EOC Review Flashcards
1
Q
What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
A
Control cell growth and division
2
Q
Two reasons why cells divide rather than grow larger are:
A
1) get nutrients to diffuse in and waste to diffuse out of the cell
2) needs to respond quickly to cells needs
3
Q
The phases of mitosis in order are
A
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
4
Q
The most efficient cells- capable of feeding themselves and removing all their wastes- will have a high______ to _________ ratio.
A
Surface area; volume
5
Q
What happens during prophase?
A
Chromatin condenses into chromosomes; nuclear envelope breaks; centrioles separate forms spindle
6
Q
What happens during G1 phase?
A
Grow, new organelles and metabolic processes take place
7
Q
What happens during metaphase 1 of meiosis?
A
Homologous chromosome pairs line up
8
Q
How is mitosis different in plant and animal cells?
A
Plant make a new cell wall in the middle and animal cells pinch to split cell
9
Q
How is anaphase 1 of meiosis different then anaphase of mitosis?
A
Chromosome pairs separate not chromosomes halves
10
Q
A replicated chromosome is made of two haves called _______, these are connected together by a structure called the ________.
A
Chromatids, centromere
11
Q
During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line upon the middle of the cell?
A
Metaphase
12
Q
During which phase of mitosis do chromatid halves separate?
A
Anaphase
13
Q
During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A
S phase
14
Q
What happens when a cell reaches a cell cycle checkpoint?
A
Stop and go signals can regulate the cycle
15
Q
Mitosis is different from meiosis because:
A
Produces any cell and makes 2 meiosis produces gametes and creates 4
16
Q
What signal tells cells to stop growing once they have filled a cut in your skin?
A
Density dependent signal cells
17
Q
How is metaphase 1 of meiosis different than metaphase 2 of meiosis?
A
The chromosomes lining up are attaching to the spindle
18
Q
Which steps o meiosis lead to cells that contain a random mix of your DNA?
A
Homologous crossover
19
Q
When does Homologus crossover occur
A
During prophase
20
Q
Which types of cells can divide by meiosis?
A
Germ cellz
21
Q
The purpose of meiosis is to:
A
Create gametes - cells used for reproduction
22
Q
During fertilization, a ________ egg an a ________ sperm join to form a ________ zygote.
A
Diploid, diploid, haploid
23
Q
A punnett square can be used to:
A
Show the gene combinations that result from a genetic cross
24
Q
A different version of a gene is called
A
Allele
25
Mendel proved that all the traits he studied in pea plants are independent of each other, but Morgan proved thy traits in fruit flies could be linked. Which one if right?
Both
26
A physical characteristic is known as a:
Phenotype
27
mendel first crossed true breeding yellow pea and green pea plants; all of the offspromg had yellow peas. from this experiment , mendel deduced the principle of
complete dominace
28
all of the chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called:if a person is h heterozygous, which allele will determine their phenotype:
autosomal chromosomes
29
the scientific study of heredity is called:
genetics
30
cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that isthat is seen equally in both males and females; its mode of inheritance is probably:
autosomal
31
iif two planrs that are heteroygous for yellow pea coloe produce offspring, what will the ratio of yellow to green pea plants be in the offspring?
3:1
32
what do you call a trait that is inherited on the x chromosome?
sex linked trait
33
you want to determine if a yellow pea plant is homozygousor heterozygous for pea color . to do this you cross-fertilize it to a green pea plant ; the resulting offsprinng show a mix of green pea and yellow pea plants. from this you conclude:
two are dominant and both contribute to the phenotype
34
mendel first crossed true breeding yelloow pea nad green pea plants, and all of the offspring had yellow peas, he then allowed these hybrid yellow pea to self fertilize . the resulting off spring included both yellow and green pea plants. from this experiment Mendel deduced the principle of
segregation.
35
an organism that has two different alleles for a particular gene is called
heterozygous
36
human blood type is determined by 3 alleles:a, b, and o. if a person inheriets both an A and B, both contribute to make the person type AB. This is example of
Co-dominance
37
if a person is a dihhybrid crosshas a genotype BbWw, what are the possible gamates made by this parent:
BW Bw Wb wb
38
Mendel first crossed true breedimg yellow/ round pea and green/ wrinkled pea plants, and all of the offspriing had yellow/ round peas. he then allowed these hybrid pea plants to self fertilize. the resulting offspring included both yellow/ wrinkled pea plants and green / round pea plants - sypes not seen in the parents. from this experiment Mendel deducted the principle of independent assortment
independent assortment.
39
a cross between a red flowered (RR) and a white flowered (rr) Mirabilis plant produces that all have pink flowers (Rr) this is an example of
incomplete dominance
40
when tomas Hunt Morgan produced mutant fruit flies with white eyes, he nooticed that all of the white eyed fflies were males. from this observation Morgan concluded that
the white eyes trait was sex linked
41
if a person has trisomy-21 then they will have _______ syndrome
down
42
when mendel crossed true breeding tall plants with true breeding short plants, all of the offspring were tall because:
the allele for tall plants is dominant
43
An error that can lead to gametes with too many chromosomes is
Non disjunction
44
why do boys always inherit sex-linked disorders from their mother and not their father
their is no matching genes in the Y chromosome if the male inherent a defective X he will have the disorder.
45
when do both segregation and independent assortment occur during meiosis?
anaphase 2
46
in a testcross what is the term for an offspring that have a mix of traits from the two parents
recombinant
47
what is the only genotyoe that will result from a recessive phenotype?
homozygous recessive
48
what is a variation that increases an individuals ability to survive
adaptation
49
why do closely related animals have a common pattern of embryotic development?
development is controlled by a common set of Hox genes
50
what is the ability to survive and reproduce in a specific environment called?
fitness
51
what type of fossil forms when an organism walks through some kind of mud , and the footprints in the mud become fossilized?
Trace fossil
52
what is the term for fossils that document various intermittent stages in the evolution of modern species from organisms that are now extinct?
traditional fossils
53
what is selected by natural selection?
organisms with better fitness
54
what is required foe evolution to occur by natural selection
???????????
55
64% of the population of Mmartians have a recessive trait called "pizza face" what percentage of the population is heterozgous for the dominant normial face trait?
32%
56
why are vestigal organs considered to be evidence of evolution??
because they are example of how structures in ancient organisms have been changed into structures found in modern organisms
57
how many half lives have passed if theirs only 12.5% of radio active sample remaining?
3 half lives
58
two mice of the same species are colored the same shade of tan. One has the genotype TT and the other has the genotype Tt. since their genotypes are different, their survival rate could be expected to be:
?????????
59
whaile genetic drift is ann example of _____ changes in a gene pool , natural selection is ________ about which organisms survive and which do not.
Random; specific
60
which type of natural selection can split a population into 2 species?
disruptive selection
61
what is a collection of all the alleles of a population called?
gene pool
62
what did Darwin call the process where humans choose to breed those plants and annimals that have variations we find useful?
artificial selection
63
Darwin suggested that species with low fitness _______, while species with high fitness __________.
die out; reproduce more
64
If a population on mice havs 15 alleles for brown coak and 35 allels for tan coat color, what is the relative frequency of brown coat alleles?
30%
65
what must happen in order for one species to evolve into two different species?
reproductive isolation
66
Males of one species of firelies light up to attract femals at dusk, while a diffferent species lights up to attract females late at night. this is an example of:
temporal
67
Human babies survive better if they are between 5.5 and 9 lbs at birth, but die more frequently if they are less than 5.5 lbs or more then 9 lbs. this is an example of
stabilizing selection
68
eastern and western Meadowlarks do not mate because the males sing different mating songs . this is an example of:
behavioral isolation
69
what are some examples of genetic drift?
founder effect and bottle neck effect
70
in order to have genetic equilibrium, all of the following must be true EXCEPT:
natural selection will occur
71
GIraffes with longer necks are more successful in gathering food; the fossil record shows that overtim, giraffe necks have gotten longer as a result. this is an example of:
directional selection
72
Bononoos and chimpanzees are closely relative ape, but cannot interbred because they cannot cross the congo rive. this is an example of:
geographic isolation
73
mocker swallowtail butterflies that are either deep orange or white survive because they look like poisonous butterflies, but loght colored mocker butterflies are quickly eaten by predators. this is an example of:
natural selection
74
why did birds survive the global temperature drop at the end of the Cretaceous period while dinosaurs did not?
they were more adaptable. They were more able to survive changes in climate & food source than other animals.
75
darwin suggested that one species of finch from south america moved to the galapagos islands where they evolved into different species. this is an example of:
adaptive radiation
76
what theroy states that the population remains unchanged for long periods of time, but then change rapidly over short periods of time?
punctuated equilibrium
77
what are the functions of the skeletal system?
support the body, protect the internal organs, help with movement,, store mineral reserves, , red and white blood cells
78
what is the process of converting cartilage into bone called?
ossification
79
what are the function of the muscular system?
movement, blood flow, breathing, passage of food through digestive system and minor functions
80
what are the parts of the appendicular skeleton?
cranium, maxilla, mandible, hyoid bone,vertebral colum, clavicle,scapula, sternum, ribs, humerus, pelvis, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges, femur, patella, tibia, fibula,tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges
81
what type of joint allows you to rotate in one dimension?
pivot joint
82
if you starve your body of calcium or dont exersise much, youll weaken your bones and develop:
osteoporosis
83
what is an example of a hinge joinnt?
knee and ulna at the elbow
84
if you were to cut a bone in half what structures would you see, going from the outside to the inside?
compact bone, spongy bone, bone marrow
85
what is the scientific name for one of the bones you learned?
phalanges
86
what type of muscle is found in the heart?
cardiac muscle
87
what type of muscle helps you digest food in your stomach?
smooth muscle
88
what type of muscle do you use to fill in your answers?
skeletal muscle
89
why can cardiac muscle cells pull in many directions while skeletal muscles can not?
because skeletal muscles are long tubes whilw cardiac muscle are branced
90
what type of protein make up the thick filament of a sacromere?
myosin
91
which step in muscle contraction happens after calcium is released into the cell?
myosin head binds to the actin fiber
92
which step in muscle contraction requires energy from the breakdown of ATP?
myosin head returns to its starting position
93
in the sacromere, the ________ are connected by the Z-line and the _______ are connected by the M-line.
Actin fibers; myosin fibers
94
what structure connects a muscle to a bone?
tendon
95
what structure connects a bone to another bone?
ligaments
96
what are the parts of the central nervous system?
brain and spinal cord
97
what is the function of the motor neurons?
transmit commands from CNS to the muscles and glands
98
what part of the brain is helping you think of the answer to there questions?
cerebellum
99
what part of the brain coordinates your body movements?
cerebellum
100
what part of the brain controls your heart beat, breathing, and blood pressure?
brain stem
101
in what order does an impulse travel through a neuron?
dendrites, cell body, axon, axon terminals then to muscle cells, gland cells, or other neurons
102
what is the correct order of neurons involved in a reflex arc.
sensory, spinal cord, motor
103
how does the myelin sleath help a neuron?
insulates the neuron and speeds up the impulse
104
in order for a neuron to create a resting potential it must
pump 3 na+ ions out for every2 K+ other neurons that enter cell
105
what is a junction where a neuron can pass a signal to another cell?
axon terminals
106
what does a neuron do to start transmitting an impulse?
when chemically gated sodium channels open
107
what does a neuron release from the axon terminals to transmit a signal to an adjacent cell?
??????
108
what is the net charge of the inside of a resting neuron?
????????
109
what does a neuron do to repolarize itself so it can transmit another impulse?
???????
110
what are the 5 types of pathogens?
bacteria, viruses, fungi, protists, and worms
111
what type of pathogen must invade cells to reproduce?
viruses
112
what are the charactistics of a retrovirus?
a virus that uses RNA instead of DNA to store its genetic material
113
what part of a bacterium help it move?
flagellum
114
which virus growth cycle immediately destroys then host cell and creates more viruses?
Lytic growth
115
what do bacteria have that viruses are missing?
cell membrane, cytoplasm, and flagellum
116
what part of a virus help it attach and infect a host cell?
capsid
117
what do lytic and lysogenic growth have in common?
they both begin when a virus attaches to the host cell and transfers its DNA or RNA into the host cell
118
what are the parts of the barrier defense?
skin, mucus, saliva, sweat, tears, and stomach acid
119
why cant viruses be killed with antibiotics??
??????????
120
which of these are an advantage of lysogenic growth?
because it is invisible to the immune system and can be carried into new environments
121
during which phase of the immune response are healthy cells killed recklessly in order to stop an
Inflammatory response
122
what is a substance that triggers an immune responce?
antigen
123
both macrophages and dendritic cells can:
collect antigens, display them, travel to the lympthnode and activate killer T cells
124
what do helper T-cells do?
activate either killer T-cells or B-cells depending on type of immune response
125
what can lead to active immunity?
?????????????????
126
how does the humoral response kill pathogens?
??????????????????
127
what type of cells kills ONLY infected cells during the specific immune response?
antibodies
128
when B-cells recognize antigens, what do they do?
make antibodies
129
what cell type is the first to be activated in a lympth node?
killer T-cells
130
what is the first step of the specific immune response?
antigen presenting cells
131
which type of specific immune responce would be best for for killing a pathogen found swimming in the blood like the parasites that cause african sleeping sickness.
killer T-cells
132
how does a APC know which specific killer t cell to activate?
because it uses the antigens it displays and tries to find a match
133
what parts of an antibody bind to the antigen?
variable regions of the heavy and light chain
134
which cells make antibodies?
b- cells
135
what method of killing requires antibodies to have TWO antigen binding sites
binding to and cross linking pathogens into clumps to help phagocyte sengulf them
136
how does HIV destory the entire specific immune responce?
?????
137
what is the purpose of a vaccine?
a preparation of weakened or viral proteins that stimulate the immune system?
138
what type of cells remain in your body (after infection) to make you immune for the rest of your life?
memory cells
139
viruses, some bacteria, and some protists hide inside of human cells, amking to hard for antibodies to bind to them; which type of specific immune response would be best for killing these pathogens?
killer t cells
140
some pathogens (such as influenza B) have evolved to regularly change the antigens on their outer surface; what level of the immune system would that defeat?
memory cells
141
many bacteria, protists, fungi, and worms have heack shock genes which allows then to grow in higher than normal temperatures' what level of the immune response would that defeat?
interleukins
142
how is the secondary response better then the primary response?
because it specifically kills infected cells while primary kills everything.
143
the respiratory system supplies _________, and removes __________ from the blood
oxygen, carbon dioxide
144
when you breath in your ________, raises and your ______ lowers
diaphragm, and ribs
145
what type of blood vessels surrounds the alveioli??
?????????
146
what is the role of nose hair and mucus in the respiratory system?
to filter the air
147
how does gas exchange occur in the lungs?
oxygen diffuses from the air into red blood cells where it is bound by hemoglobin
148
what keeps your trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles from collapsing when youu inhale?
connective tissue rings
149
how does smoking affect your lungs?
it causes your cilia to stop beating
150
which feature gound in all the respiratory systems help them to work more efficiently?
high surface area and is moist
151
As air enters your body and it travels your ________ and then though your __________ into your lung.
trachea; bronchi and bronchicles
152
which loop of the circulatory system provides oxygen to the tissues and collects carbon dioxide from them?
plumonary circulation
153
what does blood pass through after it leaves the right ventricle?
pulmonary artery
154
as blood flows through the heart it moves from left atrium to the
left ventricle
155
whiich part of the blood carries sugar, salts, and urea?
plasma
156
why can nutrients and wastes easily enter the blood when it is traveling through capillaries?
because they are thin
157
which type of blood vessel carries blood TO the heart?
veins
158
when you feel your pulse in your wrist or throat, what are you feeling as it expands and contracts?
arteries
159
what problems would occur if there was a hole in the wall between the left ventricle and right ventricle?
the high and low oxygen will mix and pump some blood in to the body that is low in oxygen
160
what is the function of the valves found in veins and between the chanbers of the heart?
to keep blood flowing in the right direction
161
which part of your blood caries oxygen
red blood cells
162
a person who cannot clot their blood is probably missing:
platelets
163
what are the functions of the endocrine system?
maintain homeostasis, start and control major changes in the body
164
why do endocrine hormones have the potential to affect many organs in the body?
???????????????????????
165
liver cells resond to the glucagon why spleen cells do not. this is because liver cells have:
??????????????????????
166
what do calcitonin and parathyoid homone control?
calcium levels
167
which type of hormone can pass strait throough the cell membrane and into the cell?
steriod
168
youve just run a mile around the track and are feeling dehydrated and thirsty.what hormone are you making?
antidiuretic hormone
169
which of the following would not be true for someone who hadhyperthyoidism- they make too much tyroxine?
have high amount of oxygen and cellular metabolism
170
you just had a breakfast of chocolate- froosted sugar bombs, and are now absorbing a lot of sugar into your blood; which of these hormones are being released?
insulin
171
identify two pairs of antagonistic hormomes?
insulin and cotonin
172
which of the following is true for booth steriod and non steriod hormones?
bind to hoormone receptor
173
you just jumped off of a bridge with a masive bungee cord attached to your ankles, and are currently screaming your head off. which hormones is/ are probably being released into your blood?
epinephrine norepinphrine
174
which nutrients do NOT need to be digested?
water minerals and vitamins
175
what type of digestion includes the chewing of food?
mechanical digestion
176
what enzyme break polysaccharides into disaccharides in the mouth?
salivary amaylase
177
where does the food go after passing through the esophagus?
to the stomach
178
what enzyme start the digestion of proteins in the stomach?
pepsin
179
how does bile help you digest food?
breaks down fats and imulifies them
180
which enzymes are made by the pancreas?
lipase, pancreatic amaylase, tryspin and chymotyspin
181
what kinds of digestion can the stomach do?
chemical and mechanical
182
which enzymes break disaccharides into monosaccharides?
maltase, lactase, sucrase
183
bile is made in the ______ and stored in the ________
liver; gall bladder
184
what does the enzyme peptidase digest?
peptides into amino acids
185
where are most nutrients absorbed into the blood stream?
small intestine
186
what do you get if you large intestine does not work correctly?
didiaarhia
187
what is the correct order of digesting proteins?
pepsin or tryspin and chymotrysin then peptidase
188
what type of enzyme cuts DNA at a specific sequence?
restriction endonuclease
189
what a restriction enzyme cuts DNA and the ends of DNA strands are un even and the ends are called:
sticky ends
190
one function of gel electrophoresis is to:
separate DNA by size
191
a Dna molecule produced by combining DNA from different sources is knoe as
recombinant DNA
192
A recombinant plasmid gets inside a bacterial cell by
a process called tranformation
193
suppose a bacterial culture were mixed with recombinant plasmids conating a gene for resistance to ampicillin. the bacterial culture was trated with ampicillin. what will happen?
have plasmid live do not have plasmid die (antibiotic selection)
194
what is the fist step in clooning the human insulin gene into bacteria?
digest genes with restriction enzymes
