight
gain, is more effective for negative symptoms, and is about equally likely to cause sexual side
effects. [Hunter, R. H., Joy, C. B., Kennedy, E., Gilbody, S. M., & Song, F. (2003).
Risperidone versus typical antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia (Cochrane Review),
The Cochrane Library, 4.]

Question 19

When tardive dyskinesia develops as the result of antipsychotic drug use:
a. its symptoms are nearly always irreversible.
b. it signals that a larger dose of the drug is required.
c. its symptoms may decline if the drug is slowly withdrawn.
d. its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but
thereafter decline.

Answer 19

d. its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but
thereafter decline
At one time, tardive dyskinesia was considered irreversible. However, recent studies have
shown that, in some patients, its symptoms gradually decline once the drug is withdrawn,
although there may be a temporary increase in symptoms first.

Question 20

Which of the following drugs is considered a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain?

a. carbamazepine
b. clozapine
c. amitriptyline
d. naltrexone

Answer 20

c. amitriptyline
Neuropathic pain is chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction.
Analgesics are the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain and include certain
antidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics. Antidepressants that
increase levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine not only have analgesic properties but
also reduce the depression that often accompanies neuropathic pain. Of these
antidepressants, amitriptyline (Elavil) is one of the oldest and most widely used tricyclic
drugs for this condition.

Question 21

A person who takes an MAOI concurrently with an SSRI may develop serotonin
syndrome which is characterized by:
a. nausea, vomiting, a metallic taste in the mouth, and restlessness.
b. headache, dizziness, confusion, irritability, tremor, and nystagmus.
c. involuntary rhythmic movements of the jaw, lips, tongue, and extremities.
d. drowsiness, dizziness, slurred speech, and anterograde amnesia.

Answer 21

b. headache, dizziness, confusion, irritability, tremor, and nystagmus.
Serotonin syndrome is caused by excessive serotonergic activity and produces the symptoms
listed in this answer. In extreme cases, it may cause cardiac arrhythmia and progress to coma
and death.

Question 22

Prescribing methylphenidate for a child who is believed to have ADHD:
a. would help confirm the diagnosis because only children with this disorder display its
paradoxical effects.
b. would not help confirm the diagnosis because children without the disorder also
display its paradoxical effects.
c. would be contraindicated because it can produce ADHD-like symptoms in children
who do not have the disorder.
d. would be contraindicated because of the high risk for physical and psychological
dependence on the drug.

Answer 22

b. would not help confirm the diagnosis because children without the disorder also
display its paradoxical effects
At the low dose prescribed for ADHD, methylphenidate decreases motor activity and
impulsivity and increases attention span not only in children with ADHD but also in those
without the disorder.