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YNC SWE > EPME > Flashcards

EPME Flashcards

1
Q

TAP prepares SMs for separation. What is the core curriculum on the TAP seminar?

A

Goals, Plans, Success (GPS).

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2
Q

What are the steps of the Individual Transition Plan (ITP) Deliverables at TAP?

A
  1. Pre-separation counseling
  2. eBenefits registration
  3. Preparing ITP
  4. Move up to Capstone
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3
Q

What pay grade shall not re-enlist regardless of time in service?

A

E1 and E2

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4
Q

What is PGP?

A

Professional Growth Point (PGP) the maximum amount of active military service a member can have for their current pay grade.

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5
Q

What is the cut-off date that determines whether or not a member is a HYT candidate?

A

31 December

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6
Q

All members in the pay grade _____ are subject to HYT and shall submit a retirement request in accordance with Section 3.G. and 3.H. the Separations manual.

A

E-9

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7
Q

What is a HYT PGP Waiver?

A

Allows the member to continue on active duty past the required separation or retirement date - per CG-PSC-EPM

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8
Q

What is a CSEL waiver?

A

A waiver for members based on assignments described in the Command Senior Enlisted Leader (CSEL) Program - COMDTINST 1306.1 (series)

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9
Q

What is the professional growth point (PGP) per grade?

A 
E-1 and E-2: completion of enlistment contract. Cannot reenlist or extend.
E-3 and E-4: 10 years active service 
E-5: 16 years active 
E-6: 20 years active 
E-7: 24 years active 
E-8: 26 years active 
E-9: 30 years active
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10
Q

Members whose active military service time exceeds their PGP are allowed to advance if that advancement occurs on or before ___________ of the year they reach their PGP.

A

31 Dec

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11
Q

PGP up reduction in pay grade: Members shall keep the PGP for _____ months from the date of reduction.

A

36 months. At end of 36 months, member shall assumes the PGP of their existing pay-grade, regardless of previous rank.

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12
Q

What is PDES?

A

Physical Disability Evaluation System - the PDES process does not exempt a member from becoming an HYT candidate.

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13
Q

HYT takes precedence over ________.

A

obligated service.

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14
Q

All HYT candidates (E-3 to E-8) will separate, or retire if requested and retirement eligible, no later than ___________ of the year following the year their active military service time exceeds their PGP, unless granted a HYT PGP waiver.

A

1 September

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15
Q

Members who reach 30 years active military service between ________ and _________ shall retire on 1 September of the year they exceed their PGP.

A

1 January and 31 August

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16
Q

Members who reach 30 years active military service between _________ and _________ shall retire on the first day of the next month after they reach 30 years active military service.

A

1 September and 31 December

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17
Q

An _________________ board is not authorized for members discharged due to HYT.

A

administrative separation

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18
Q

Because the HYT policy covers discharges and retirements, an ________________ board described in 14 U.S.C. §357 is not authorized for members separated due to HYT.

A

involuntary retirement

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19
Q

The member may request to Commander (CG PSC-EPM) to be separated or retired, if eligible, due to HYT, up to ___________ prior to their required separation date. In this case, the nature of the separation is involuntary.

A

six months

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20
Q

HYT candidates may be eligible for ___________ if they are not retirement eligible. (10 U.S.C. 1174 (e) (2) (A)).

A

separation pay

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21
Q

MSM and below have how many lines of text?

A

Cannot exceed 12 lines of text using Times New Roman 11-12 inch pitch, bold font. If O or V device, entire citation limited to 14 lines (statement double-spaced below citation).

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22
Q

Citation for awards above MSM have how many lines of text?

A

Cannot exceed 16 lines of text, 18 including O or V device.

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23
Q

What is the basis of the Appeal Process?

A

Incorrect information, prejudice, discrimination. disproportionately low marks for particular circumstances.

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24
Q

What may not be appeal on a set of marks?

A

The “Advancement Recommendation” may not be appealed to an appeal authority.

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25
Q

Responsibilities of member IRT to an Appeal:

A

Request and audience: verbally express any concerns with rating chain that could lead to a written appeal.
Written Appeal: If no verbal agreement, appeal in writing.

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26
Q

When must a member submit an EER Appeal?

A

Within in 15 calendar days (45 for reservists) after the date they signed the acknowledgement section of counseling sheet.
NOTE: If the member refuses to sign the counseling sheet, this timeline begins the
date the unit representative signs the refusal to sign statement.

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27
Q

Comments are required for any mark of ____________.

A

1,2,3,7 or when member is NOT recommended for advancement or an unsatisfactory conduct mark.

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28
Q

COs will endorse and send appeal letter to appeal authority within ____ calendar days of receiving it from member.

A

15

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29
Q

Appeal authority may ______ the ____ days if CO needs additional info.

A

extend; 15

NOTE: COs endorsement should address any delay.

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30
Q

The appeal authority must review and act on the appeal within ____ calendar days after receiving it.

A

15

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31
Q

Who may extend the 15 days if appeal authority needs additional time?

A

PSC-EPM/RPM

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32
Q

Who has authority to change a mark?

A

Appeal authority

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33
Q

Can the appeal authority raise or leave a mark unchanged?

A

Yes.

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34
Q

Can the appeal authority lower a mark an AO has assigned?

A

No.

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35
Q

Earring specifics for women:

A

4-6mm ball studs (1/8-1/4 inch) natural white pearl, white diamond, plain gold, or silver with a shiny or brushed matte finish - centered on earlobe.

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36
Q

Backpacks with ODUs may be worn how?

A

straps over both shoulders or with a single strap over the left shoulder.

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37
Q

Women’s hair bulk no more than how many inches?

A

no more than 3 inches

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38
Q

Hair must not fall below___________.

A

bottom edge of collar

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39
Q

Hair accessories shall not add more than how many inches of bulk?

A

2 inches (3 inches max for bun).

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40
Q

Men hair bulk no more than how many inches?

A

1 and 1/2 inches.

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41
Q

Men’s hair must not touch __________.

A

top of collar or ear.

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42
Q

Men’s hair no longer than how many inches?

A

4 inches.

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43
Q

Sideburns shall not extend below ___________________.

A

point level with the bottom of the ear opening.

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44
Q

Dinner dress mini medals worn how?

A

3 inches below left lapel notch. Women: 1/3 of distance between shoulder and bottom hem of jacket.

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45
Q

Maintain how many inches on epaulets when wearing rank insignia?

A

3/4 inch

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46
Q

What are the measurements of insignia on a garrison cap?

A

The center of both insignia (if officer) are place 1 and 1/2 inches form the bottom of the cap and 2 inches right or left of the front crease.

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47
Q

Directives must undergo review every ______ years.

A

4

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48
Q

What is CGHQ-5356?

A

Directives Control Sheet - Submit to CG-612

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49
Q

What is a Letter of Promulgation (LOP)?

A

LOPs transmit policy, and remain in effect for the life of
the directive. The LOP also lists any reporting or form requirements that the directive
imposes.

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50
Q

An instruction has no requirement for what?

A

A table of contents

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51
Q

How many pages does an instruction consist of?

A

25 (including enclosures)

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52
Q

What is a Commandant’s Notice?

A

A Commandant Notice is a directive
of a one-time or brief nature and has the same force and effect as an instruction. All notices have self-cancelling provisions. Issue an instruction for information expected to remain effective for longer than one year. Use a Notice for one (1) year special announcements of morale and subjects short in nature instead of ALCOAST Commandant Notices.

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53
Q

What is an Operation Order (OPORD)?

A

An Operation Order is a directive issued by a commander to a subordinate commander effecting the coordinated execution of an operation.

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54
Q

What is CG-4183?

A

All newly activated or commissioned organizations must complete a Change of Mailing, Freight, and Billing Address, Form CG-4183, per your official Operating Facility Change Order (OFCO).

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55
Q

What is form CG-4229?

A

Digest

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56
Q

All directives over 25 pages require what?

A

A table of contents

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57
Q

Where is the signature block positioned on an LOP?

A

On the fifth line below that last paragraph (four blank lines).

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58
Q

What does a “Without Grade of Signing Authority” signature line look like?

A

The first line should be the name of the signer in all
capital letters. The second line should be the signing authority’s long title.
Example for HQS: A.B. LASTNAME
Assistant Commandant for Human Resources
Example outside of HQS: A.B. LASTNAME
Commander, First Coast Guard District

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59
Q

What does a “With Grade of Signing Authority” signature line look like?

A

The first line should be the name of the signer in all
capital letters. The second line should state his/her military grade, followed by U.S. Coast Guard and the third line should contain the signing authority’s long title.
Example for HQS: A.B. LASTNAME Rear Admiral, U.S. Coast Guard
Assistant Commandant for Human Resources
Example outside of HQS: A.B. LASTNAME
Commander, U.S. Coast Guard First Coast Guard District

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60
Q

Where is the /s/ located when a directive is signed?

A

After the name to indicate it was signed.

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61
Q

What are the measurements of the margins on a directive?

A

The left justified margin should be no less than 1”. The right unjustified margin should be no less than 1”. The top and bottom margin should be 1”.

62
Q

What is the measurement of page numbers on a directive?

A

Center the page number 1/2 inch form the bottom of the page.

63
Q

What is CG-4590?

A

Concurrent Clearance Form

64
Q

When do you reissue a directive?

A

When cumulative changes result the replacement of 50% or more of the directive pages or the sponsor desires to reissue.

65
Q

BRS: The military automatically contributes ___% of your basic pay to your TSP after 60 days of service.

A

1%

66
Q

What is form CG-7430?

A

BRS Election form

67
Q

1-4% BRS contributions start at how many months of service?

A

25 months

68
Q

Class A mishaps are what dollar amount and higher?

A

1M or greater, loss of life or permanent disability.

69
Q

Class B mishaps are what dollar amount and higher?

A

A;

70
Q

Class C mishaps are what dollar amount and higher?

A

A;

71
Q

If you opt into BRS and elect to contribute a portion of your own pay into your TSP account, your service will match up to an additional ____% of your basic pay.

A

4%

72
Q

No matter how much you contribute of your own pay, maximum contributions are ____ % of your basic pay.

A

5%

73
Q

To become vested in service automatic (1%) contributions, you must have completed ___ years of service.

A

2

74
Q

Service members under BRS who qualify for retired pay, may be eligible to elect wither a ___% or ___% discounted portion of their monthly retired pay as a lump sum in exchange for reduced monthly retired pay.

A

25; 50

75
Q

Monthly retired pay returns to the full amount when the service member reaches ____________________.

A

their full social security retirement age - for most is 67.

76
Q

IF choosing the lump sum option, you must notify your human resources servicing office no less than ____ days before retirement.

A

90

77
Q

Payments for the ____ will be deducted from your remaining monthly retired pay if you elect the lump sum.

A

SBP

78
Q

What does DEERs stand for?

A

Defense Eligibility Enrollment Reporting system

79
Q

How many P&D 3307s are there?

A

A

80
Q

Is an EER required after an NJP?

A

A

81
Q

Immediate (O) codes on messages indicate what delivery time?

A

A

82
Q

Priority (P) codes on messages indicate what delivery time?

A

A

83
Q

How many chapters does the DPRI have?

A

7

84
Q

Gifts that do not exceed $____ can be accepted.

A

$25?

85
Q

Who flies the CG Ensign?

A

Cutters and shore units

86
Q

How many total strips does the CG Ensign have?

A

16 - number of states at the time

8 red and 8 white

87
Q

How many battle streamers are flown with the CG standard during ceremonies and parades?

A

34

88
Q

What is the minimum service requirement for warrant officers?

A

8 years total active service and at least 4 years total active service in CG/CGR

89
Q

A Progress Message should be sent within ___ hours of a Class A or Class B mishap to the aviation fleet

A

72

90
Q

Reports of Survey are required for CG property that has a monetary value of what amount?

A

A

91
Q

How many days of leave are birth mothers authorized?

A

84 days - 42 maternity convalescent and 42 days of primary caregiver leave

92
Q

How many days of leave are birth mothers authorized?

A

84 days - 42 maternity convalescent and 42 days of primary caregiver leave (may be taken in two separate periods).

93
Q

Secondary caregivers are authorized ___ days of leave

A

21 (one continuous period)

94
Q

What is maximum width of a watch?

A

1 inch

95
Q

What is CG-5354?

A

PDR - 4 part folder - used to hold unit or SPO-PDR

96
Q

E-1 marking period?

A

January (all) July (AD only)

97
Q

E-2 marking period?

A

January (all) July (AD only)

98
Q

E-3 marking period?

A

February (all) August (AD only)

99
Q

E-4 marking period?

A

March (all) September (AD only)

100
Q

E-5 marking period?

A

April (all) October (AD only)

101
Q

E-6 marking period?

A

May (all) November (AD only)

102
Q

E-7 marking period?

A

September (all)

103
Q

E-8 marking period?

A

November (all)

104
Q

E-9 marking period?

A

June (all)

105
Q

Advance payment of an amount equal to ___ % of the personally procured move monetary allowance when a Service member move his or herself.

A

60

106
Q

How many types of P&D 3307s?

A

33

107
Q

Supervisor must council member on marks within ___ days.

A

30

108
Q

Human Relations Training is completed how often?

A

Triennially

109
Q

The Coast Guard has ___ roles and ____ missions.

A

5;11

110
Q

What article gives petty officers apprehension authority under UCMJ?

A

Article 7

111
Q

What article of the UCMJ is used for insubordination towards and officer?

A

Article 91

112
Q

What article of the UCMJ is used for failure to obey an order or regulation?

A

Article 92

113
Q

What is the ‘Z’ code for messages?

A

Flash action - goal of 10 minutes

114
Q

What is the ‘O’ code for messages?

A

Immediate - 30 minutes

115
Q

What is the ‘P’ code for messages?

A

Priority - 3 hours

116
Q

What is the ‘R’ code for messages?

A

Routine - 6 hours

117
Q

What priority does a member have on an INCONUS underway unit?

A

3

118
Q

How many paid ADT days are SELRES authorized per year?.

A

12; unless PSU then 15….

119
Q

What flag must be displayed when the CG is engaged in law enforcement?

A

CG Ensign

120
Q

What is Level I of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?

A

Level I: Outpatient Treatment

121
Q

What is Level II of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?

A

Level II: Intensive Outpatient/Partial Hospitalization

122
Q

What is Level III of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?

A

Level III: Residential/Inpatient

123
Q

What is Level IV of the Alcohol and Abuse Rehab Prevention Program or Substance Abuse and Prevention Program (SAP)?

A

Level IV:Medically Managed Intensive Inpatient Treatment (detox)

124
Q

Who is responsible for the SAP program?

A

CG-1111

125
Q

What is SAPM?

A

Substance Abuse Program Manager - serves as manager for SAP program

126
Q

What is a SAPPS?

A

Substance Abuse Prevention Program Supervisor

127
Q

What is a SAPS?

A

Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist

128
Q

Commands with ___ or more members will designate a CDAR.

A

15

129
Q

Commands with ___ or greater will designate at minimum one primary and one alternate CDAR

A

50

130
Q

Commands with less than ___ members and
collocated with a larger command may request
permission from that command to designate the larger unit’s CDAR as their unit CDAR

A

15

131
Q

To be a CDAR, you must be an E-__ to E-__

A

E5-E8 or chief warrant officer or O1-O4 - members must not be in a supervisory role.

132
Q

How many elements are in the GAR model?

A

6

133
Q

What are the six elements of the GAR model?

A 
Supervision
Planning
Crew Selection
Crew Fitness
Environment
Event Complexity
134
Q

Who is required to complete the Danger/Caution tag-out control sheet?

A

A

135
Q

How many FPCONs are there?

A

5 - NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, DELTA

136
Q

What FPCON applies in the immediate area where the attack has occurred and intelligence indicates a specific target location is likely?

A

CHARLIE

137
Q

Can a Mast Rep submit evidence?

A

A

138
Q

How many characters are comments limited to on an competency with exception of conduct and advancement potential on the EER?

A

220 characters

139
Q

What is FOCON Normal?

A

When general global threat of possible terrorist activity is possible.

140
Q

What is FPCON Bravo?

A

When increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exits.

141
Q

What is FPCON Delta?

A

When immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that a terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent..

142
Q

Class A mishaps are ________ and higher.

A

2,000,000 or greater; fatality or permanent disability; missing military member, damage to CG boat of 300,000 or greater

143
Q

Class B mishaps are ________ and higher, but less than _________.

A

500,000 or greater, but less than 2,000,000

144
Q

What is BRS continuation pay?

A

Payable between 8 years but before 12 years - calculated from service member’s pay entry base date. Payment of at least 2.5 to 13 times basic monthly pay. Reservists eligible for 0.5 times.

145
Q

Class C mishaps are _______ and greater, but less than _______.

A

50,000 or greater, but less than 500,000.

146
Q

Class D mishaps are _______ and greater, but less than _______.

A

5,000 or greater but less than 50,000

147
Q

What is the defined benefit multiplier under BRS?

A

2%

148
Q

Government automatic and matching contributions of up to __ % if basic pay.

A

5%??? or 4%???

149
Q

To become vested in the Service Automatic Contribution (1%) you must have completed ___ years of service.

A

2

150
Q

Members may elect to receive a ____ % or ____ % lump sum payment of their retired pay discounted to the PV in exchange for reduced monthly retired pay until age 67.

A

25 or 50

YNC SWE (29 decks)

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