Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

Appears between ages 1 and 10, sometimes de novo, sometimes after infantile spasms.
• Triad of

(1) multiple seizure types refractory to AEDs,
(2) mental retardation (most), and
(3) slow spike-and-wave (1.5-2.5 HZ) activity on EEG.

A

Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

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2
Q

Lamotrigine and OCPs/HRT/Pregnancy

A

Oral contraceptive pills and hormone replacement therapy result in increased clearance of lamotrigine (up to 65%) and thus lower serum levels

• Specifically OCPs containing ethinylestradiol (not progesterone)

PREGNANCY also results in increased clearance thus may need to INCREASE amount of lamotrigine during pregnancy (just remember to go back down, post-partum)

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3
Q

SUDEP

-3 most significant risk factors

A

Sudden unexplained death in epilepsy (SUDEP)

Studies suggest that the most significant risk factors include uncontrolled generalized tonic-clonic convulsions, higher frequency of seizures, and the need for multiple AEDs.

Absence seizures, nonconvulsive seizures, and etiology of the epilepsy, have no known bearing on the risk of SUDEP.

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4
Q

4 year old with seizures that worsened with carbamazepine. What is the diagnosis?

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

consists of language regression, seizures, and sleep-activated spike discharges.

*can be worsened by carbamazepine!

Treat with high dose benzos, steroids, IVIG, depakote

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5
Q

Topiramate side effects

A

Increases risk of developing calcium phosphate stones (not other types)

-50-70% renally eliminated

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6
Q
A

hypsarrhythmia= interictal high amplitude, arrhythmic delta activities with independent multifocal spike discharges

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7
Q

Patient presents with the following…what antiepileptic medication are they on?

  1. Tremor
  2. Elevated lipase and amylase
  3. Eye pain
  4. Severe flank pain
  5. Hyperammonemia
A
  1. Depakote
  2. Depakote
  3. Topamax
  4. Topamax
  5. Depakote
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8
Q

Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizure PLUS

A
  • AD with 50%-60% penetrance
  • includes pts in whom febrile sz persist past the defined upper limit of age
  • May be associated w afebrile GTC seizures
  • sodium channel mutations (3 different Na channels or 1 GABA receptor subunit)
  • SCN1A (most frequent), SCN1B, SCN2A mutations
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9
Q

What is first line treatment for myoclonic epilepsy?

In patients with what mutations must you be careful with the use of this AED?

A

Valproic acid

Be careful with its use in pts with Mitochondrial mutations such as POLG gene mutations bc fulminant hepatic failure may result

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10
Q
A

Rasmussen disease

Progressive focal seizures that increase in duration & severity

Changes in white matter with hyperintensity -> then atrophy

Focal & multifocal epileptiform discharges & slowing

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11
Q

Patient is encephalopathic. What is the most likely cause?

A

Triphasic Waves

Usually neg-pos-neg, with duration increasing in each. Frontal predominance; Bilateral; Most DO NOT have A-P lag, but some do.

Think metabolic encephalopathy; usually hepatic.

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12
Q

What stage of sleep is this found in?

A

Sleep Spindles
Define stage 2 sleep, ~13-14 Hz, max ~central

After 2 years of age, asynchronous sleep spindles are considered abnormal.

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13
Q
A

Normal awake EEG
Eyeblinks, posterior dominant rhythm

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14
Q
A

Normal EEG

The background activity is posteriorly dominant alpha rhythm at 9 to 9.5 Hz. This is normal waking occipital activity. The normal

occipital background rhythm disappears on eye opening which is shown in the EEG tracing.

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15
Q
A

Large L hemisphere subdural hematoma

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16
Q
A

POSTS: Positive Occipital Sharp Transients of Sleep

Occur in stage 1 and 2 sleep

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17
Q
A

Focal Polymorphic delta

Consider underlying structural abnormality (infarct/tumor).

18
Q

What disease process is this associated with?

What are potential treatment options?

A

Lennox Gastaut:
Interictal slow spike and wave

  • multiple seizure types
  • MR
  • interictal EEG showing spike & wave

•Possible Rx: felbamate, rufinamide

19
Q

Rasmussen Disease

1) Describe EEG findings
2) What is typical age of onset?
3) What do you see on histology?
4) What is the best established treatment?

A

1) EEG Findings: Continuous unilateral epileptiform discharges. Progressive and usually involves only one hemisphere.
2) Presents in childhood (6-10y) with uncontrollable focal seizures that rarely respond to AEDs.
3) Histologically, perivascular lymphocytic infiltrates with vascular injury, astrogliosis, neuronal loss, and cortical atrophy are seen
4) Best extablished tx: hemispherectomy

20
Q
A

Hypsarrhythmia

seen in patients with infantile spasms

High voltage, irregular slow waves w/ multiple sharp & spike d/cs

21
Q

Infantile Spasms

1) Describe EEG Findings
2) What syndrome presents with infantile spasms + MR?
3) Name 3 potential underlying etiologies
4) What is most common treatment?

A

1) EEG: Hypsarrythmia, high voltage diffuse slowing with multifocal spikes and sharps in a chaotic fashion.
2) Often with mental retardation (= West Syndrome)
3) Etiology: Inborn errors of metabolism; structural brain abnormalities; TS
4) Tx: ACTH; (Vigabatrin with TS)

22
Q
A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

•Generalized periodic long-interval diffuse discharges in the EEG that recur every 4 to 15 seconds.

If not vaccinated against measles. Progressive cognitive decline after infection, -> seizures, motor abnormalities -> coma -> death in 1-3 years.

23
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

1) What infectious disease is this associated with?
2) Describe clinical presentation
3) Describe EEG findings
4) Describe MR Brain findings

A

1) late neuro presentation of previous measles, caused by host response to persistent measles virus in brain

2) presents age 5 to 15 yrs (primary infection < 4 yrs)
•regression w insidious onset over wks to mos
–behavioral changes & decline in school performance
–later tremors, myoclonus, seizures (often drop attacks), visual loss 2/2 chorioretinitis or cortical blindness
–chorea, pyramidal signs, cerebellar ataxia
–rapid motor deterioration, abn posturing, autonomic dysfunc, coma

3) Generalized periodic long-interval diffuse discharges in the EEG that recur every 4 to 15 seconds.
(Spongiform encephalopathies due to prion disease presents with GPEDs, but intervals are typically shorter than those of SSPE)

4) MRI: T2 Hyperintensities in the periventricular frontal, temporal, & occipital white matter
•Gen cerebral atrophy & ventric dilatation w progression of disease

24
Q
A

“Fourteen and 6” spikes

Benign variant; Posterior head regions during light sleep;
Most common in adolescents;
Best seen on referential montage

25
Q
A

Fourteen and 6 positive spikes

Sharply contoured and occur in the posterior head regions during light sleep.

Best demonstrated on referential EEG montages and are most common in adolescent patients.

26
Q
A

EKG Artifact

27
Q
A

PLEDs

Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges (PLEDs) are seen after an acute or subacute focal cerebral insult such as a stroke and are often associated with seizures.

28
Q

Patient presents encephalopathic and you suspect an infectious etiology. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges (PLEDS) occur in the majority of cases of HSV encephalitis.

29
Q

EEG from a 5 year old boy with focal twitching of the face and excessive salivation.

1) What is the diagnosis?
2) What is the prognosis?
3) What is treatment of choice?

A

1) Benign Epilepsy with Centrotemporal Spikes (BECTS; Rolandic epilepsy)
•Onset age 3-16
•Focal twitching of the face and/or hand, excessive salivation, gurgling/choking and inability to speak. May become generalized.
•About 20% of patients only have one seizure and in two thirds of the cases seizures are infrequent.

2) Children are neurologically normal, and the majority outgrow the disorder.
3) Carbamazepine is the treatment of choice, if treatment is necessary.

30
Q

Child presents with following EEG.

What is the diagnosis?

What is the treatment of choice?

A

Absence Seizure
3 Hz spike and wave

  • Typical childhood absence seizures do not have auras or post-ictal confusion.
  • Automatisms can be seen.
  • EEG shows 3 Hz to 4 Hz generalized spike-and-wave discharges
  • Imaging studies of the brain are normal.
  • Tx: Ethosuximide or valproate. Lamotrigne now approved for absence.
31
Q

What drug likely caused this EEG finding?

A

Benzodiazepine

Excess Beta

32
Q
A

Status Epilepticus

33
Q
A

CJD

periodic, short-interval (0.5 to 1.0 second), generalized, bisynchromous discharges on EEG

(GPEDS)

34
Q

2 month old male with tonic spasms in clusters. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Ohtahara Syndrome

EEG shows burst suppression

(if onset in first few weeks of life with prominent myoclonus, could also consider Early Myoclonic Encephalopathy which would also have burst suppression)

35
Q

What is the underlying cause of Benign Familial Neonatal Seizure?

A

aka “Fifth day fits” - presents within first few days of life

Channelopathies: KCNQ2, KCNQ3

36
Q

What genetic mutation is seen in Dravet Syndrome?

A

SCN1A mutation
often family history of seizures

(Dravet Syndrome aka Severe Myoclonic Epilepsy in Infancy)

37
Q

4 year old girl with focal seizure that occurs in sleep, accompanied by nausea and sweating. Her mother notices her pupils are dilated and she appears pale.

EEG shows occipital spikes/epileptiform discharges.

What is diagnosis?

What is best treatment?

A

Panayiotopoulous syndrome

Focal seizures, often occur from sleep
with prominent autonomic features

Often not placed on AEDs, can use diazepam PR

38
Q

What are the EEG findings in Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)?

What percentage of cases have a positive family history?

What clinical feature is required for diagnosis?

What is common trigger?

A

4-6 Hz polyspike and wave interictal

30% have positive family history

Must have myoclonus

Often triggered by sleep deprivation

39
Q

Define simple febrile seizure

A

Child <6 years
Temp >38 C
Lasts <15 min
No focal features
Single sz within 24h

40
Q

Patient presents with partial seizures with olfactory hallucinations and the following MRI. What is diagnosis?

A

Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy

Associated with mesial temporal sclerosis

Partial seizures with olfactory hallucinations, impaired awareness, and automatisms

41
Q

Name 4 antiepileptic drugs that induce cytochrome P450.

A

Phenytoin

Phenobarbital

Carbamazepine

Primidone

(*can speed the metabolism of contraceptives)

“A Prim person on Phen-Phen driving a Car”

42
Q

What is the most important thing to monitor for patients who are on vigabatrin?

A

Visual fields
*Can have severe, permanent visual field deficits